Peds_Exam3_Notes Flashcards

1
Q
  1. 4 things you would assess in osteomyelitis
  2. Factors that associate iwth SCFE x3
  3. What would you find in assessment DDH
A
  1. unable to move extremity, severe pain, fever, redness/swelling
  2. obesity, hormonal changes, endocrine disorders
  3. asymmetry of gluteal and thigh folds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Osteosarcoma, side effects of neutropenia?
  2. Assessments for compartment syndrome
  3. Sprains involve
A
  1. risk for infection
  2. pain, pulses, cap refill, pain meds
  3. ligament/joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Where does a sprain cause damage?
  2. What is a strain?
  3. MGMT of sprain/strains
A
  1. blood vessels, muscles, tendons nerves
  2. microscopic tear to the muscle, similar features to sprain
  3. Ice, 20 min q 2-3 hours for 1st 48 hrs., elevate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Medications for sprain/strain
  2. What is the maximum amount of meds for this you can take
  3. torus/buckle fractures are characterized by..
A
  1. motrin, advil (10mg/kg/dose),
  2. 600 mg every 6 hours, 2.4 gm/day
  3. bulging of the cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What does a torus fracture resemble?
  2. Where do the 5P’s occur in a fracture?
  3. Early signs of compartment syndrome?
A
  1. torus or base of a pillar
  2. distal to the site of the fracture
  3. edema, numbness, tingling, pain,
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What is a late sign of compartment syndrome?
  2. Causes of compartment syndrome?
  3. Ischemia and compartmanet syndrome
A
  1. weak pulse
  2. tight casts, skin traction, hemorrhage, trauma, burns, surgery
  3. deformity, muscle fibrosis, contracture, paralysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Traction where legs are in extended position, skin traction
  2. uses skin traction onthe lower leg, padded sling under the knee
  3. Golden rule of calling physician
A
  1. Buck’s
  2. Russell’s
  3. do assessment first
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Complication of osteomyelitis
  2. What bones are affected with osteomyelitis
  3. Treatment for Avascular Necrosis
A
  1. infection can rupture thru cortex into the subperiosteal space, stripping loose periosteum and forming abscess
  2. Long bones (tibia, femur)
  3. Bone Graft, Total Joint Replacement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Symptoms of SCFE
  2. Restrictions of SCFE
  3. How do you Dx SCFE
A
  1. continuous, intermittent pain in the hip, groin, front of thigh or knee.
  2. Internal rotation on adduction and external deformity with loss of abduction
  3. X-ray
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. How will child lay with SCFE
  2. Tx for SCFE
  3. Is legg Valve bilateral or unilateral
A
  1. lower extremity flexed, abducted, externally rotated b/c of intense pain
  2. pinning, non weight bearing, rest, PCA, cruch walking
  3. both
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Onset of SCFE
  2. This is a disturbance of circulation to the femoral capital epiphysis producing an ischemic aseptic necrosis of femoral head
  3. 4 Stages of Leg Calve
A
  1. continuous pain in the hip
  2. Leg Calve
  3. avascular, fragmentation, reparative, regenerative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Tx of LCP
  2. This is a spinal deformity that occurs in 3 planes
  3. What does scoliosis do to ribs?
A
  1. Abduction casts, pelvic/fem osteotomy, leather harness sling, traction, surgical reconstruction
  2. Scoliosis
  3. assymmetry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What does scoliosis do to the thoracic cage?
  2. When does scoliosis occur congenital
  3. When does scoliosis occur in infantile
A
  1. hypokyphosis
  2. fetal development
  3. birth - 3 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. When does juveline scoliosis occur
  2. When does scoliosis occur in adolescents
  3. What is the Adam’s Test?
A
  1. 4-10 years of age
  2. during growth spurt, MOST COMMON
  3. Scoliometer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Definitive Dx of Scoliosis
  2. Treatment of osteogenesis
  3. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
A
  1. Xrays using Cobb technique
  2. bone marrow transpant, -dronate drugs, splints, rods, genetic counseling
  3. inflammation of synovium, fibrosis of cartilage, ankylosis of joints, adhesion btwn joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Goals for JIA
