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Flashcards in Perio2 Deck (145):
1

Which of the following occlusal conditions would exert the lowest amount of biting force under normal conditions?
• complete dentures resting on soft tissue
• complete dentures supported by implants
• fully dentate occlusion
• maxillary complete denture opposing natural teeth

complete dentures resting on soft tissue (apply about one sixth of the occlusal force compared to the fully dentate occlusion or a complete denture opposing natural dentition.)

2

Occlusal forces produced by full arch dentures supported by implants produce ? force as fully dentate occlusal schemes

about the same

3

If the implant-to-abutment interface consists of a permanent extension on the top of an implant and a receptacle inside the abutment, the implant connection is categorized as:
• an internal connection
• an external connection
• a cone in a socket connection
• a nonengaging connection
• a rotational element

an external connection

4

Which of the following is/are necessary for osseointegration to be successful
• primary stability of the implant
• limited micromotion during healing
• minimization of surgical trauma
• uncontaminated implant surfaces
• all of the above

all of the above

5

Osseointegration can fail due to:
• occlusal overload
• bacterial plaque
• micromotion during healing
• excessive cantilevering of the prosthesis
• all of the above

all of the above

6

The limit of heat is ? degrees C for less than ? minute

• 47
• 1

7

special drill for implant removing is called ?

a trephine drill

8

"Antirotational" element is added to an implant to:
• prevent rotation of multiunit restorations
• prevent rotation of the implant
• prevent rotation of the abutment in the implant
• prevent overtorquing of the abutment screw
• all of the above

prevent rotation of the abutment in the implant

9

Antirotational elements are also added to abutments to prevent the rotation of ?

attached single-unit restorations such as a single crown

10

Bisphosphonates are used to treat ?

osteoporosis and cancer (absolute contraindications for implant placement)

11

"Site development" for implants includes the following techniques. Select all that apply.
• guided tissue regeneration
• socket grafting
• bone grafting with cow bone
• bisphosphonate supplementation for bone density
• orthodontic tooth movement

• guided tissue regeneration
• socket grafting
• bone grafting with cow bone
• orthodontic tooth movement

12

technique for bone augmentation in edentulous areas?

guided bone regeneration technique

13

The hole that is surgically created in the bone to receive the implant body is called the:
• osteotomy
• bone channel
• smokestack
• callus core
• chimney

osteotomy

14

? dictate how the osteotomy must be prepared

• The overall implant shape (macrostructure)
• the bone "quality" at any site

15

If the bone is very dense and a screw-shaped implant is being used, the osteotomy may be "tapped" meaning ?

that screw threads are created on the walls of the osteotomy to receive the screw threads on the implant

16

A radiograph should be exposed and interpreted at which of the following points during implant placement and restoration:
• at the end of the surgical procedure
• following the final torque application to an abutment
• anytime the fit or seating of a component must be verified
• intraoperatively to verify implant position
• all of the above

all of the above

17

The most common source of patient dissatisfaction with implants is:
• pain
• appearance
• mobility
• loss of osseointegration

appearance (since restoration of bone, gingival contours, and papillae is sometimes not possible)

18

? refers to an absence of one or more papillae, which creates an esthetic concern.

Black triangle disease

19

Which of the following was/were included in the 1986 Albrektsson et al criteria for functional implant success?
• implant is immobile and has no periimplant radiolucency
• bone loss is less than 0.02 mm/year after the first year of service
• absence of persistent and/or irreversible pain, infection, paresthesia or violation of the mandibular canal
• success rates of at least 85% at year 5 and 80% at year 10
• all of the above

all of the above

20

"Direct structural and functional connection between ordered, living bone and the surface of a load-carrying implant" is the definition of:
• a cold weld
• ankylosis
• osseointegration
• metal callous formation

osseointegration

21

Epithelium does attach to titanium via ? structure comprised of ?

• a "junctional epithelium"
• hemidesmosomes and a basal lamina

22

Implants should not be treatment planned in young individuals until skeletal growth has been completed.
• true
• false

true
1. do not erupt or move physiologically within bone
2. prevent normal development of the jaws

23

The highest rate of implant failure occurs in:
• type 1 bone
• type 2 bone
• type 3 bone
• type 4 bone

type 4 bone

24

bone quality is categorized according to ?

