Performance Limitations and Emergency Procedures

Question 1

What is the recommended procedure for recovery from a spin?

Answer 1

a. power to idle
b. ailerons to neutral
c. full opposite rudder against the rotation
d. break the stall with forward elevator
e. after spin rotations stops, neutralize the rudder
f. raise nose to level flight

Question 2

What does an aft center of gravity do to an aircraft’s spin characteristics?

Answer 2

a stall becomes progressively more difficult to recover from as the center of gravity moves aft. If the CG is moved to far aft, the airplane could enter a “flat spin” in which the tail of the airplane is pulled away from the axis of the spin, and the nose is impossible to get down, thus recovery cannot be made.

Question 3

What load factor is present in a spin?

Answer 3

the load factor will vary with the characteristics of each airplane, but is usually slightly above 1G. There are two reasons this is true:

a. airspeed in a spin is very low, usually within 2 knots of stall speed
b. the airplane pivots, rather than turns, so the load factor is kept low

Question 4

Discuss the use of an emergency checklist.

Answer 4

In the event of an in-flight emergency, the pilot should be sufficiently familiar with emergency procedures to take immediate action instinctively to prevent more serious situations from occurring. However, as soon as circumstances permit, the emergency checklist should be reviewed to ensure that all required items have been checked. Also, before takeoff, a pilot should be sure that the emergency checklist will be readily accessible in flight if needed.

Question 5

What procedures should be followed concerning a partial loss of power in flight?

Answer 5

a. first priority is to establish and maintain a suitable airspeed (best glide if necessary)
b. select an emergency landing area and remain within gliding distance.
c. as time allows, attempt to determine the cause and correct it. Complete the following checklist:
1. switch fuel selector to another tank
2. electric fuel pump on
3. mixture rich
4. alternate air on
5. engine gauges - check for an indication of the cause of power loss.

Question 6

In the event of a complete engine failure on takeoff, what procedure is recommended?

Answer 6

a. retard the throttle to idle
b. apply the brakes
c. retract the wing flaps
d. set mixture to idle cutoff
e. turn the ignition switch to off
f. turn the master switch to off

Question 7

If an engine failure occurs immediately after takeoff, what procedure is recommended?

Answer 7

establish the proper glide attitude, and select a field directly ahead or slightly to either side of the takeoff path. Also, the following checklist should be completed:

1. establish an airspeed of 105 mph
2. mixture to idle cutoff
3. set fuel selector valve to off
4. set ignition switch to off
5. set flaps as required
6. set master switch to off

Question 8

What is the recommended procedure to be followed for an engine failure while en route?

Answer 8

a. set best glide speed (110 mph)
b. select an emergency landing area and remain within gliding distance of it
c. if time permits attempt to determine the cause of the failure
d. attempt engine restart if possible as follows:
1. establish airspeed of 110 mph
2. switch fuel selector to another tank
3. electric fuel pump on
4. mixture rich
5. alternate air on
6. engine gauges - check for an indication of the cause of power loss.
7. attempt a restart by:
- ignition switch to “L” then “R” then back to both
- move trottle and mixture to different settings (may be too rich or too lean)
- check fuel tank selection

Question 9

What is the recommended power off gliding speed in an engine out procedure?

Answer 9

110 mph

Question 10

If an engine failure has occurred while en route and a forced landing is imminent, what procedures should be followed?

Answer 10

a. establish an airspeed of 110 mph
b. begin a scan for a suitable landing field
c. attempt to restart the engine
d. set transponder to 7700
e. transmit a “mayday” on the current frequency or 121.5
f. spiral down over the approach end of the landing site
g. on final approach complete the forced landing checklist

Question 11

Immediately before touchdown in a forced landing procedure, what items should be completed?

Answer 11

a. establish an airspeed of 90 mph
b. set mixture to idle cut off
c. set fuel selector to off
d. turn the ignition to off
e. put landing gear in proper position
f. set flaps to proper position
g. unlatch the doors
h. turn the master switch to off
I. make the touchdown with the tail slightly low
j. apply brakes heavily

Question 12

If a forced landing is imminent, should the landing gear be left up, or down?

Answer 12

depends on the situation. In rugged terrain or during high sink rates probably best to have the gear down, with a long smooth plowed field a gear up landing may result in less damage to the airplane. Recommendations in the POH should be followed.

Question 13

If an engine failure has occurred while over water, and you are beyond power-off gliding distance to land, what procedures should be followed?

