Peds Midterm Flashcards
(116 cards)
1
Q
What is the 1st sign of puberty in males
A
Testicular Growth
2
Q
What is the 1st sign of puberty in females
A
Breast Buds
3
Q
Average U.S age of puberty in males
A
14 years old (Onset 11-12)
4
Q
Average U.S age of puberty in females
A
12 years old (Onset 9-10)
5
Q
2nd line treatment for uncomplicated Otitis Media
A
Augmentin (Amoxicillin/Clavulanic) 90/mg/kg a day x 10days
6
Q
1st line treatment for uncomplicated Otitis Media
A
Amoxicillin 80-90mg/kg a day x 10 days
7
Q
What vaccines are should not be given to immunocompromised children
A
Live viruses. (MMR, Varicella, Rotavirus, Intranasal influenza, Oral Polio)
8
Q
Age you may see stranger anxiety in an infant?
A
9 months of age
9
Q
Head lag should be gone by when?
A
6 months
10
Q
At what age can a child stand on one foot
A
3 years of age
11
Q
At what age can a child say its first words
A
6-9 months
12
Q
At what age can a child walk up stairs
A
3 years
13
Q
What is the Piaget Theory of Cognitive Development for 2-7 years of age
A
Preoperational Thinking
14
Q
Concrete operational thinking is at what age
A
7-10 years (School Age Child)
15
Q
Expected average vision of a 2 year old
A
20/70
16
Q
At birth - 2 years of age, what is the Piaget Theory of Cognitive Development stage
A
Sensorimotor stage
17
Q
How often will a formula fed infant have stools within the 1st month of life
A
2 to 4 stools a day
18
Q
What is the consistency of the stool of a breastfed infant
A
Soft, sticky, watery, curd-like texture, light yellow. (Yellow and seedy)
19
Q
Concrete operational thinking develops during which years
A
7-10 years (School Age)
20
Q
Most common sign of retinoblastoma is
A
Leukocoria (White pupil)
21
Q
At one month old, what reflexes will a baby exhibit?
A
- Rooting
- Stepping
- Moro
- Babinski
22
Q
The chemical cause of Ophthalmia Neonatorum is?
A
Use of Silver Nitrate or Erythromycin ointment on the infant post/after birth
23
Q
Treatment for Retinoblastoma is
A
- Chemoreduction
* Referral to Ophthalmologist and Oncologist
24
Q
The most common cause of neonatorum conjunctivits
A
Chlamydia infection (Chlamydia pass vertically through vaginal birth canal)
25
Signs and Symptoms of HSV Neonatorum Ophthalmia
* Usually begins 2 weeks after birth
* Watery discharge
* Vesicles
26
Management of Nasal Foreign Body is?
Remove with forceps and/or refer to E.N.T
27
The stool consistency of a formula fed infant would be?
Soft, semi-formed, with a brown, greenish, or yellow color.
28
The Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development for 12 years of age and up is?
Formal Operational Thinking
29
What is the prognosis of Epitaxis
Good: Most cases are benign and due to increased vascularity of nasal mucosa (Kiesselbach Plexus area).
30
Causes of Epitaxis include: (Remember C.N.S and T.M.H)
* Clotting and Hematology disorders (Rare)
* Nose Picking and N.S.A.I.Ds
* Sinusitis
* Trauma
* Mucosal Dryness from Medication
* Hypertension
31
This reflex is strongest by 1st -2nd month, and disappears by 3 months
Palmar Grasp
32
When does the Plantar Grasp disappear
Disappears by 8 months
33
This disappears before voluntary walking
Stepping Reflex
34
Moro reflex disappears when?
Disappears by 6 months
35
At what age can Gaurdasil be given to a female?
Between ages 9 - 26
36
Gaurdasil is a vaccine for what?
Vaccine effective against HPV 16 and 18, which causes 70% of cervical cancers
37
* Also known as swimmers ear.
| * An acute inflammation/infection of the external ear canal
Otitis Externa
38
Organism found with Otitis Externa include (Remember P.S.S.K + F):
* Pseudomonas
* Streptococcal Pneumoniae
* Staphylococcus Aureus
* Klebsiella
* Fungal Infections (Candida and Aspergillus)
39
Which vaccines helps protect against Epiglotitis?
Haemophilus Influenza Type B vaccine (Hib)
40
Common signs and symptoms of epiglottis include (Remember H.D.M.D + S.)
* *High Fever**
* *Drooling**
* *Muffled Voice (Aphonia)**
* *Dysphagia**
* * Stridor
41
Treatment for A-typical Pneumonia is?