• cortical plate thickness
• cancellous/trabecular density

25

Type I bone occurs in ?, for example, where the bone is mostly cortical bone

the anterior mandible

26

Type 2 bone is ?

a thick layer of cortical bone and the cancellous bone core is most dense

27

Type 3 bone is composed of ?

a thin layer of cortical bone surrounding a dense core of cancellous bone

28

Type 4 bone is characteristic of?

the posterior maxilla and has a typically thin cortical plate and low density cancellous bone core

29

In patients with normal bone and normal healing capabilities, one should anticipate dental implant success rates of:
• 35%
• 50% to 60%
• 74%
• 90% to 95%
• 100%

90% to 95%

30

Implant failures are generally considered to be
• early due to?
• late due to ?

• surgical trauma and/or implant instability at the time of placement
• microbial plaque accumulation equivalent to periodontal disease and/or to excessive occlusal forces

31

• periimplant mucositis denotes ?
• periimplantitis refers to?
Both conditions require treatment

• inflammation of the soft tissues surrounding the implant
• this inflammation but with accompanying loss of implant-supporting bone

32

Implants are useful for orthodontic anchorage because implants:
• do not move in response to orthodontic forces
• do not have a periodontal ligament
• can be placed and later removed
• can be located to gain force advantage
• all of the above

all of the above

33

The greatest esthetic challenge for the restorative dentist occurs in the patient having a:
• high smile line, thick periodontal biotype
• low smile line, thin periodontal biotype
• low smile line, thick periodontal biotype
• high smile line, thin periodontal biotype

high smile line, thin periodontal biotype

34

? is responsible for proprioception around natural teeth. The lack of the periodontal ligament around implants results in a much reduced ? sense of where the implants are in relation to the opposing occlusion

• The periodontal ligament
• tactile

35

There is a phenomenon that develops with time called ?, which gives the patient a certain amount of tactile sense regarding the implants in the bone

osseoperception

36

The "anterior loop" is descriptive of the:
• circular course of the internal maxillary artery
• maxillary sinus extension toward the canine tooth
• course of the inferior alveolar nerve anterior to the mental foramen
• necessity for angled abutments
• none of the above

course of the inferior alveolar nerve anterior to the mental foramen (the implant location should be planned to be at least 5 mm or more anterior to the foramen)

37

When planning implant position, the osteotomy preparation should be planned to end a minimum of ? vertically away from the mandibular canal, and ? away from any other vital structure

• 2 mm
• 2 mm

38

Assessment of the potential implant patient should include:
• direct palpation of the bony ridges
• determination of any limitations of mouth opening
• cross-sectional imaging
• all of the above

all of the above

39

Where should the healing abutment be placed at the stage II (uncovering) surgery for a two-piece implant system? Select all that apply.
• approximately 1 to 2 mm "taller" then the height of the tissue
• out of occlusion
• radiographically confirmed as seated
• designed to shape or mold the tissue

• approximately 1 to 2 mm "taller" then the height of the tissue
• out of occlusion
• radiographically confirmed as seated
• designed to shape or mold the tissue

40

Although mobility of an implant is considered a sign of implant failure in other circumstances, the rotation of the implant at second stage surgery may possibly be overcome by ?

replacing the cover screw, covering the implant with soft tissue, and allowing the site to heal for an additional 3 months

41

At the conclusion of surgical placement of a titanium implant, complete soft tissue coverage of the implant is required for successful osseointegration to occur.
• true
• false

false (regarding one-stage or nonsubmerged systems also called transgingival placement)

42

The clinical examination of osseointegrated dental implants should include:
• soft tissue observation
• radiographic assessment
• probing
• visual inspection of implant components
• all of the above

all of the above

43

Cross-sectional imaging is produced by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION!
• cone beam computed tomography
• panoramic radiography
• conventional linear tomography
• computed tomography scans

panoramic radiography

44

The term "relative attachment level" is used when the attachment is calculated from ?

a landmark beside the CEJ

45

The use of plastic probes has been widely recommended to avoid ?

scratching of titanium components

46

Of the following factors, which determine(s) the abutment that the restorative dentist should select?
• soft tissue (mucosal or gingival) height
• interarch space
• implant angulation
• esthetic requirements
• all of the above

all of the above (interarch space means restorative space)