Answer 13

a. set transponder to 7700 and broadcast a mayday to current frequency or on 121.5
b. make sure all heavy objects are secured or jettison them
c. select gear up
d. set flaps to 20-30 degrees
e. set a descent of 300 fpm and 90 mph
f. make the approach and land parallel to heavy sea swells when in light winds, and approach and land into the wind when high winds and heavy seas exist.
g. establish an approach airspeed of 90 mph
h. open the cabin doors
I. initiate the touchdown in a level flight attitude
j. just prior to touchdown , protect body with life vest, clothing, etc
k. after touchdown, begin evacuation of the airplane
l. inflate life vests and raft if avialable

Question 14

What is detonation?

Answer 14

uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel / air mixture within the cylinder’s combustion chamber. It causes excessive temperatures and pressures which can lead to complete failure of the engine. It is characterized by high cylinder head temperatures, engine roughness and loss of power.

Question 15

What are some of the most common operational causes of detonation?

Answer 15

a. using a lower fuel grade than what is recommended
b. operating with extremely high manifold pressures in conjunction with low rpm.
c. operating the engine at high power settings with an excessively lean mixture.
d. extended ground operations or steep climbs where cylinder cooling is reduced.

Question 16

What action should be taken if detonation is suspected?

Answer 16

a. check for the proper fuel grade
b. while on the ground, keep the cowl flaps in the full-open position
c. during takeoff and initial climb, use an enriched fuel mixture, as well as a shallower climb angle to increase cylinder cooling.
d. avoid extended, high power, steep climbs
e. develop habit of monitoring engine instruments to verify proper operation

Question 17

What is preignition?

Answer 17

Preignition occurs when the fuel / air mixture ignites prior to the engine’s normal ignition event. Preignition is usually caused by a residual hot spot in the combustion chamber. Preignition causes high operating temperatures and lose of power and possibly severe engine damage.

Question 18

What actions should be taken if preignition is suspected?

Answer 18

a. use the recommended grade of fuel

b. operate the engine within the recommended parameters.

Question 19

If the engine begins to run rough when flying through heavy rain, what action should be taken?

Answer 19

the induction air filter may possibly be saturated with water which will reduce the amount of available air to the carburetor. Carb heat may be used as an alternate source of air in this situation.

Question 20

Are there any special considerations necessary when using the auxiliary pump after an engine-driven fuel pump failure?

Answer 20

If the fuel pressure falls outside of normal operating range, the electric auxiliary fuel pump should be used.

Question 21

What operating procedure could be used to minimize spark plug fouling?

Answer 21

fouling is usually the result of an excessively rich mixture. This problem can be avoided by leaning the engine as recommended.

Question 22

During a cross-country flight you notice that the oil pressure is low, but the oil temperature is normal. What is the problem and what action should be taken?

Answer 22

the issue is probably insufficient oil level, but could also be a clogged oil pressure relief valve or gauge. Landing as soon as possible is advised.

Question 23

If a loss of oil pressure occurs accompanied by a rising oil temperature, what is indicated?

Answer 23

the engine is not being properly cooled and lubricated and failure is imminent. The throttle should be reduced, and a landing should be made as soon as possible using minimum power.

Question 24

What procedure should be followed if an engine fire develops on the ground during starting?

Answer 24

a. If the engine starts:
1. increase the power to a higher rpm for a few moments and then
2. shut down the engine and have it inspected.
b. If the engine does not start:
1. set the throttle to full
2. set the mixture to idle cutoff
3. continue cranking the engine in an attempt to put out the fire
c. If the fire continues:
1. shut off all equipment
2. set the fuel selector off
3. grab fire extinguisher and attempt to put the fire out

Question 25

What procedure should be followed if an engine fire develops in flight?

Answer 25

a. set mixture to idle cutoff b. set fuel selector to off c. turn the master switch to off d. set the cabin heat and air vents to off, leave the overhead vents on e. establish a rapid descent to attempt to put the fire out f. execute a forced landing

Question 26

What procedure should be followed if an electrical fire develops in side the aircraft?

Answer 26

a. try to identify the source of the fire and isolate the circuit breaker for that equipment, if the problem continues... b. master switch off c. avionics switch off d. close vents if tolerable to slow fire e. attempt to use fire extinguisher to put out fire

Question 27

What are the three main types of aircraft icing?

Answer 27

a. structural b. induction system c. instrument icing

Question 28

Name four types of structural ice.

Answer 28

a. clear ice - when large drops strike the aircraft surface and slowly freeze b. rime ice - small drops strike the aircraft surface and freeze rapidly c. mixed ice - a combination of clear and rime ice d. frost - when the temperature and the dew point are below freezing at the surface frost forms on the aircraft

Question 29

What is necessary for structural icing to occur?