  2. What are SAARDS used for?
  3. Diagnosis of DDH
A
  1. prevent deformity and preserve function
  2. Slower acting antirheumatoid drugs for JIA
  3. asymmetrical of the gluteal and thigh folds, limited hip abduction, ortolani/Barlow maneuvers, xrays, ultrasound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. tx for DDH
  2. tx for club foot
  3. What is important to watch for club foot
A
  1. pavlik harness, spica casting
  2. serial casting after birth, surgery, pin fixations, achills tendon lengthening
  3. skin and circulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. tx for subluxation of radial head
  2. most common site for osteosarcoma
  3. MGMT of osteosarcoma
A
  1. applying firm pressure to the head of the radius
  2. femur
  3. surgery, foot salvage, chemo, amputation (body image)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. obtunded
  2. Signs of hydrocephalus and ICP
  3. Febrile Seizure
A
  1. falling asleep, needs to be shaken to respond
  2. high pitched cry
  3. could have another one, acetominphen when ill, do not require seizure meds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. First procedure for dx meningitis
  2. braind damage with closed head injury
  3. Where is lumbar puncture inserted
A
  1. send spinal fluid and blood cultures to the lab
  2. decreased perfusion to brain, increased metabolic needs to brain
  3. between 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Neurological exam
  2. Unilateral fixed pupils
  3. Dilated/non reactive pupils
A
  1. LOC, Alert, Verbal Pain, Unresponsibe, Glascow Coma score, Pupils, Motor sensory, reflex, gait, cranial nerves
  2. lesion on the same side
  3. hypothermia, anoxia, ischemis, poisoning w/ atropine like sub
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. pinpoint pupils
  2. Widely dilated & reactive
  3. widely dilated fixed pupils
A
  1. brainstem dysfunction, poisoning (barbiturate or opiate)
  2. after a seizure, may be one sided
  3. paralysis of CN III, secondary from herniation thru tentorium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Bilateral fixed pupils
  2. Conjugate pupils
  3. Absent pupil response indicates
A
  1. brainstem damage if present more than 5 minutes
  2. movement of the eyes direction opposite the head rotation (doll’s head maneuver)
  3. dysfunction of brainstem or CNIII
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Full consciousness
  2. Confusion
  3. Disorientation
A
  1. awake, alert, oriented to time, place person behavior appropriate for age
  2. impaired decision making
  3. confusion w/ time, place, decreased LOC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Lethargy
  2. obtundation
  3. stupor
A
  1. limited spontaneous movement, sluggish speech, drowsy, failling asleep
  2. arousable w/ stimulation
  3. deep sleep, slow response to stimulation, moaning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Coma
  2. PVS
  3. 3 components of glascow coma scale
A
  1. no motor or verbal response, extension posturing to painful stimuli
  2. permanent loss of of cerebral cortex
  3. eye opening, verbal response, motor response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Causes for ICP x3
  2. Signs of Increased ICP
  3. What Cushing’s triad?
A
  1. increased brain mass, increased cerebral blod volume, obstruction of CSF
  2. Cushing’s triad
  3. inc systolic BP, bradycardia, irregular respers (dec)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. What is a risk for ICP
  2. prevention of ICP
  3. In hydrocephalus, where does impaired absorption of CSF occur
A
  1. brain herniation
  2. group activities, avoid crying or painful activity, place child in comfortable position, minimize noise, lights down, quiet music
  3. subarachnoid space,
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Signs in the eyes of hydrocephalus
  2. What might you see in craniosyntosis
  3. What is a concussion
A
  1. setting sun eyes, unequal response to light, sluggish pupils
  2. papilledema, optic atrophy, blindness
  3. altered mental status after head injury (confusion, vomiting), diffuse axonal injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. What happens with brainstem herniation
  2. Brainstem and Medulla oblongata injuries
  3. Pediatric differencees in head injuries
A
  1. Cessation of life
  2. affect breathing/circulatory center, fixed pupils (vitals fluctuated)
  3. lg blood volume to the brain, small subdural spaces, soft/thin tissue, vulnerable to acceleration/decceleration injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. 3 Major causes of brain damage?
