Performance Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

For a CAT aeroplane to be cirtified today, which airworthiness standards should it have to achieve?

A

CS-25

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2
Q

Whatis thedefinition of an EASA Performance Class A Aeroplane?

A

All ME turbojet aeroplanes
ME turboprop aeroplanes MOPSC >9 or >5700kg (12500lbs)

MOPSC = max operating passenger seating capacity

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3
Q

What affect will open bleed valves have on the engines?

A

Net performance

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4
Q

Which is the highest level of risk that can be accepted when operating under Military Operating Standards?

A

Gross Performance

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5
Q

In Performance A when is the first point that an engine failure is considered?

A

From brake release point

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6
Q

What is the definition of a balanced field?

A

ASDA=TODA

Accelerate Stop Distance Available =
Take off Distance Available

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7
Q

What can the TODA never be greater than?

A

150% of TORA

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8
Q

How many seconds are factored into CS-25 regs to allow for a pilot to action the rejected T/O drills and for the aircraft to begin stopping?

A

2 seconds action time

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9
Q

What is the correct order of speeds during T/O? Assuming engine failure at most critical point.

A

VMCG, VEF, V1, VR, V2

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10
Q

Airfield elevation is 350ft and QNH 1005. What is the pressure altitude?

A

590ft

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11
Q

Airfield elevation is 2500ft and OAT 20degrees Celsius. What is the ISA temperature elevation?

A

ISA + 10 degrees celcius

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12
Q

What is the vertical obstacle clearance required during the NET flight path climb during a turn with more than 15 degrees AOB?

A

50 ft

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13
Q

What is the vertical obstacle clearance required during the NET flight path climb during a straight out climb?

A

35 ft

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14
Q

When calculating the width of the obstacle domain, what is the maximum value of D if navigation accuracy is sufficient and the track change is more than 15 degrees?

A

600m

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15
Q

During the T/O climb what is the minimum height below which no changes in aircraft flap configuration are permitted?

A

A minimum height of 400 ft gross above the airfield reference zero.

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16
Q

Where does the T/O stage of performance begin and end?

A

Begins at the Brakes release point.

Ends when the aircraft passes through regulated screen height.

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17
Q

What does the TODR comprise of?

A

The T/O ground roll and the airborne distance covered until passing the screen height.

18
Q

For T/O planning, what proportion of a headwind component must be considered?

19
Q

For T/O planning, what proportion of a tailwind component must be considered?

20
Q

What is the rectangular area beyond the end of the runway, deemed clear of obstacles and suitable for the initial climb to be a specified screen height called?

21
Q

What is the defined screen height for Performance Class A aeroplanes?

A

35ft dry, or 15ft wet

22
Q

Define VSTOP?

A

The max speed during T/O at which it is possible to abort the T/O following failure of a critical engine

23
Q

Define VGO?

A

The minimum speed during T/O at which it is possible to continue T/O following failure of a critical engine.

24
Q

What represents the max value for V1?

25
If unaffected by obstacles, where does the NFP normally end?
When the aircraft attains a safe height of 1500ft above surface datum.
26
When does the en-route stage of performance planning finish?
At 1500ft above the destination airfield.
27
What speed should be used during drift down procedure?
No less than VFTO
28
What is the definition of stabilising altitude?
The max service ceiling with one engine inoperative.
29
Under EU (AIR) Ops what is the required vertical obstacle clearance during drift down procedure?
2000ft and 5nm
30
What are the conditions for a non-ETOPS approved twin aircraft?
It must never be more than 60minutes flying time on one engine in still air and ISA conditions form a suitable diversion airfield.
31
What effect does a tailwind have on maximum endurance speed?
No effect.
32
When does the landing phase of performance planning begin?
At 1500ft above the landing surface
33
Where does the landing phase of performance planning end?
When the aircraft comes to a complete stop.
34
What criteria must be applied when calculating the LDR on a wet runway for a jet engine aeroplane?
60 of LDA, factorised by 1.15, must be more than LDR.
35
What criteria must be applied to the LDR for turboprop aeroplanes?
LDR must not exceed 70% of the LDA.
36
What factors would determine the maximum landing weight at the destination airfield?
The lower of the maximum landing weights determined for: The most favourable runway in stall air The most likely runway in forecast wind conditions
37
What is the minimum go around height that ensures the approach climb OEI gradient will be achieved?
At the decision height
38
What is the minimum go around height that ensures the landing climb AEO gradient will be achieved?
At the flare
39
What should the aircraft configuration be during the approach to land with one engine inoperative?
Landing gear down, approach flaps set
40
What is required when confirming whether an approach is stable?
1) Checklist and briefings complete 2) Speed no greater than VREF + 20 kts 3) Sink rate no greater than 1000fpm for standard approach NOT : Reverse thrust must be armed
41
What are the minimum recommended heights at which an aircraft should be on a stabilised approach?
1000ft when IMC 500ft when VMC 300ft and wings level on circling approach Within 1dot of localiser + glide slope on ILS NOT : decision height of 200ft with 1EIO