47

Which of the following dimensions is not part of routinely recommended space requirements for root form implants?
• a minimum of 3 mm of space between adjacent implants
• at least 2 mm of bone remaining between the implant and vital structures
• at least 1 mm of bone surrounding the implant in all dimensions
• a minimum of 16 mm of implant length for stability
• placement of the restorative platform apical to the CEJ's of adjacent teeth

a minimum of 16 mm of implant length for stability (Implants of 10 to 14 mm length are routinely used successfully and achieve adequate primary stability)

48

A "polished collar," or the smooth polished exterior surface of the implant closest to or in the oral cavity, is designed to:
• provide a location for epithelial attachment
• make the exposed surface cleansable
• keep plaque from gaining access to deeper structures
• inhibit biofilm formation
• all of the above

all of the above (Epithelium can also form an attachment on a roughened surfac)

49

The soft tissue interface can be ?, both seem clinically acceptable

keratinized gingiva or nonkeratinized mucosa

50

The interface between epithelial cells and titanium is composed of ?

hemidesmosomes and a basal lamina

51

A "Morse taper" is one of many designs for:
• the abutment to implant connection
• the shape of the abutment's restorative part
• press-fit implants
• threads on a screw implant
• an implant milling machine

the abutment to implant connection (a cone-in-socket type of connection design for the fitting of the abutment into the implant)

52

Which of the following is NOT acceptable for cleaning of titanium surfaces, either by the patient or the dental clinician?
• powered toothbrushes
• end-tufted brushes
• plastic curettes
• conventional ultrasonic tips
• floss, especially multifilament varieties

conventional ultrasonic tips (Titanium as a metal is relatively "soft" and can be scratched on the surface fairly easily- specially designed ultrasonic tips having plastic or other softer coatings are available, and these are acceptable)

53

If the space available for the abutment and the crown is limited vertically, i.e., a small interarch space, which of the following abutment combinations would be least advantageous:
• cemented crown to the abutment
• screw-retained crown on the abutment
• restoration that fits to the implant with no abutment
• abutment with a ball extension for a removable prosthesis

cemented crown to the abutment

54

A suggested interval for implant maintenance appointments is ? for cleaning of the surfaces and inspection of the parts of the system which can become loose with function.

every 3 months

55

Platform switching refers to:
• replacing the implant to get a better abutment selection
• changing to a wider abutment for molar contours
• changing to a shorter abutment to hide margins
• matching a smaller diameter abutment with a wider diameter implant
• converting a round abutment to triangular

matching a smaller diameter abutment with a wider diameter implant (advantageous in terms of reducing the amount of bone remodeling and bone loss that normally occurs following placement of the abutment and the restoration on the implant.)

56

Dysmorphophobia ?

an extremely irrational fear of being disfigured by treatment.

57

Which of the following conditions is not a contraindication to dental implant placement?
• current chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer
• history of radiation therapy to the maxillofacial complex
• dysmorphophobia
• advanced patient age

advanced patient age

58

Which cells control all three stages of inflammation?
• plasma cells
• red blood cells
• leukocytes
• Sertoli cells

leukocytes

59

If two adjacent implants are surgically placed too close together:
• the patient will have difficulty cleaning the area
• bone loss will probably occur between the implants
• the presence of a normal papilla is unlikely
• optimum esthetic contours will be prevented
• all of the above

all of the above

60

Typical inflammation can progress through three stages?

• Immediate
• Acute
• Chronic

61

To allow for an esthetic emergence profile, an implant should be surgically positioned ?mm apical, to the adjacent tooth CEJ.

2 to 3

62

Which cells of the immune system possess receptors for the complement component C3a, by which they participate in immediate inflammation?
• peripheral dendritic cells
• dermal dendrocytes (histiocytes)
• monocytes
• natural killer (NK) cells

dermal dendrocytes (histiocytes, participating in immediate inflammation)

63

Initially, the first group of cells to arrive at the site of injury are neutrophils. Later, ? become more numerous. In certain parasitic infections, ? predominate. In viral infection, ? rather than neutrophils usually predominate.
• plasma cells, basophils, eosinophils
• macrophages, eosinophils, lymphocytes
• macrophages, lymphocytes, basophils
• lymphocytes, macrophages, eosinophils

macrophages, eosinophils, lymphocytes

64

Stages of Acute Inflammation?

