Peer Prep Flashcards
1
Q
MC finding of cyanide poisoning
A
lactic acidosis
2
Q
benzocaine can cause
A
methyl hemoglobinemia; benzocaine found in teething gel
3
Q
TX methyl hemoglobinemia
A
methylene blue
4
Q
charcoal is usually used with what overdose?
A
acetylsalicylate acid
5
Q
phases of iron toxicity
A
- vom/diarrhea
2.recovery of phase 1 - acidosis, liver failure, shock, seizures
4.pyloric stenosis
6
Q
when to give digfab
A
ventricular tachycardia present
7
Q
systemic fluoride poisoning electrolyte abnorms
A
hypo calcium and hypomagnesium
8
Q
drug that can cause methemoglobinemia
A
chloroquine
9
Q
strychnine
A
like tetanus
10
Q
rationale for hyperbaric chamber for CO poisoning
A
decrease risk for delayed neuro sequela
11
Q
medication best for opioid withdrawal symptoms
A
buprenorphine
12
Q
water hemlock poisoning
A
GI sx, convulsions
13
Q
hemlock poisoning s/sx
A
like nicotine; GI sx
14
Q
oleander poisoning
A
GI sx; hyperkalemia and dysrhythmias
15
Q
amanita mushroom poisoning
A
delayed GI sx; hepatic failure
16
Q
if patient on SSRI and is intubated, what post intubation sedation medication should be avoided?
A
fentanyl
17
Q
tx of topical hydrofluoric acid exposure
A
decontamination and topical magnesium or calcium
18
Q
absolute contraindication for physostigmine for anticholinergic toxidrome
A
widen QRS
19
Q
ciguatera
A
cold allodynia, CNS, GI
20
Q
why does TCAs cause QT prolongation
A
sodium channel blockers
21
Q
imipramine can cause what toxidrome
A
anticholinergic
22
Q
diphenhydramine overdose s/sx
A
hallucinations, seizures, adn dilated pupils
23
Q
substance that causes lactate gap
A
ethanol glycol
24
Q
what local anesthetic causes allergic rxns
A
proparacaine, benzocaine
25
s/sx of large ingestion of ibuprofen
gi upset -> seizures, coma, AKI, ACS, upper GI bleed
26
strongest predictor of intimate partner homicide
access to firearms
27
MC location of intimate partner violence
face
28
electrolyte abnormality in anorexia
hypophos
29
type pf vision loss in conversion disorder
circumferential
30
metaphyseal chip fx assoc with
non accidental trauma
31
MCC of PTSD
sex violence
32
PTSG acute tx
propranolol
33
absolute indication for hospitalization in anorexia
hypothermia
34
most strongly assoc with PTSD
TBI
35
patient with confusion, what findings suggest primary psych disorder
insidious onset
36
delirium vs dementia
dementia: impaired ability to learn new information,
37
symptoms expected in opioid withdrawal vs alcohol withdrawal
myalgias
38
tx for acute opioid withdrawal
buprenorphine
39
med contraindicated in preggo with opioid use disorder
clonidine
40
clonidine MOA
alpha 1 agonist
41
buprenorphine MOA
partial opioid agonist and weak antagonist
42
what ingestion causes mixed acid base disturbance
asa
43
tx for hypertensive emergency secondary to pheochromocytoma
phentolamine
44
hypokalemia ekg findings
qt prolongation, flattened t waves, u wave after every t wave
45
tx for hypercalcemia due to malignancy
zolendronic acid
46
tx for hyperphos
selevamer
47
behcet syndrome
stomatitis, uveitis, genital lesions
48
adult epiglottitis associated with
diabetes
49
tx iritis
cycloplegic eye drops
50
tx acute angle closure glaucoma
timolol and acetazolamide
51
abx for corneal abrasions
tobramycin 0.3% ophthalmic solution
52
acetazolamide moa for mountain sickness
causes metabolic acidosis
53
CRAO eye exam
retinal pallor adn cherry red macula
54
what artery does an embolus originate that leads to CRAO
internal carotid artery
55
MC complication of untreated traumatic hyphema
rebleeding
56
tx hyphema
topical beta blockers, IV mannitol, topical alpha agonist, CA inhibitors, and topical steroids
57
acetazolamide contraindicated in what kind of patients with hyphema
sickle cell; increase sickling
58
lab value that increases with hemophilia A
PTT
59
goodpasture main symptom systems
pulmonary and renal
60
what is a possible consequence of uncontrolled bleeding in a patient with severe hemophilia A
compartment syndrome
61
etanercept assoc with what
developing TB
62
labs for kawasaki disease
CRp >3 and ESR >40
anemia
platelet >450,000
albumin <3
WBC >15,000
>10 wbc on UA
63
what medication is contraindicated for vWF disease
ASA
64
TTP
anemia, thrombocytopenia, AMS, fever
schistocytes
65
congenital rubella s/sx
b/l cataracts, blueberry muffin rash, and b/l hearing loss
66
when are steroids indicated for PCP infections