Answer 29

must be flying through visible water such as rain or cloud and temperature must be at or below freezing

Question 30

What type of structural icing is more dangerous, rime or clear?

Answer 30

clear ice because it is hard and heavy. It is difficult to remove with deicing equipment due to the fact that it forms as it flows away from the deicing equipment

Question 31

What action is recommended if you inadvertently encounter icing conditions?

Answer 31

change course and/or altitude; usually, climb to a higher altitude if able.

Question 32

If icing has been inadvertently encountered, how would your landing approach procedure be different?

Answer 32

a. maintain more power during the approach b. maintain a higher airspeed than normal c. expect a higher stall speed d. expect a longer landing roll e. a no flaps approach is recommended f. maintain a consistently higher altitude the normal g. avoid a missed approach, get the landing right

Question 33

Which type of precipitation will produce the most hazardous icing conditions?

Answer 33

freezing rain

Question 34

Does the stall warning system have any protection from ice?

Answer 34

NO

Question 35

What causes carburetor icing?

Answer 35

the vaporization of fuel, combined with the expansion of air cause a sudden cooling of the mixture. The temperature may drop as much as 60 degrees F. If the temperature gets below 32 degrees F the water vapor may freeze in the carburetor.

Question 36

What are the first indications of the presence of carburetor icing?

Answer 36

for airplanes with a fixed pitch propeller the first indication is a loss of rpm, with a variable pitch propeller the first indication is a drop in manifold pressure.

Question 37

What conditions are favorable for carburetor icing?

Answer 37

when temperatures are below 70 degrees F and the relative humidity is above 80% the conditions are most favorable, however it is possible to have carb icing at temps as high as 100 degrees F and 50% humidity.

Question 38

What is meant by decompression?

Answer 38

Decompression is the inability of the aircraft's pressurization system to maintain the designed "aircraft cabin" pressure.

Question 39

What are the two types of decompression?

Answer 39

a. explosive decompression - when the cabin pressure decreases faster than the lungs can decompress. A decompression which occurs is less than a half of a second is considered explosive b. Rapid decompression - a change in cabin pressure where the lungs decompress faster than the cabin. Usually occurs through a slow leak.

Question 40

What are the dangers of decompression?

Answer 40

a. hypoxia b. at high altitudes, being blown out of the airplane c. the bends d. exposure to wind blast and extreme cold

Question 41

When would an emergency descent procedure be necessary?

Answer 41

a. uncontrollable fire | b. sudden loss of cabin pressure

Question 42

What procedure should be followed in establishing an emergency descent?

Answer 42

a. power to idle b. prop full (high rpm) c. gear down, for max drag, do not exceed 150 mph d. establish a 30 - 45 degree bank to clear the area below

Question 43

What instruments are affected when the pitot tube freezes?

Answer 43

a. if the drain hole remains clear - airspeed decreases to zero, altimeter and vertical speed read normal b. If drain hole is also blocked - airspeed acts like an altimeter, reads high with a climb, low in a descent. Altimeter and vsi read normal.

Question 44

What instruments are affected when the static port freezes?

Answer 44

airspeed - only accurate at the altitude frozen. If the aircraft descends, airspeed will increase. altimeter - indicates the altitude at which the system was blocked. vertical speed - indicates level flight

Question 45

Does the pitot system have any protection from ice?

Answer 45

a pitot tube with a heating element

Question 46

What corrective action is needed if the pitot tube freezes?

Answer 46

turn pitot heat on

Question 47

What corrective action is needed if the static port freezes?

Answer 47

use alternate air if available, or break the face of a static instrument, (probably the vsi)

Question 48

What indications should you expect while using alternate air?

Answer 48

If the alternate air is vented into the cabin, the pressure is usually lower than outside which results in: a. altimeter - indicate higher than actual b. airspeed - indicate faster than actual c. vsi - indicate climb in level flight

Question 49

What instruments may be relied upon in the event of a complete vacuum system failure while operating in IMC?

Answer 49

a. turn coordinator - bank info b. magnetic compass - bank info c. airspeed - pitch info d. altimeter - pitch info e. vertical speed indicator - pitch info

Question 50

Is there a backup system available if the engine-driven vacuum pump were to fail?

Answer 50

No.

Question 51

What recommended procedure should be used in resetting a tripped circuit breaker?

Answer 51

a. allow a short cooling period to occur (about 2 mins) b. reset breaker c. if after resetting, the breaker trips again, no further attempts should be made to reset it

Question 52

What does the ammeter on the Piper show with all equipment off, and the master switch off?

Answer 52

The charging rate of the battery, probably about 2 amps.