1. Vascular Phase of Inflammation
2. Cellular Phase of Inflammation

65

Vascular Phase of Inflammation?

• Vasoconstriction
• Complement activation and mediator release
• Vasodilation
• Increased vascular permeability

66

The ? has emerged as a unique immune cell that could be activated by many nonimmune processes, including acute stress, and could participate in a variety of inflammatory diseases in the nervous system, skin, joints, as well as cardiopulmonary, intestinal, and urinary systems.
• neutrophil
• epithelioid cell
• mast cell
• eosinophil

mast cell

67

The main cells involved in chronic infection are lymphocytes and:
• plasma cells
• mast cells
• neutrophils
• macrophages

macrophages (Lymphocytes are the predominant cell in chronic inflammation)

68

which inflammatory cell content in human gingiva is high?

The mast cell

69

Macrophages and lymphocytes in chronic inflammation are ? in that the activation of one stimulates the actions of the other

interdependent

70

The anaphylactic response is characterized by the degranulation of ? as a result of antigen-antibody complexes affixed to cell surfaces

mast cells

71

Which one of the following will increase the abrasive action of a polishing agent? Select all that apply.
• using an agent with nice large particles
• using an agent containing particles that are dull and round
• using a thick, viscous mixture of polishing paste
• applying the polishing agent with firm pressure and increasing to a heavy constant pressure
• polishing at a low speed with light pressure

• using an agent with nice large particles
• using a thick, viscous mixture of polishing paste
• applying the polishing agent with firm pressure and increasing to a heavy constant pressure

72

The purposes of periodontal dressings (packs) include all of the following except?
• stop persistent bleeding
• maintain the sutured position of the flaps
• improve patient comfort
• prevent mechanical injury to healing tissues

stop persistent bleeding (all bleeding should be controlled before the periodontal dressing is placed)

73

The use of abrasive polishing agents and/or a rotary polishing instrument may be contraindicated in the following cases?

• Patient with a communicable disease: the production of aerosols is likely to occur, which may disseminate the disease
• Patient with respiratory problems
• Patient with "green stain": usually the tooth surface under the stain is demineralized
• Patient with newly erupted teeth: have not mineralized completely yet
• Any patient who is at increased risk for dental caries: those with xerostomia, amelogenesis imperfecta, rampant caries, or receiving radiation therapy to the head

74

? the polishing cup into proximal areas increases its effectiveness

Flexing

75

When selecting a polishing agent to remove generalized staining, consider the following?

tooth sensitivity, type of stain present, type of restorations present, and the condition of the tooth surface. *** Not all surfaces should be polished

76

effects of periodontal dressings ? on the processes of wound healing or on surgical outcomes (i.e., gains of periodontal attachment or the reduction in probing depths).

have no well-defined

77

mouth wash for first week postoperatively ?

patient should rinse with 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate twice daily

78

Microorganisms that colonize the periodontal abscess have been reported to be primarily:
• gram-positive aerobic cocci
• gram-negative aerobic rods
• gram-negative anaerobic rods
• gram-positive anaerobic cocci

gram-negative anaerobic rods

79

which periodontal abscesses (acute/chronic) may be related to systemic involvement?

acute

80

which periodontal abscesses (acute/chronic) may be related to fistulous tract?

chronic

81

Treatment for an acute periodontal abscess?

• if localized: drainage + patient to rinse with warm salt water and place chlorhexidine gluconate on the affected area with a cotton-tipped applicator
• if not localized: first antibiotics therapy and then seen once the infection has localized

82

Microscopically, an abscess is a localized accumulation of ? within the periodontal pocket wall. The PMNs liberate enzymes that digest the cells and other tissue structures, forming the liquid product known as pus (exudate).

PMNs

83

Gingival fibers consist of:
• type I collagen
• type II collagen
• type III collagen
• type IV collagen

type I collagen

84

gingival abscess is caused by ?

injury (forcing of foreign material) to the outer surface of the gingiva, and not involving the supporting structures

85

The pericoronal abscess is associated with ?

the crown of a partially erupted tooth

86

The three types of connective tissue fibers are?

collagen, reticular and elastic (reticular and elastic spread between collagen fibers)

87

? is needed for hydroxylation of oroline and lysine essential for collagen formation.

