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Flashcards in Performance Deck (41)
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1
Q

For a CAT aeroplane to be cirtified today, which airworthiness standards should it have to achieve?

A

CS-25

2
Q

Whatis thedefinition of an EASA Performance Class A Aeroplane?

A

All ME turbojet aeroplanes
ME turboprop aeroplanes MOPSC >9 or >5700kg (12500lbs)

MOPSC = max operating passenger seating capacity

3
Q

What affect will open bleed valves have on the engines?

A

Net performance

4
Q

Which is the highest level of risk that can be accepted when operating under Military Operating Standards?

A

Gross Performance

5
Q

In Performance A when is the first point that an engine failure is considered?

A

From brake release point

6
Q

What is the definition of a balanced field?

A

ASDA=TODA

Accelerate Stop Distance Available =
Take off Distance Available

7
Q

What can the TODA never be greater than?

A

150% of TORA

8
Q

How many seconds are factored into CS-25 regs to allow for a pilot to action the rejected T/O drills and for the aircraft to begin stopping?

A

2 seconds action time

9
Q

What is the correct order of speeds during T/O? Assuming engine failure at most critical point.

A

VMCG, VEF, V1, VR, V2

10
Q

Airfield elevation is 350ft and QNH 1005. What is the pressure altitude?

A

590ft

11
Q

Airfield elevation is 2500ft and OAT 20degrees Celsius. What is the ISA temperature elevation?

A

ISA + 10 degrees celcius

12
Q

What is the vertical obstacle clearance required during the NET flight path climb during a turn with more than 15 degrees AOB?

A

50 ft

13
Q

What is the vertical obstacle clearance required during the NET flight path climb during a straight out climb?

A

35 ft

14
Q

When calculating the width of the obstacle domain, what is the maximum value of D if navigation accuracy is sufficient and the track change is more than 15 degrees?

A

600m

15
Q

During the T/O climb what is the minimum height below which no changes in aircraft flap configuration are permitted?

A

A minimum height of 400 ft gross above the airfield reference zero.

16
Q

Where does the T/O stage of performance begin and end?

A

Begins at the Brakes release point.

Ends when the aircraft passes through regulated screen height.

17
Q

What does the TODR comprise of?

A

The T/O ground roll and the airborne distance covered until passing the screen height.

18
Q

For T/O planning, what proportion of a headwind component must be considered?

A

50%

19
Q

For T/O planning, what proportion of a tailwind component must be considered?

A

150%

20
Q

What is the rectangular area beyond the end of the runway, deemed clear of obstacles and suitable for the initial climb to be a specified screen height called?

A

Clearway

21
Q

What is the defined screen height for Performance Class A aeroplanes?

A

35ft dry, or 15ft wet

22
Q

Define VSTOP?

A

The max speed during T/O at which it is possible to abort the T/O following failure of a critical engine

23
Q

Define VGO?

A

The minimum speed during T/O at which it is possible to continue T/O following failure of a critical engine.

24
Q

What represents the max value for V1?

A

VMBE

25
Q

If unaffected by obstacles, where does the NFP normally end?

A

When the aircraft attains a safe height of 1500ft above surface datum.

26
Q

When does the en-route stage of performance planning finish?

A

At 1500ft above the destination airfield.

27
Q

What speed should be used during drift down procedure?

A

No less than VFTO

28
Q

What is the definition of stabilising altitude?

A

The max service ceiling with one engine inoperative.

29
Q

Under EU (AIR) Ops what is the required vertical obstacle clearance during drift down procedure?

A

2000ft and 5nm

30
Q

What are the conditions for a non-ETOPS approved twin aircraft?

A

It must never be more than 60minutes flying time on one engine in still air and ISA conditions form a suitable diversion airfield.

31
Q

What effect does a tailwind have on maximum endurance speed?

A

No effect.

32
Q

When does the landing phase of performance planning begin?

A

At 1500ft above the landing surface

33
Q

Where does the landing phase of performance planning end?

A

When the aircraft comes to a complete stop.

34
Q

What criteria must be applied when calculating the LDR on a wet runway for a jet engine aeroplane?

A

60 of LDA, factorised by 1.15, must be more than LDR.

35
Q

What criteria must be applied to the LDR for turboprop aeroplanes?

A

LDR must not exceed 70% of the LDA.

36
Q

What factors would determine the maximum landing weight at the destination airfield?

A

The lower of the maximum landing weights determined for:
The most favourable runway in stall air
The most likely runway in forecast wind conditions

37
Q

What is the minimum go around height that ensures the approach climb OEI gradient will be achieved?

A

At the decision height

38
Q

What is the minimum go around height that ensures the landing climb AEO gradient will be achieved?

A

At the flare

39
Q

What should the aircraft configuration be during the approach to land with one engine inoperative?

A

Landing gear down, approach flaps set

40
Q

What is required when confirming whether an approach is stable?

A

1) Checklist and briefings complete
2) Speed no greater than VREF + 20 kts
3) Sink rate no greater than 1000fpm for standard approach

NOT : Reverse thrust must be armed

41
Q

What are the minimum recommended heights at which an aircraft should be on a stabilised approach?

A

1000ft when IMC
500ft when VMC
300ft and wings level on circling approach
Within 1dot of localiser + glide slope on ILS

NOT : decision height of 200ft with 1EIO