Question 53

What will be the amp load on the electrical system be at night, with the radios on?

Answer 53

30 amps plus the charging rate of the battery.

Question 54

What max amp draw is the alternator capable of handling?

Answer 54

60 amps

Question 55

How is an alternator failure detected?

Answer 55

A zero reading on the ammeter.

Question 56

What steps should be taken if the alternator fails?

Answer 56

a. reduce electrical load b. check alternator circuit breakers c. turn the "Alt" switch off (for 1 sec), then on d. if the alternator is still inop, turn off the "Alt" switch, reduce the electrical load to a minimum, and land as soon as possible.

Question 57

if a positive gear down indication is not received, what action is recommended first?

Answer 57

a. check that the master switch is on b. check that the "landing gear" and "gear pump" circuit breakers are in c. check the landing gear position lights with the "press-to-test" feature (if available) and check the position of the lighting dimmer. d. if a bulb has burned out, you could use the other operating bulb as a temporary replacement.

Question 58

What recommended procedure should be used if the landing gear fails to retract after takeoff?

Answer 58

a. check that the master switch is on b. check that the landing gear lever is in the full up position c. check that the gear pump and landing gear circuit breakers are in d. recycle the landing gear lever f. check for proper gear motor operation by examining the ammeter and listening for noise

Question 59

How is the emergency gear extension system operated?

Answer 59

the emergency gear lever (on the center console) manually releases hydraulic pressure to permit the gear to free fall with spring assistance on the nose gear. The lever must be held in the downward position for emergency extension.

Question 60

What is the recommended procedure if the landing gear will not extend normally?

Answer 60

a. check that the master switch is on b. check that the landing gear lever is down c. check that the gear pump and landing gear circuit breakers are in d. panel lights are off (in daytime) e. check gear indicator bulbs

Question 61

What procedure should be followed if a pilot does not received a positive indication of the gear being down and locked?

Answer 61

a. reduce airspeed below 100 mph b. move the landing gear selector switch to gear down position c. move the emergency gear lever to emergency down position d. if gear has still failed to lock down, yaw the airplane abruptly from side to side with the rudder e. try to get someone on the ground (tower) to verify the gear position. f. if all attempts are unsuccessful, prepare for gear up landing

Question 62

What procedure should be followed prior to a gear up landing?

Answer 62

once committed to the landing proceed as follows: a. flaps as desired b. close throttle and shut off the master and ignition switches c. fuel selector valve off d. tighten seat belt and harness e. contact surface at minimum possible airspeed

Question 63

What is the procedure for dealing with a flat main landing gear tire?

Answer 63

a. establish normal approach configuration with full flaps b. touchdown with the good tire first on that side of the runway and keep the aircraft off of the flat tire for as long as possible c. use braking on the good wheel as required to maintain directional control

Question 64

What is the recommended procedure to follow if the nose gear is unsafe or the tire is flat?

Answer 64

a. complete the before landing checklist b. shift weight to the rear by moving passengers and/or baggage to the rear c. set flaps to the 40 degree position d. unlatch all doors e. after committing to a landing, set both the avionics and master switch to the off position f. initiate touchdown in a slightly tail low configuration g. set the mixture control to the idle cut off position h. set the ignition switch to the off position I. set the fuel selector to the off position j. hold the nose off as long as possible k. after landing, evacuate the aircraft as soon as possible

Question 65

Why should taxiing on a slush, snow, or ice covered taxiway in a retractable gear airplane be avoided?

Answer 65

mud and slush can be thrown into wheel wells during taxing and takeoff. If it then freezes during flight, it could create landing gear operational problems.

Question 66

What is an "asymmetrical" flap emergency?

Answer 66

this is when one flap deploys or retracts while the other remains in position. This problem is indicated by a pronounced roll toward the wing with the least flap deflection.

Question 67

What procedure should be followed in an asymmetrical flap emergency?

Answer 67

try to raise to flaps and perform a flap up landing if possible. If unable, use opposite aileron to counteract the roll, and yaw in the direction of the most retracted flap to counter act the yaw. Fly the landing at a higher than normal approach speed to maintain control authority all the way to the ground.

Question 68

What procedure should be followed if loss of elevator control occurs?

Answer 68

a. extend the landing gear b. lower the flaps to 10 degrees c. set trim for level flight d. using the throttle and elevator trim, establish an airspeed of 105 mph e. maintain control of the glide angle by adjusting power, at the landing flare elevator trim should be adjusted to full nose up and the power reduced. f. at moment of touchdown, close the throttle

Question 69

What procedure should be followed if a cabin door accidentally opens in flight?