Vitamin C

88

All of the following are contraindications to selective grinding in the natural dentition EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION!
• when pulp chambers are small
• in the presence of tooth sensitivity
• when major occlusal discrepancies may require orthodontics or full mouth reconstruction
• in patients who are poor candidates for full mouth reconstruction because of psychologic factors

when pulp chambers are small

89

For the periodontal patient, occlusal adjustment (coronoplasty) should not be done until ?

inflammation is resolved

90

All of the following are clinical signs of bruxism EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION!
• TMJ symptoms
• muscle soreness
• periodontal pocket formation
• cracked teeth or fillings
• wear facets on teeth
• widened PDL spaces on radiographs

periodontal pocket formation

91

The primary purpose of a night guard in periodontal trauma is to ?

modify and control bruxism or to redirect forces into a nontraumatic pattern

92

Which of the following statements regarding the assessment of tooth mobility is false?
• teeth normally have a very slight physiologic mobility
• mobility can result from multiple causes
• mobility is unacceptable and should be treated
• periodontal disease can result in tooth mobility

mobility is unacceptable and should be treated [Mobility should be treated if it is progressive (increasing)]

93

The two factors in tooth mobility most often seen would be ?

plaque-induced inflammatory disease and excessive occlusal forces (bruxism)

94

other factors for tooth mobility is?

pregnancy, diseases (local and systemic), trauma (including orthodontic movement), and hypofunction or hyperfunction.

95

Which of the following is not correctly matched with regards to a periodontal treatment plan?
• preliminary phase: plaque control
• phase I: mouth preparation
• phase II: periodontal surgery
• phase III: restorative
• phase IV: maintenance

preliminary phase: plaque control (Plaque control is a part of Phase I or initial therapy. The preliminary phase includes treatment of emergencies only, whether they be pulpal, periodontal, or any other)

96

Phase I (initial therapy), of periodontal treatment planning includes?

• Caries control, extraction of hopeless teeth
• Mouth preparation
- Initial scaling (full mouth)
- Definitive root planing
• Oral hygiene instructions

97

Cellular cementum (contrasted with acellular cementum) is:
• cementum that is resorbing
• newly formed cementum
• that part of the cementum that is adjacent to the enamel
• cementum that contains cementocytes

cementum that contains cementocytes

98

All of the following statements concerning B cells are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION!
• they mature in the bone marrow and migrate to lymphoid organs
• they are found in the germinal centers of the spleen and lymph nodes
• they are progenitors of plasma cells
• they are involved in humoral (antibody-mediated) and cell-mediated immunity

they are involved in humoral (antibody-mediated) and cell-mediated immunity (B cells are not involved with cell-mediated immunity)

99

The two main sources of collagen fibers in cementum are?

• Sharpey fibers (extrinsic) by fibroblasts
• fibers that belong to the cementum matrix (intrinsic) by cementoblasts

100

T cells are important in ?

• cell-mediated immunity,
• Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions (contact dermatitis),
• in the modulation of antibody-mediated immunity

101

Natural killer (NK) cells recognize and kill ?

• certain tumor
• virally infected cells

102

Patients with periodontitis often have (B or T) ? lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens

T lymphocytes

103

When trauma from occlusion results from reduced ability of the tissues to resist the occlusal forces, it is known as:
• primary occlusal trauma
• secondary occlusal trauma
• tertiary occlusal trauma

secondary occlusal trauma

104

Which of the following is true of cementum? Select all that apply.
• the main function is to compensate for tooth wear
• it is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament
• the deposition of new cementum continues periodically throughout life whereby root fractures may be repaired
• the cementum is indistinguishable on radiographs
• it is lighter in color than dentin, contains 45% to 50% inorganic substance, and its permeability diminishes with age

• it is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament
• the deposition of new cementum continues periodically throughout life whereby root fractures may be repaired
• the cementum is indistinguishable on radiographs
• it is lighter in color than dentin, contains 45% to 50% inorganic substance, and its permeability diminishes with age
(the main function is the attachment of principal fibers of the PDL)

105

The most common indication to splint mobile teeth is to:
• improve patient comfort and to provide better control of the occlusion if the anterior teeth are mobile
• improve oral hygiene
• prevent a natural unopposed tooth from migrating
• prevent maxillary central incisors from separating after closure of diastema

improve patient comfort and to provide better control of the occlusion if the anterior teeth are mobile