  2. Linear Skull fracture
  3. Depressed Skull fracture
A
  1. falls, motor vehicle accident, bikes
  2. do not cross suture lines
  3. fragments pushed inward, bone is broken locally
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. What is a comminuted skull fracture
  2. Open skull fracture
  3. The cervical plexus c1-c4 innervates?
A
  1. multiple associated linear fractures
  2. increased risk for CNS infection, communication w/ URI
  3. necka nd diaphragm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Brachial plexus c4-t1
  2. Lumbosacral plexus L1-s4
  3. Prognosis for spinal cord inury child vs adult
A
  1. shoulders, chest, arms
  2. Lower trunk and legs
  3. better in children b/c rapid healing, inc nervous sys regeneration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Nursing care SCI
  2. Causes for seizures
  3. What is an atonic seizure?
A
  1. Skin, PT, neurogenic bladder, bowel training, remobile
  2. head trauma, tumors, metabolic, infection, toxins
  3. loss of muscle tone, falls, drop attacks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Classification ofr a myoclonic seizure?
  2. Infantile Spasms?
  3. When does febrile seizure occur?
A
  1. Generalized
  2. generalized
  3. happens at Peak temp rather than the rapidity of temp elevation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. What is the post ictal period
  2. What procedure is done with first seizure
  3. What are the demographics for migraine headaches?
A
  1. ialtered state of consciousness after epileptic seizure. Lasts between 5 and 30 minutes
  2. Lumbar Puncture
  3. boys, 10-14 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. What is a migraine headache
  2. Migrain with aura
A
  1. release polypeptides cause pain and vasodilation of cranial vessels
  2. visual, tingling of lips face, throbbing, N/V, photophobia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Migrain without aura
  2. Tx for migraines in ED
  3. Name some CNS infections
A
  1. personality change, appetite, thirst, N/V, pallor
  2. IV fluids, rest, toradol, zofran, benadryl
  3. Meningitis (bacterial, Aseptic), Encephalitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. What vaccination has alleviated bacterial meningitis
  2. Pathogens in bacterial meningitis
  3. Pathogen in neonatal meningitis
A
  1. HiB, Pneumococcoal.
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae, neisseria meningidis
  3. Broup B Streptococci, gram negative bacilli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. S/Sx of Meningitis in neonates?
  2. S/Sx of Meningitis in infants
  3. Children adolescents
A
  1. refuse feeding, poor sucking, Vomiting, diarrhea, poor tone, weak cry,, bulgin fontanel
  2. fever, nuchal rigidity, seizures,
  3. abrupt, agitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Prognosis for Meningitis
  2. Outcomes of bacterial meningitis
  3. How is MENINGOCOCCEMIA spread?
A
  1. 10-15% of bacterial meningitis are fatal
  2. hearing loss, brain damage, learning disability
  3. oral or nasal droplet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Prognosis for meningococcemia?
  2. Incubation period
  3. Sx of on bacterial meningitis
A
  1. death can occur within hours
  2. 2-10days
  3. headache, fever, malaise, & GI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. What viruses cause aseptic meningitis?
  2. When do meningial irritation signs appear
  3. Testing for encephalitis
A
  1. A wide variety
  2. 1-2 days after onset
  3. lumbar puncture, CSF test, CT scan, blood test for virus
44
Q
  1. diagnosed with viral encephalitis, where admitted?
  2. Newborns dx with encephalitis, what problems?
  3. What can be seen with encephalittis?
A
  1. PICU
  2. neurologic injury
  3. meningitis
45
Q
  1. Seizures associated with herpes simplex encephalitis?
  2. Most common brain tumors in pediatrics
  3. Most common intraocular malignancy of childhood
A
  1. focal, IV acyclovir
  2. neuroblastoma, retinoblastoma
  3. retinoblastoma
46
Q
  1. Average age of onset of retinoblastoma?
  2. Prognosis for neuroblastoma?
  3. S/Sx of neuroblastoma
A
  1. 2 years
  2. younger than 1 year have the best prognosis
  3. weight loss, abdominal distention,
    and fatigue.