Answer 69

a. slow aircraft to 100 mph b. close the cabin vents c. storm window open d. if the upper latch is open, then latch it e. if the lower latch is open, open top latch f. push door further open, and then close rapidly. g. latch top latch

Question 70

What procedure should be followed if a baggage door opens in flight?

Answer 70

land the plane and close it on the ground.

Question 71

What factors should be considered in choosing the type of survival equipment to carry for a flight over an uninhabited area?

Answer 71

a. the type of climate | b. the type of terrain

Question 72

What additional equipment is required if an aircraft is operated for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from shore?

Answer 72

approved floatation gear readily available to each occupant and at least one pyrotechnic signaling device

Question 73

What can be used in the aircraft that can be used to aid in survival?

Answer 73

a. the wet compass for direction b. gasoline for making a fire c. oil for smoke signal d wiring for tie strings e. the battery as a source of ignition for fire

Question 74

How is aircraft performance significantly affected as air becomes less dense?

Answer 74

As air becomes less dense, it reduces a. power because the engine takes in less air b. thrust because the propeller is less efficient in thin air c. lift because thin air exerts less force on airfoils

Question 75

What is the standard atmosphere at sea level?

Answer 75

59*F (15*C) and pressure of 29.92

Question 76

What are standard atmosphere temperature and pressure lapse rates?

Answer 76

2*C per 1,000 feet of altitude gain up to 36,000 feet. Standard lapse rate is one in which pressure decrease at a rate of 1 in. Hg per 1000 feet of altitude gain to 10,000 feet.

Question 77

Define the term "pressure altitude".

Answer 77

Pressure altitude is the height above a standard datum plane. it is indicated on the altimeter with 29,92 in Hg in the Kollsman window.

Question 78

Why is pressure altitude important?

Answer 78

pressure altitude is important as a basis for determining airplane performance as well as assigning flight levels to airplanes above 18,000 feet.

Question 79

What are two methods of determining pressure altitude?

Answer 79

a. by setting the barometric scale of the altimeter to 29.92 and reading the indicated altitude, or b. by applying a correction factor to the indicated altitude according to the reported "altimeter setting"

Question 80

Define the term "density altitude".

Answer 80

pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. It is the altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to a particular value of air density.

Question 81

How does air density affect aircraft performance?

Answer 81

as the density of the air increases (lower density altitude), airplane performance increases and conversely, as air density decreases (higher density altitude), airplane performance decreases. A decrease in air density means a high density altitude; an increase in air density means a lower density altitude.

Question 82

How is density altitude determined?

Answer 82

find pressure altitude and then correct it for nonstandard temperature variations. Regardless of the actual altitude at which the airplane is operating, it will perform as though it were operating at an altitude equal to the existing density altitude.

Question 83

What factors affect air density?

Answer 83

by changes in altitude, temperature, and humidity. High density altitude refers to thin air while low density altitude refers to dense air.

Question 84

What effect does atmosphere pressure have on air density?

Answer 84

Air density is directly proportional to pressure. If air pressure gets lower, density gets lower which will yield a higher density altitude.

Question 85

What effect does temperature have on air density?

Answer 85

Increasing the temperature of a substance decreases its density, therefore decreasing the temperature increase the density. Thus the two are inversely proportional.

Question 86

Since temperature and pressure decrease with altitude, how will air density be affected overall?

Answer 86

the decrease in temperature and pressure have conflicting effects on density as you go up in altitude, but the fairly rapid drop in pressure with increasing altitude is usually the dominating force. Hence, the density is likely to decrease with altitude gain.

Question 87

What effect does humidity have on air density?

Answer 87

water vapor is lighter than air, so moist air is lighter than dry air. As the water content of the air increases, the air becomes less dense, increasing density altitude and decreasing performance.

Question 88

What is the definition of the term "relative humidity"?

Answer 88

the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere, and is expressed as a percentage of the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold. This amount varies with temperature - warm air can hold more water vapor and colder air can hold less.

Question 89

What effect does landing at high-elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight?

Answer 89

if you use the same indicated airspeed appropriate for sea level operations, true airspeed is faster, resulting in a faster ground speed. This would require a longer ground roll and thus maybe a longer runway than at sea level.

Question 90

What are some of the main elements of aircraft performance?

Answer 90

a. takeoff and landing distance b. rate of climb c. ceiling d. payload e. range f. speed g. maneuverability h. stability I. fuel economy

Question 91

What is the relationship of lift, weight, thrust, and drag in steady, unaccelerated, level flight?

Answer 91

for the airplane to be in level flight lift must equal weight and thrust must equal drag

Question 92

What are the two types of drag?