* Macrolides
42
Abnormal head position due to unilateral contraction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle – a firm mass side of neck.
Congenital Torticollis
43
The incidence of Congenital Torticollis are?
* Forcep or breech births
| * Increase incidence in Males
44
Causes of Congenital Torticollis include (Remember C.O.I)
* Compartment Syndrome
* Occlusion of circulating Sternocleidomastoid Muscle prior to birth
* Intrauterine crowding
45
On a toddler exam, what should you examine last?
* Ears and Throat
46
What are the emergent findings in Peri-Orbital Cellulitis
Inability to use ExtraOcular Muscles
47
What does Croup look like on an Xray
**Steeple Sign** (Soft tissues of the neck and chest show subglottic narrowing)
48
Treatment for Strep Pharyngitis includes?
PCN-V 500mg I.M x 1, then Amoxicillin 250mg p.o x 10 days
49
* Unilateral or Bilateral obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct (blocked tear duct.
* Seen in Inants
* Up to 90% spontaneous resolution by 12 months
Dacrostenosis
50
Erickson Developmental stage for Toddler?
Autonomy vs Shame Doubt
51
Initiative vs Guilt is what Erickson Stage
Preschool
52
Comorbidities found in asthma patients (Remember G.O.O.S.E - A)
* G.E.R.D
* Obesity
* O.S.A
* Sinusitis***
* External issues
* Allergic Rhinitis
53
The GOLD standard to diagnose Asthma
* Formal Spirometry
| * * Not diagnosed from a single episode of wheezing, this is diagnosed by recurrent symptoms**
54
Erickson's Development stage for Infancy is
Trust vs Mistrust
55
* It is usually viral
* It is inflammation of the LARGE airways
* It is self-limiting
Bronchitis
56
The signs and symptoms of bronchitis is
* It starts as a DRY cough that is worse at night, then becoming/progresses to productive in 2 - 3 days
57
What vaccines are given at 2 months of age
Hep B, DTaP, PCV-13, Hib, Polio (IPV) and Rotavirus (RV)
58
Causes of Tachycardia in children include (Remember F.A.D + H)
* Fever
* Dehydration
* Anemia (Blood Loss)
* Heart Failure
59
Signs and Symptoms of Allergic Rhinitis (Remember D.N.S + P.H.I.S.T)
* Dry cough
* Nasal Congestion and Rhinorrhea
* Sneezing
* Pale boggy Nasal Mucosa
* Hypertrophied Turbinates
* Itchy eyes, ears, and throat
* Sinus headache
* Throat Clearing
60
In a sports physical, what needs to be up to date
TDaP and Meningococcal vaccinations
61
Industry vs Inferiority happens with what age group?
School Age children
62
At what age does a child have a 30-50 word vocabulary?
22-25 months
63
At 6 months of age, what vaccines are given (6 vaccines)
* Hep B
* DTaP
* PCV-13
* Hib
* Rotavirus
* Influenza
64
* Acute viral infection, with maximal effect at the bronchiolar level
* Is responsible for 80% of cases during epidemic periods (Jan - Feb)
* Usually Afebrile
Respiratory Synctal Virus
65
RSV starts with what symptoms
* URI symptoms (nasal congestion, clear nasal discharge), then progresses to a lower respiratory infections symptoms (wet cough, post pharyngeal errhythema without exudate
66
At what intervals are the Gaurdasil Vaccine given?
1st dose, 2nd dose month (30 days later), 3 dose at least 6 months after 1st dose
67
Signs and Symptoms of Dehydration (D.D.S.T + C)
* Dry Skin and Mucous Membranes
* Decrease Urine Output
* Sunken Fontanels
* Tachycardia
* Circulatory Failure (cool-mottled extremities, loss of skin elasticity, delayed capillary refill)
68
Common side effects of allergies in a school age child includes
* Difficulty concentrating in school
| * Sleepiness
69
Erickson Developmental Stage for an adolescent is
Identity vs Role Confusion
70
The first Hep B vaccine is given when
At Birth
71
The 1st MMR and Varicella vaccine given when?
At 1 year of age
72
At what age does a infant smile and coo
2 to 3 months
73
At age 8 to 9 months, what language development does a child have?