47
Q
  1. Retinoblastoma unilateral or bilateral?
  2. Hereditary or nonhereditary?
  3. What percent are bilateral and hereditary?
A
  1. Unilatera 60%
  2. hereditary
  3. 25%
48
Q
  1. What percent of retinoblastoma are unilateral and hereditary?
  2. What gross signs are associated with retinoblastoma?
  3. What stage is the worse for retinoblastoma?
A
  1. 15% (autosomal)
  2. none
  3. E
49
Q
  1. What is the 10 year survival rate for retinoblastoma?
  2. What tx will cause vision loss for retinoblastoma?
  3. other treatments
A
  1. 90%
  2. enucleation
  3. plaque brachytherapy, photocoagulation, crytotherapy
50
Q
  1. What tumor is called the silent tumor?
  2. Where does neuroblastoma arise?
A
  1. Neuroblastoma
  2. cyst cells that give rise to adrenal medulla and SNS or adrenal gland, retroperiotneal sympathetic chain
51
Q
  1. What is the primary site for neuroblastoma?
  2. Other manifestation of neuroblastoma
A
  1. abdomen or (head, neck chest, pelvis)
  2. non tender firm abdomen, mass crosses the midline. exophthalmos, hepatomegaly, pymphadenopathy, skeletal pain
52
Q
  1. How is neuroblastoma diagnosed?
  2. Worse stage of neuroblastoma?
  3. What percent of metastasis occurs with neuroblastoma?
A
  1. CT , Bone scan, urinary excretion of catecholamines
  2. IV
  3. 70%
53
Q
  1. Parent of child with CP asks the nurse if the infant will be mentally retarded. Which of the following is the nurse’s best response?
  2. What would the nurse expect if the infant has hydrocephalus?
  3. Following surgical repair and closure of a myelomeningocele shortly after birth, what to expect?
A
  1. Many children with CP have normal intelligence
  2. Bulging fontanelles, downwardly focusing eyes
  3. lifelong management of urinary, orthopedic, and neurological problems
54
Q
  1. Signs of spastic CP
  2. Which of the following is a priority nursing diagnosis for GBS
  3. What are the primary disturbances of cerebral palsy
A
  1. deep tendon reflexes, scoliosis, contractures, scissoring, hearing/vision impairment, seizures, cannot sit up by 8 months, arching back
  2. Impaired skin integrity r/t infectious disease process
  3. abnormal muscle tone and coordination
55
Q
  1. What condition causes an increased risk for cerebral palsy
A
  1. hyperbilirubemia
56
Q
  1. Goal of thearpy fo CP
A
  1. locomotion, communication
  2. integration of motor function
  3. correct defects ASAP
  4. promote socialization
57
Q
  1. Care of the child with myelomeningocele
  2. Another name for infectious polyneuritis
  3. What can GBS lead to?
A
  1. sterile dressing, infection, joint contractures, skn breakdown, wheelchairs, RoM, Latex allergy
  2. GBS (Guillain barre syndrome)
  3. flaccid paralysis
58
Q
  1. When is GBS highly suceptible
  2. What kind of disease is GBS
  3. What is a major concern of GBS?
A
  1. between age 4-10 years
  2. immune mediated
  3. immobility
59
Q
  1. what may become compromised with GBS progression?
  2. Why is adequate calorie intake important for GBS
  3. Cause for infant botulism?
A
  1. Respiratory tract muscles
  2. to prevent catabolism
  3. ingestion of toxin produced by anaerobic bacillus costridium botulinum, breast fed babies who are introduced to nonhuman milk, honey
60
Q
  1. Pathophysiology of Infant botulism
  2. First symptom of botulism
  3. Other signs
A
  1. inhibits release oc acetylcholine impairing motor activity of muscles, can lead to respiratory failure