Answer 92

Total Drag = induced drag + parasite drag

Question 93

Define induced drag.

Answer 93

drag created by the production of lift. As angle of attack increases so does induced drag. Induced drag increases with a decrease in airspeed. The lower the airspeed, the greater the angle of attack, and therefore the greater the induced drag.

Question 94

Define parasite drag.

Answer 94

parasite drag is caused by the form or shape of airplane parts. It is greatest at high airspeeds and is proportional to the square of the airspeed; if the airspeed doubles, parasite drag quadruples.

Question 95

How will drag increase as airplane speed increases?

Answer 95

As the aircraft speed increases, induced drag decreases and parasite drag increases significantly

Question 96

Discuss the relationship of thrust and power as it relates to airplane climb performance.

Answer 96

Climb depends upon the reserve power or thrust. Reserve power is the available power over and above that required to maintain horizontal flight at a given speed. Thus, if an airplane is equipped with an engine that produces 200 total available horsepower and the airplane requires only 130 horsepower at a certain level flight speed, the power available for climb is 70 horsepower.

Question 97

Define the term "service ceiling".

Answer 97

Service ceiling is the maximum density altitude where the best rate of climb will produce a 100 feet per minute climb at maximum weight while in a clean configuration with maximum continuous power.

Question 98

Will an aircraft always be capable of climbing to and maintaining its service ceiling?

Answer 98

No. Depending on the density altitude, an airplane may not be able to reach its published service ceiling on any given day.

Question 99

What is the definition of "absolute ceiling"?

Answer 99

Absolute ceiling is the altitude at which a climb is no longer possible.

Question 100

What is meant by the terms "power loading" and "wing loading"?

Answer 100

a. power loading is pounds per horsepower. It is found by dividing total weight by the rate horsepower of the engine. b. wing loading is pounds per square foot and is obtained by dividing the total weight of the airplane in pounds by the wing area (including ailerons) in square feet. Wing loading determines the airplanes landing speed.

Question 101

Define the terms "maximum range" and "maximum endurance".

Answer 101

a. Maximum range is the max distance an airplane can fly for a given fuel supply and is obtained using the maximum lift / drag ratio (L/Dmax). b. Maximum endurance is the max amount of time an airplane can fly for a given fuel supply and is obtained at the point of minimum power required since this would require the lowest fuel flow to keep the airplane in level flight.

Question 102

What is ground effect?

Answer 102

ground effect occurs when the ground surface changes the air flow pattern away from the wing when the aircraft is flown within on wingspan above the surface. This change in air flow reduces unwash, downwash, and wing tip vortices which in turn reduces induced drag. When the wing is at a height equal to 1/4 of the span, induced drag is reduced by about 25%

Question 103

What major problems can be caused by ground effect during landing?

Answer 103

excess speed is carried from the approach to the landing phase may result in significant floating down the runway, which may result in running out of runway.

Question 104

What major problems can be caused by ground effect during takeoff?

Answer 104

Ground effect can give the perception the aircraft is capable of flight below the required speed due to the reduced drag in ground effect. As the airplane rises out of ground effect, the increase in induced drag may result in a marginal climb, if any at all. In conditions such as high gross weight and/or high density altitude, the airplane may settle back to the ground after initially reaching ground effect.

Question 105

What does "flight in the region of normal command" mean?

Answer 105

while holding a constant altitude, a higher airspeed requires a higher power setting, and a lower airspeed requires a lower power setting. The majority of all flying is conducted in this region.

Question 106

What does "flight in the region of reversed command" mean?

Answer 106

its a region found in the low speed phase of flight where, in order to hold altitude at a slower airspeed, an increase in engine power is required.

Question 107

What are examples of where an airplane would be operating in the region of reversed command?

Answer 107

a. during a low speed, high-pitch attitude, approach for a short-field landing. b. if a pilot mistakenly attempts to climb out of ground effect without accelerating to normal climb speed he could be "stuck" in the region of reversed command at a dangerously low altitude.

Question 108

Explain how runway surface and gradient affect performance.

Answer 108

a. runway surface - any surface that is not hard and smooth will increase the ground roll during takeoff b. braking effectiveness - the amount of power that is applied to the brakes without skidding the tires is braking effectiveness. contamination on the runway such as water, snow, ice etc. reduce braking effectiveness, thus increasing the amount of runway required for takeoff and landing c. runway gradient or slope - a positive gradient (up sloping ) runway will impede acceleration and result in longer ground roll for takeoff, but reduces the landing roll. The opposite is true for a negative (down sloping) runway.