* Dada and Mama
| * Waves "Bye - Bye"
74
A congenital malignant tumor or tumors of the retina
Retinoblastoma
75
Treatment for Bronchitis is ______
* Symptomatic - treat the symptoms
| * Recovery is usually 5 - 10 days
76
Upper Respiratory Infections (URI) symptoms include:
* Variable Fever
* Diffuse Wheezing
* Cough
* Tachypnea
* Difficulty Feeding
77
Treatment for RSV is _____
* Symptomatic
* High humidity
* Adequate Fluid Intake
* Rest
78
Causes of Otitis Externa include:
* Loss of Protective Cerumen
* Chronic Irritation
* Eczema
* Psoriasis
79
Epiglotitis is common in what age children
4 to 7 years of age
80
What does sleep and tv watching do to sleep
Increase the frequency of sleep problems
81
The most common cause of abnormal papillary reflex is?
Cataracts
82
When breastfeeding well, what will the infants elimination pattern be?
2-3 stools a day, and 5-6 wet diapers
83
At what age can solid food be introduced to infants
4 - 6 months of age, if they have gained head control
84
Breast and areola enlargement are found in what tanner stage
Tanner stage III
85
A child should be able to walk independently and build a 2 block tower at what age
18 months
86
How should live vaccines be given
Given together on the same day or separated by 4 weeks (1 month)
87
Besides anaphylactic reactions, what other contraindications are their to vaccines
Encephalopathy not due to another identifiable cause
88
True or False: Minor illnesses are a contraindication for vaccines
False: Minor illnesses are NOT a contraindication for vaccines
89
Psychosocial and Emotion Skill "Red Flags" of an 8 year old includes (Remember C.L.L.I.F + D.)
* Lack of hobbies
* Lack of best friends
* Cruelty to animals
* Interest in fires or fire setting
* Flat affect, depression, withdrawn
* Defiant behavior
90
Growth, Rhythmicity, Sleep, and Temperament "Red Flags" in a 24 month (2 year old) would include:
* Less than 4 times birth weight or falling off growth curve.
* Poor sleep cycle; Awakens at night and unable to put self back to sleep
91
Gross Motor "Red Flags" of a 3 month old would include:
* Asymmetrical movements
* Hypertonia or hypotonia
* No attempt to raise head, when on stomach (Head Lag)
92
Language "Red Flags" of a 2 year old would include:
* No 2-word phrases
* Use of non-communicative speech (echolalia, rote phrases)
* Unable to identify 5 pictures
* Unable to name body parts
* No jargon
* History of greater than 10 episodes of Otitis Media
93
A well fed breast-fed baby will have how many diaper changes?
5-6 wet diapers and 2-3 stools a day
94
If not given together, MMR and Varicella should be given
At least 30 days (1 month) apart
95
Treatment for Clubfoot includes
* Gentile manipulation with serial castings
* Bracing after surgery
* Immediate surgical repair
96
Screening test for scoliosis
Adams forward bend test
97
Small, firm, pink to flesh colored papules, 1-6 mm size umbilication, with a cheesy core, describes which type of dermatological lesions
Molluscum Contagiousum
98
Classic location of atopic dermatitis
Flexural areas, such as popliteal and antecubital fossae
99
Purple, red macules that tend to be large and are often found on the face or neck
Port Wine Stains
100
Superficial strawberry colored papules
Hemangiomas
101
Blue or slate gray irregular macules
Mongolian spots
102
Tan to light brown macules of irregular shapes
Cafe' Au'Lait spots
103
Sings of pathologic murmur include
* Poor feeding
* Fatigue
* Change in blood pressure and heart rate
104
Signs of innocent murmurs include
* Varies with position changes
* Disappears when child holds breath
* No changes seen in vital signs
105
The 4 defects of Tetralogy of Fallot include
* Pulmonary Stenosis
* Right Ventricle Hypertrophy
* Ventricle Septal Defect
* Overriding Aorta
106
What is the treatment for Kawasaki disease
* IVIg
* High dose Aspirin
* Bed Rest
107
A concerning complication of Kawasaki disease is
Coronary Artery Spasm
108
The most common cause of renal failure in children is
Dehydration
109
Chronic Renal Failure is usually the result of a ___
Developmental abnormality of the kidneys or urinary tract
110
The common goal in pediatric pain control is ____
To achieve and maintain comfort
111
Infantile Syncope are breath holding spells that are ___
Benign in nature
112
Two common types of pediatric headaches are:
Migraine and Tension-type
113
Night terrors are common in what age group
3 - 8 years of age
114
Trisomy 21 is known as
Down Syndrome
115
A heterozygous "SA" person is known to have
The Sickle Cell "Trait"
116
An IQ of less than 70 and developmental delay is defined as ____
Cognitive Impairment