  2. constipation
  3. weakness, spontaneous movements, deep tendon reflexes, cranial nerve deficits
61
Q
  1. peak incidence of botulism
  2. What does idiopathic thrombo purpura cause
  3. ITP and bone marrow ?
A
  1. 2-4 months of age, counsel about dangers of home canned foods
  2. excessive destruction of platelets
  3. normal
62
Q
  1. Clinical manifestations of Von Wildebrand’s disease
  2. Implementation for a child with von wilebrand nosebleed
  3. How is willebrands passed on
A
  1. bleeding of mucous membranes, bruises easily, excessive menstruation, frequent nosebleeds
  2. apply pressure for at least 10 minutes
  3. hereditary, caused by deficiency of protein
63
Q
  1. Abnormality in child with hemophilia
  2. function of the hematologic system
  3. 3 major organs of the hematopoietic sys
A
  1. partial thromboplastin time
  2. produce cells, o2, distribute nutrients, immune protection, heat regulation, waste collection
  3. red bone marrow, lymphatic, reticuloendothelial
64
Q
  1. 3 main causes of anemia
A
  1. inadequate rbcs
  2. destruction of rbcs
  3. loss thru hemorrhage
65
Q
  1. Affects of Anemia on circulatory sys
  2. When should hemoglobin be measured in infancy?
  3. what 2 things are important with sickle cell disease?
A
  1. hemodilution, decreased peripheral resistance, increased turbulence, cyanosis growth retaration
  2. 9-12 months
  3. hydration, analgesics
66
Q
  1. Medication for ICP
  2. Where do you support a fracture
  3. most important assessment for fracture
A
  1. Mannitol osmotic diuretic
  2. above and below site
  3. neurovascular checks
67
Q
  1. Symptoms of iron deficiency anemia
A
  1. pale, irritable, tachycardia, fatigue, glossitis, koilonychia
68
Q
  1. what color can stool turn with iron therapy
  2. Other crises for sickle cell disease
  3. What is the leading cause of death with sickle cell disease
A
  1. tarry green or black
  2. stroke, chest syndrome, infection, hyperhemolytic
  3. bacterial infection
69
Q
  1. what makes prognosis better for sickle cell disease
  2. Lifespan for Sickle cell disease
  3. What is acute chest syndrom in SCD
A
  1. bone marrow transplant
  2. 50s
  3. similar to pneumonia, chest pain, fever cough, tachypnea, wheezing hypoxia
70
Q
  1. What can repeated episodes lead to with acute chest syndrome
  2. Tx for SCD
  3. What does hemostasis do?
A
  1. Pulmonary hypertension
  2. cyclosporin, steroids, bone marrow
  3. stops bleeding when a blood vessel is injured
71
Q
  1. What is hemophilia
  2. What hemorrhages are common with hemophilia
  3. tx
A
  1. congenital deeficiency of coagulation proteins, 80% x-linked recessive
  2. sub Q, IM
  3. Ice, splinting, steroids, exercise and PT
72
Q
  1. What is von willebrand’s disease
  2. tx
  3. tx for DIC
A
  1. deficiency of protein, prolonged bleeding b/c of platelets
  2. DDVAP (inc vWF), Humate-P
  3. IV heparin, platelets, transfusion
73
Q
  1. Henoch Schonlein purpura
  2. What does HSP often follow
  3. What major vital sign are you watching with HSP
A
  1. nonthrombocytopenic purpura, arthritis, swelling face, hands feet nephritis, ab pain
  2. URI, 2-11 year range
  3. blood pressure, watch salt intakeH
74
Q
  1. what should you monitor for HSP
  2. S/Sx of lupus
  3. Meds used for lupus
A
  1. Urine and stools, intake and output
  2. atelectsis, myocarditis, glomerulonephritis, ab pain, N/V, blood in stool, anemia, cytopenia, arthritis
  3. rituximab, hydroxychloroquine, cyclophosphamide, NSIAD, steroids
75
Q
  1. Common presenting signs of lupus (test question)
  2. tx regiment for lupus
  3. Primary immune system organs
A
  1. Fever, malaise, weight loss
  2. low salt intake, killed virus vaccines, systemic corticosteroids, antimalarials