Question 109

What factors affect the performance of an aircraft during takeoffs and landing?

Answer 109

a. air density (density altitude) b. surface wind c. runway surface (type, grade) d. weight e. engine thrust

Question 110

What effect does wind have on aircraft performance?

Answer 110

a. takeoff - a headwind increases airplane performance by shortening the takeoff distance and increasing the angle of climb. The opposite is true for a tailwind. b. landing - a headwind increases airplane performance by steeping the approach angle and reducing the landing distance. The opposite is true for a tailwind. c. cruise flight - a headwind decreases performance by reducing ground speed, which increase fuel burn required to complete the flight. A tailwind increases performance by increasing the ground speed, which reduces the fuel required.

Question 111

How does weight affect takeoff and landing performance?

Answer 111

a. higher takeoff and landing speed requirements b. slow acceleration / deceleration c. longer takeoff and ground roll

Question 112

What effect does an increase in density altitude have on takeoff and landing performance?

Answer 112

an increase in density altitude results in: a. increased takeoff distance b. reduced rate of climb c. increased true airspeed on approach and landing d. increased landing roll distance

Question 113

Why does the manufacturer provide various manifold pressure/prop settings for a given power output?

Answer 113

so the pilot has a choice between operating the aircraft at best efficiency (minimum fuel flow) or operating at best power/speed condition.

Question 114

What does the term 75% brake horsepower mean?

Answer 114

brake horsepower is the power delivered at the propeller shaft. 75% BHP means you are delivering 75 percent of the normally rated power or maximum continuous power available.

Question 115

Explain how 75% BHP can be obtained from your engine.

Answer 115

set the throttle (manifold pressure) and propeller (rpm) to the recommended values found in the cruise performance chart of your POH.

Question 116

When would a pilot lean a normally aspirated direct drive engine?

Answer 116

a. anytime the power setting is 75% or less at any altitude b. at high altitude airports, lean for taxi, takeoff, traffic pattern entry and landing. c. when the density altitude is high d. as per the POH

Question 117

What are the different methods available for leaning aircraft engines?

Answer 117

a. tachometer method - from full rich lean to maximum (peak) rpm, then slowly continue leaning until the engine runs rough. Then, enrich the mixture sufficiently to get the engine running smoothly again. b. fuel flow method - lean the mixture to the fuel flow recommended in the POH. c. Exhaust Gas Temperature Method (EGT) - lean the mixture to establish peak EGT then enrich the mixture by 50 degrees rich of peak EGT.

Question 118

What is Vso?

Answer 118

calibrated power-off stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable in the landing configuration.

Question 119

What is Vs1?

Answer 119

calibrated power-off stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable in a specified configuration.

Question 120

What is Vy?

Answer 120

best rate of climb speed

Question 121

What is Vx?

Answer 121

best angle of climb speed

Question 122

What is VLE?

Answer 122

maximum airspeed at which the airplane can be safely flown with the landing gear extended.

Question 123

What is VLO?

Answer 123

maximum airspeed at which the landing gear can be safely extended or retracted.

Question 124

What is VFE?

Answer 124

maximum airspeed permissible with the flaps in a prescribed extended position.

Question 125

What is VA?

Answer 125

designed maneuvering speed. This is the maximum speed at which the limit load can be imposed, either by gusts or full deflection of the controls, without causing structural damage.

Question 126

What is VNO?

Answer 126

maximum speed for normal operation or the maximum structural cruising speed. This is the speed at which exceeding the limit load factor may cause permanent deformation of the airplane structure.

Question 127

What is VNE?

Answer 127

NEVER EXCEED SPEED. Flight above this speed may result is structural damage.

Question 128

What is the normal climb-out-speed? (Piper PA-28R)

Answer 128

100 mph

Question 129

What is the best rate of climb speed (Vy)? (Piper PA-28R)

Answer 129

100 mph (gear up)

Question 130

What is the best angle of climb speed (Vx)? (Piper PA-28R)

Answer 130

85 mph (gear down), 96 (gear up)

Question 131

What is the maximum flap extension speed?

Answer 131

125 mph

Question 132

What is the maximum gear extension speed?

Answer 132

150 mph

Question 133

What is the maximum gear retraction speed?

Answer 133

125 mph

Question 134

What is the stall speed in the normal landing configuration?

Answer 134

64 mph

Question 135

What is the stall speed in the clean configuration?

Answer 135

71 mph

Question 136

What is the normal approach to land speed?

Answer 136

90 mph

Question 137

What is the maneuvering speed (Va)?

Answer 137

131 mph

Question 138

What is the red line speed (Vne)?