106

In combined endodontic-periodontic lesions, it is generally wise to treat:
• the periodontic component first
• the endodontic component first
• both components at the same time
• them any way you want to

the endodontic component first

107

Trauma from occlusion can produce radiographically detectable changes in all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION!
• lamina dura
• periodontal pockets
• width of the PDL space
• morphology of the alveolar crest
• density of the surrounding cancellous bone

periodontal pockets (A local irritant and inflammation
are necessary to cause pocket)

108

Extrinsic dental stains include:
• green to brown stains caused by erythroblastosis fetalis
• brown, black, green, or orange stains caused by chromogenic bacteria in plaque
• red to brown stains caused by congenital porphyria
• gray or brownish stains caused by tetracycline

brown, black, green, or orange stains caused by chromogenic bacteria in plaque

109

clinical sign of occlusal trauma are ?

• tooth mobility (most common)
• migration of teeth
• tenderness of teeth to percussion

110

Stains can be identified by location:
Stains can be identified by sources of the discoloration:

• Intrinsic (within the tooth substance)
• Extrinsic (on the external surface of the tooth)
• Endogenous (always intrinsic- drugs, changes in pulp tissue of pulpless teeth, imperfect tooth development)
• Exogenous (originates from an external source)

111

Silver amalgam and topical fluoride are also examples of ?

exogenous intrinsic stains

112

Abrasives:
• compose 5% to 10% of dentifrices
• compose 10% to 20% of dentrifrices
• compose 20% to 40% of dentrifices
• compose 50% to 65% of dentrifices

compose 20% to 40% of dentrifices

113

Water irrigation devices (oral irrigators) have been shown to:
• eliminate plaque
• clean nonadherent bacteria and debris from the oral cavity more effectively than toothbrushes and mouth rinses
• disinfect pockets for up to 12 hours
• prevent calculus formation

clean nonadherent bacteria and debris from the oral cavity more effectively than toothbrushes and mouth rinses

114

Tooth powders are much more abrasive than pastes and contain about ?% abrasive materials

95%

115

on which arch we see more wear?

maxillary (on left side more than right side)

116

In dentifrices, fluoride ion must be available in the amount of ? parts per million (ppm) to achieve caries reduction effects

1000-1100

117

"Calculus control toothpastes," also referred to as "tartar control toothpastes," contain ? and have been shown to reduce the deposition of new calculus on teeth

pyrophosphates

118

Dentifrice with pyrophosphates has been shown to reduce the formation of ?

• new supragingival calculus by 30% or more
• donot affect subgingival calculus formation or gingival inflammation

119

Oral irrigators may be contraindicated in patients requiring ? since these devices have the potential for causing a bacteremia

antibiotic premedication prior to dental treatment

120

which one is more effective: Daily supragingival irrigation with
• a dilute, chlorhexidine,
• with water irrigation and chlorhexidine rinse?

Daily supragingival irrigation with a dilute, chlorhexidine

121

The effectiveness of tooth brushing is best measured by:
• the amount and location of plaque
• the caries experience
• the tooth brushing frequency
• the condition of the toothbrush

the amount and location of plaque

122

Which component of Super Floss® is most effective in cleaning around appliances and between wide spaces?
• stiffened end
• spongy floss
• regular floss

spongy floss

123

Which of the following oral hygiene aids is appropriate for cleaning a Class II furcation?
• stim-u-dent®
• interproximal brushes
• interdental stimulator
• perio-aid®
• oral irrigator

perio-aid®

124

To date, the ADA has accepted two agents for treatment of gingivitis, these are:
• prescription solutions of chlorhexidine digluconate oral rinse
• prescription solutions of tetracycline oral rinse
• nonprescription essential oil oral rinse
• nonprescription solutions of penicillin oral rinse

• prescription solutions of chlorhexidine digluconate oral rinse (0.12% is the same as 0.2%!) 0.12% chlorhexidine contains 12% alcohol
• nonprescription essential oil oral rinse (Listerine)

125

Frequent brushing and flossing helps to prevent calculus formation by ?

breaking up the matrix of plaque

126

when new plaque growth occurs ?

shortly after brushing and flossing

127

the ability of drugs to adsorb onto and bind to soft and hard tissues?