  3. thymus, bone marrow, liver
76
Q
  1. Secondary immune sys organs
  2. What is humoral immunity
  3. principle cell in antibody production
A
  1. lymph nodes, spleen, gut associated tissue
  2. occuring outside the cells
  3. b-lymphocyte
77
Q
  1. Cell mediated immunity involves
  2. 3 Subsets of t- lymphocytes
  3. most common route of transmission for HIV
A
  1. inside the cell, t lymphocyte
  2. cytotoxic, helper, suppressor
  3. perinatal
78
Q
  1. How much can HIV transmission be reduced with antiretroviral therapy
  2. Most common opportunistic infection in child with HIV
  3. Lab tests ordered for infant whose parent is HIV positive
A
  1. less than 2%
  2. pneumonia
  3. P24
79
Q
  1. HIV restrictions with child in daycare
  2. Lab value > 18 months
  3. What are immune categories based on
A
  1. mpo restriction, should be allowed to participate in all activities
  2. immunosorbent assay, western blot
  3. CD4 and lymphocyte counts
80
Q
  1. What is severe combine immunodeficiency syndrome?
  2. What is their suceptibility
  3. symptoms of scids
A
  1. absence of humoral and cell mediated immunity
  2. infection, graft vs host reaction
  3. no logical source of infection, failure to thrive, first month
81
Q
  1. Tx for SCIDS
  2. Prognosis for SCIDS
  3. what is the triad of wiscott aldrich syndrome?
A
  1. Stem cell transplant from sibling, IVIG,
  2. poor without bone marrow donor
  3. thrombocytopenia w/ sm platelets, eczema, immunodeficiency (b & T)
82
Q
  1. What happens to infection and eczema as child gets older w/ WAS
  2. why does WAS have increased bleeding time
  3. Other infections/sx of WAS
A
  1. Gets worse (x-linked recessive)
  2. thrombocytopenia, bloody diarrhea
  3. Herpes, Chronic pulmonary disease, sinusitis, otitis media
83
Q
  1. Tx for WAS
  2. Most common form of childhood cancer
  3. Peak onset of ALL
A
  1. platelet transfusion, IVIG, Prophylactic antibiotics, skin tx, splenectromy, HSCT and HLA matched donor