Answer 138

214 mph

Question 139

What speed will give you the best glide ratio?

Answer 139

105 mph

Question 140

What is the maximum allowable crosswind component?

Answer 140

20 mph

Question 141

What takeoff distance is required if a takeoff were made from a sea level pressure altitude?

Answer 141

1800 ft.

Question 142

What performance characteristics will be adversely affected when an aircraft has been overloaded?

Answer 142

a. higher takeoff speed b. longer takeoff run c. reduced rate and angle of climb d. lower maximum altitude e. shorter range f. reduced cruising speed g. reduced maneuverability h. higher stalling speed I. higher landing speed j. longer landing roll

Question 143

If the weight and balance of an aircraft has changed due to the addition or removal of fixed equipment in the aircraft, what responsibility does the owner or operator have?

Answer 143

owner or operator should ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft records. Weight changes must be accounted for and proper notations made in weight and balance records. The appropriate form for these changes is "Major Repairs and Alterations"

Question 144

Define the term "center of gravity" (CG).

Answer 144

the point about which an aircraft would balance if it were possible to support the aircraft on a single point. It is the center of mass where all of the weight is concentrated. The CG must be within specific limits for safe flight.

Question 145

What effect does a forward center of gravity have on an aircraft's flight characteristics?

Answer 145

a. higher stall speed - due to increased wing loading b. slower cruise speed - increased drag, greater angle of attack required to maintain altitude. c. more stable - center of gravity is further forward from the center of pressure, which increases longitudinal stability d. greater back elevator pressure required - which means longer takeoff roll, higher approach speeds and a difficult landing flare.

Question 146

What effect does an aft center of gravity have on an aircraft's flight characteristics?

Answer 146

a. lower stall speed - less wing loading b. higher cruise speed - reduced drag, smaller angle of attack required to maintain altitude c. less stable - stall and spin recovery more difficult

Question 147

Define "arm" as it relates to weight and balance.

Answer 147

the horizontal distance in inches from the reference datum line to the center of gravity of an item

Question 148

Define "empty weight" as it relates to weight and balance

Answer 148

the weight of the airframe, engines, and all other items which have fixed locations and are permanently installed in the aircraft. It includes hydraulic fluid, unusable fuel and undrainable oil.

Question 149

Define "basic operatin weight" as it relates to weight and balance

Answer 149

the empty weight plus the weight of the crew, ready for flight. This does not include payload and fuel.

Question 150

Define "datum" as it relates to weight and balance

Answer 150

an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements of arm are taken. It is established by the manufacturer.

Question 151

Define "moment" as it relates to weight and balance

Answer 151

the product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm. Moments are expressed in pound-inches

Question 152

Define "payload" as it relates to weight and balance

Answer 152

weight of occupants, cargo, and baggage

Question 153

Define "useful load" as it relates to weight and balance

Answer 153

the maximum amount of weight the aircraft can carry in people (including the crew), baggage, cargo, useable fuel and oil.

Question 154

What basic equation is used in all weight and balance problems to find the center of gravity location of an airplane and/or its components?

Answer 154

weight x arm = moment

Question 155

What basic equation is used to determine center of gravity?

Answer 155

divide total moments by total weight

Question 156

Explain the term percent of mean aerodynamic chord (MAC).

Answer 156

this is a common expression of CG in larger aircraft. Normally , an aircraft will have acceptable flight characteristics if the CG is located somewhere in the 25% average chord point. This is within the first 25% of the total distance from the leading edge of the wing.

Question 157

If the weight of an aircraft is within takeoff limits but the CG limit has been exceeded, what actions can the pilot take to correct the situation?

Answer 157

shift baggage, passengers or both to bring the CG within limits.

Question 158

What simple and fundamental weight check can be made by all pilots before flight?

Answer 158

check to see if the useful load has been exceeded. Useful load can be determined by subtracting the empty weight from the maximum takeoff weight.

Question 159

What factors would contribute to a change in center of gravity location during flight?

Answer 159

fuel being used and passenger movement (if applicable)

Question 160

If actual weights for weight and balance computations are unknown, what weights may be assumed for weight and balance computations?

Answer 160

a. Crew and passengers = 170 lbs. / person b. Fuel = 6 lbs. / gal c. Oil = 7.5 lbs. / gal d. Water = 8.35 lbs. / gal

Question 161

How is the CG affected during flight as fuel is used?

Answer 161

most aircraft are designed with the fuel tanks positioned close to the CG, therefore, the consumption of fuel does not affect the CG to a great extent. Care should be taken to monitor the lateral balance of the fuel load to prevent any adverse affects.