PO2 less than 70 or SpO2 less than 92%
67
herpes zoster in three or more dermatomes means
underlying immunocompromised state
68
ARDS tidal volume
4-8 mg/kg ideal body weight
69
viral encephalitis csf labs
moderately elevated WBC with high lymphocyte
70
travel recently from West Africa with fever, fatigue, and bleeding gums
ebola
71
waterborne pathogen that is primarily associated with cutaneous findings
mycobacterium marinum
72
dx giardia
stool antigen
73
TB exposure guidelines
TB test immediately then in 3 months. do not start INH without confirmed dx
74
tx lyme disease with CNS involvement
IV Rocephin
75
rocky mountain spotted fever CSF findings
pleocytosis
76
tick borne disease with spirochete
tick borne relapsing fever
77
helminth that causes fatal hyperinfestation in immuncompromised patients
strongyloides stercoralkis
78
chloroquine resistant tx
atovaquone-proguanil or quinine with doxycycline
79
tx neurosyphilis
pencillin G IV q4h x10-14 days
80
other forms of obtaining botulisms in children besides preformed toxin ingestion
ingestion of spores form environmental dust
81
QSOFA
RR > 22, SBP <100, and AMS
82
close contacts of N. meningitis tx
ciprofloxacin or rifampin or ceftriaxone
83
who do you call for botulism
state or local health department
84
MC cardiac manifestation of lyme disease
palpitations
85
what is acute retroviral syndrome
early HIV; diffuse adenopathy, fever, myalgias, fatigue, nonexudative pharyngitis, HA, diarrhea
86
acute radiation proctitis
rectal pain with tenesmus and positive occult blood with no grossly positive blood
87
tx acute radiation proctitis
supportive, steroid enemas
88
MC complication of diverticulitis
abscess
89
giardia tx
metronidazole or tinidazole
90
appendicitis mimic
Yersinia; stool culture for diagnosis
91
RSI agent for neuroleptic malignant hyperthermia
non-depolarizing
92
muscle rigidity in what condition is not reversed with non-depolarizing agent
malignant hyperthermia
93
dry gangrene tx
bulky dressing
94
MCC of sciatica in elderly
spinal stenosis
95
MCC of sciatica younger pts
disc herniation
96
earliest sign of flexor tenosynovitis
pain on passive extensive
97
labs for rhabdomyolysis
hyperk, hypoca, high CK, hyperphos
98
early signs of cauda equina
urinary retention
99
abx for osteomyelitis
vanco + meropenem or zosyn
100
MC source of osteo in children
hematogenous spread
101
meds for acute gout flare with kidney dysfunction
prednisone
102
imaging for avascular necrosis
MRI
103
MC decade of life for Ewing sarcoma
second
104
2nd line drug for seizures
fosphenytoin
105
acute cerebellar ataxia
post-infectious (approx 2 weeks), less than 6 years, self resolve
106
tx dyskinesia with parkinson's
benzos
107
MSk condition assoc with sacroiliitis
ankylosing spondylitis
108
Virus that causes bells palsy
HSV
109
MC pathological fracture
femur
110
pathological fracture tx
ortho consult
111
osteosarcoma MC characteristic
sunburst on XR
112
MC osteochondroma location
distal femur; painless
113
compression fracture tx
pain control -> surgical repair
114
myositis ossificans
abnormal healing process with w/extraskeletal
115
R/o cauda equina in ED
postvoid <50
116
Fragility fx imaging modality of choice
CT
117
gold standard imaging for discitis
MRI
118
gold standard imaging for osteoporosis fx
MRI
119
Compartment syndrome equation
DBP - compartment pressure
norm <10
<30 = no compartment syndrome
120
Flexor tedinopathy
medial epicondyle; golfers elbow
121
unicameral bone cyst
fluid filled cyst in bone
can cause pathologic fx
122
Scaphoid fx location at greatest risk for avasc necrosis
proximal pole; arterial supply enters at distal scaphoid
123
tx for cerebral vein thrombosis
Heparin -> endovascular intervention -> NSGY decompression
124
over drainage from CSF shunt MCC
hematoma
125
2nd line treatment for cluster HA
sumatripton
126
when is the highest risk for a stroke after a TIA
first 2 days
127
most important feature of NPH
gait disturbance
128
drugs that can cause myasthenia crisis
aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, macrolides
129
medication that does not work for TCA induced seizures
Phenytoin
130
second line medication for cluster HA
subcutaneous sumatriptan
131
abx class assoc with non convulsive status epi
beta lactams
132
treat torticollis
benztropine
133
mcc of mechanical VP shunt malfunction
catheter obstruction
134
LVAD part most likely to become infected
driveline
135