  2. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), 80% prognosis
  3. 2-5 years of age
84
Q
  1. This type of leukemia is similar for males and females
  2. when are higher rates seen for AML
  3. Types of testing for leukemia
A
  1. Acute myelogenous leukemia
  2. first 2 years of life
  3. Lumpar Puncture, Bone marrow, Blood smears
85
Q
  1. What do blood smears for leukemai show
  2. what is the definitive diagnosis of Leukemia
  3. what does bone marrow show
A
  1. immature forms of leukocytes, low blood counts
  2. bone marrow aspiration or biopsy
  3. infiltrate of blast cells
86
Q
  1. What are the 3 phases of tx for Leukemia
  2. What is the best defense against communicable diseases
  3. What is the most common cause of infection among infants?
A
  1. Induction, intesification/consolidation, maintenance
  2. Vaccines
  3. Virus
87
Q
  1. What do viruses do?
  2. What can happen when viruses damage cells
  3. How is Varicella Zoter Virus transmitted?
A
  1. Hid in cells and avoid inflammatory/immune response
  2. secondary bacterial infection
  3. contact, droplet, contaminated objects
88
Q
  1. When should child receive varicella IG
  2. Symptoms of Varicella
  3. What is the incubation period for varicella
A
  1. Within 96 hours of exposure
  2. runny nose, veseicles on chest and face rather than legs or arms
  3. 14-16 days
89
Q
  1. Prodromal stage of chicken pox
  2. skin stages of Chicken pox
  3. When is it okay to interact with others w/ chicken pox
A
  1. slight fever, malaise, anorexia, rash itchy
  2. starts as macule, papule, then vesicle
  3. when lesions are crusted over
90
Q
  1. Meds for chickenpox
  2. Shingles medication
  3. Peak Age for Roseola (Baby Measles)
A
  1. benadryl, antihistamines, tylenol, motrin, advil, calamine lotion, hydrocortisone, aveeno baths
  2. Acyclovir
  3. Peak Age 6-15 months
91
Q
  1. Incubation period for Roseola baby measles
  2. Sx of Baby Measles
  3. What is the source for Red Measles (Rubeola)
A
  1. 5-15 days
  2. Precipitous drop in fever to normal with sudden appearance of rash
  3. respiratory tract secretions, blood, urine, infected person
92
Q
  1. What is the incubation period for read measles
  2. Prodromal stage of red measles
  3. How does rash spread
A
  1. 10-20 days
  2. coryza (inflammation of mucous membrane), cough, conjuctivits, koplik spots, malaise, fever
  3. downard, starts from the face
93
Q
  1. Source for Rubella (german measles)
  2. Incubation period
  3. prodromal stage for rubella
A
  1. nasopharyngeal, blood, stool, urine
  2. 14-21 days
  3. Adults and Adolescents (not children), coryza, sore throat, cough, conjuctivitis, lymphadenopathy. AVOID PREGNANT WOMEN
94
Q
  1. prodromal stage for mumps
  2. Source for mumps
  3. Mumps Tx
A
  1. fever, headache, anorexia, earache, parotitis
  2. saliva
  3. fluids, soft dies, hot/cold compress to neck
95
Q
  1. Age group for Coxsackie Virus
  2. Symptoms of Coxsackie
  3. Agent for diptheria virus
A
  1. Under 10
  2. throat blisters, herpangina
  3. corynebacterium
96
Q
  1. Diptheria source
  2. Incubation period for diptheria
  3. Sx of Diptheria
A
  1. mucous membranes of nose, lesions
  2. 2-5 days
  3. Resembles common cold, epistaxis, sore throat, low grade fever, bull neck, shcok, hoarseness (nose, tonsills, laryngeal)
97
Q
  1. Drug Tx for Diptheria
  2. Other treatments?
  3. What population gets affected by 5th disease?
A
  1. Penicillin, Erythromycin
  2. humidified oxygen, suctioning, equine antitoxin
  3. school age
98
Q
  1. How is fifth disease spread?
  2. Signs of Fifth disease
  3. What is the agent for Fifth disease
A
  1. Respiratory secretions, blood
  2. slapped face, maculopapular red spots, rx to sun, heat cold or friction
  3. parvovirus
99
Q
  1. What is the agent for impetigo
  2. Sx of impetigo
  3. tx
A
  1. Strep, staph, MRSA
  2. itching, red sores, honey colored crusts
  3. antibiotics and ointment
100
Q
  1. What is the agent of tinea corporis (ringworm of skin)
  2. Transmission
  3. How do they test for this
A
  1. Dermatophytes (fungus, trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton
  2. animals to humans
  3. scraping of skin
101
Q
  1. Sx of tinnea corporis
  2. tx
  3. ringworm of the scalp, agent?
A
  1. Annular (circular) lesions,
  2. antifungal cream (-azoles)
  3. dermatphytes
102
Q
  1. How is ringowrm of scalp tested?
  2. Tx for tinea capitis
  3. What should be monitored with this
A
  1. toothbrush scrapings
  2. oral antifunga for 6-8 weeks, Selenium sulfide shampoo
  3. liver function
103
Q
  1. Sx for Tinea Capitis
  2. Where does scabies occur under 2 years of age
  3. Over 2 years of age
A
  1. swelling in scalp called “kerion”
  2. feet ankles
  3. hands, wrists
104
Q
  1. Interventions for Scabies
  2. A spinal curve of less than _________degrees that is nonprogressive does not require treatment for scoliosis.
  3. Skin breakdown DDH, how often to check pavlik harnes
A
  1. All linens washed in hot, antihistamines for itching, topical steroids
  2. 20degrees
  3. 2-3 x daily
105
Q
  1. What can occur if DDH goes untreated?
A
  1. duck gait, pain, osteoarthritis
106
Q
  1. Delirium
  2. Confusion
  3. Sx of a v-p shunt malfunction
A
  1. confused and anxious
  2. not oriented to person, place, time
  3. headache blurry vision, iritable, sleepy
107
Q
  1. Position after V-P shunt Placement
  2. Treatment nurse should question with bacterial meningitis?
A
  1. flat in the crib
  2. Iv fluids con increase ICP