Substantivity

128

The attachment apparatus is composed of all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION!
• periodontal ligament
• cementum
• alveolar bone
• gingiva

gingiva (periodontium conists of gingiva and attachment apparatus)

129

Which of the following is the only local delivery system of antibiotics accepted by the ADA and is available in the United States and a number of other countries?
• 10% doxycycline gel
• 2% minocycline microspheres
• 25% metronidazole gel
• chlorhexidine (2.5mg) in gelatin matrix

10% doxycycline gel

130

The gingival fibers are arranged in three groups. Which of the following is not one of those groups?
• circular group
• gingivodental group
• apical group
• transseptal group

apical group

131

Of the choices listed below, which one describes the boundaries that define the attached gingiva?
• from the gingival margin to the interdental groove
• from the free gingival groove to the gingival margin
• from the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove
• from the epithelial attachment to the cementoenamel junction

from the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove (base of the sulcus)

132

The width of the attached gingiva increases with ?

age and in supraerupted teeth

133

The principal fibers of the periodontal ligament are arranged in four groups.
The molecular configuration of collagen fibers in the periodontal ligament provides them with a tensile strength greater than that of steel.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

the first statement is false, the second is true (Transseptal, Alveolar crest, Horizontal, Oblique, Apical and interradicular)

134

Because of the high turnover rate, the connective tissue of the gingiva has a remarkably good healing and regenerative capacity.
The reparative capacity of the gingival connective tissues is not as great as that of the periodontal ligament or the epithelial tissue.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

135

Within the gingival connective tissues, most nerve fibers are myelinated/unmyelinated?

myelinated

136

Cervical line contours are closely related to the attachment of the gingiva at the neck of the tooth. The greatest contour of the cervical lines and gingival attachments occur on:
• the distal surface of anterior teeth
• the distal surface of posterior teeth
• the mesial surface of anterior teeth
• the mesial surface of posterior teeth

the mesial surface of anterior teeth (The mesial surface of the maxillary central has the greatest curvature)

137

The junctional epithelium consists of a collarlike band of stratified squamous nonkeratinizing epithelium.
The reduced enamel epithelium is not essential for its formation.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

138

Which of the following types of oral mucosa is not keratinized under normal conditions?
• buccal mucosa
• vermillion border of the lips
• hard palate
• gingiva

buccal mucosa

139

The narrowest band of attached gingiva is found:
• on the lingual surfaces of maxillary incisors and the facial surfaces of maxillary first molars
• on the facial surfaces of mandibular second premolars and the lingual surface of canines
• on the facial surfaces of the mandibular canine and first premolar and the lingual surfaces adjacent to the mandibular incisors and canines
• none of the above

on the facial surfaces of the mandibular canine and first premolar and the lingual surfaces adjacent to the mandibular incisors and canines (also at the mesiobuccal root of maxillary first molars)

140

The "attached" gingiva is structured to withstand ?

frictional stresses of mastication and brushing

141

? are the most common cells in the peridontal ligament and appear as ovoid or elongated cells oriented along the principal fibers, exhibiting pseudopodialike processes.
• cementoblasts
• osteoblasts
• fibroblasts
• macrophages

fibroblasts (and a large proportion of ground substance such as glycosaminoglycans [eg hyaluronic acid and proteoglycans] and glycoproteins)

142

Bone consists of:
• two-thirds organic matter and one-third inorganic matrix
• one-third organic matter and two-thirds inorganic matrix
• one-half organic matter and one-half inorganic matrix
• two-thirds inorganic matter and one-third organic matrix

two-thirds inorganic matter and one-third organic matrix

143

Although the average width of the periodontal ligament space is documented to be about ?, considerable variation exists.
• 0.002 mm
• 0.2 mm
• 2.0 mm
• 20 mm

0.2 mm

144

The principal fibers of the peridontal ligament are composed mainly of collagen type III.
The amount of collagen in a tissue can be determined by its glycine content.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are false (collagen type I and hydroxyproline content)

145

neural termination of PDL:

1. Free endings (pain sensation)
2. Ruffini-like mechanoreceptors (in the apical area)
3. Coiled Meissner corpuscles (in the midroot region) also mechanoreceptors
4. Spindlelike pressure and vibration endings (in the apex)