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Flashcards in Pathology2 Deck (101):
1

On a hospital rotation you see an infant who displays bowed legs and muscular weakness. On dental examination you notice a delayed eruption pattern. The child has rickets, which is a deficiency in which vitamin?
• vitamin A
• vitamin D
• vitamin C
• vitamin E

vitamin D (Rickets in children, osteomalacia in adults)

2

Which of the following conditions may be seen in a patient with cerebral palsy? Select all that apply.
• difficulty with mastication and swallowing
• higher incidence of periodontal disease and caries
• attrition of the teeth
• multilocular radiolucencies of the jaws

• difficulty with mastication and swallowing
• higher incidence of periodontal disease and caries
• attrition of the teeth
(Cerebral palsy is a term used to describe a group of disorders affecting body movement and muscle coordination. It is due to an insult to or anomaly of the brain's motor control centers)

3

Which of the following diseases is associated with a decrease in caries?
• sjogren syndrome
• cystic fibrosis
• cerebral palsy
• down syndrome

cystic fibrosis (probably the result of alterations in saliva and the long-term use of antibiotics)

4

You are listening to a story about oyster fishing from a fellow classmate concerning his trip to the East Coast. He mentions that he got sick and had to be taken to the ER where he was told he had hepatitis. He is fine now. Which hepatitis is the most likely culprit in your colleague?
• hepatitis A
• hepatitis B
• hepatitis C

hepatitis A — also called infectious, viral , or short-incubation hepatitis

5

The only oral complication associated with hepatitis is the potential for ? in cases of significant liver damage

abnormal bleeding

6

Which type of hepatitis is found only in patients with acute or chronic episodes of hepatitis B?
• hepatitis A
• hepatitis C
• hepatitis D
• hepatitis E

hepatitis D — this virus causes "serum" or long-incubation hepatitis

7

Which of the following aid in wound healing? Select: all that apply.
• highly vascular areas (i.e., tongue)
• hyperthermia
• younger age
• cortisone
• hypothermia

• highly vascular areas (i.e., tongue)
• hyperthermia
• younger age

8

In which one of the following cases is an incisional biopsy indicated?
• 3-mm well-encapsulated fibroma
• necrotizing sialometaplasia of the hard palate
• 2-mm papilloma of left commissure of lips
• aneurysmal bone cyst

necrotizing sialometaplasia of the hard palate

9

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is associated with all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• nasopharyngeal carcinoma
• oral hairy leukoplakia
• burkitt lymphoma
• koplik spots

koplik spots - measles (rubeola) is characterized by Koplik spots, cannot be wiped off and occur opposite the molars

10

Neck swellings are characteristic of ?

infectious mononucleosis, Hodgkin disease, and tuberculosis

11

Epithelioid cells and giant cells are derived from macrophages and are important in the development of:
• initial inflammation
• granulomatous inflammation
• acute inflammation
• subacute inflammation

granulomatous inflammation

12

Granulomatous inflammation is characteristically associated with areas of ? necrosis produced by infectious agents, particularly ?

• caseous
• Mycobacterium tuberculosis

13

A patient you saw yesterday had minor swelling of the submandibular space associated with a carious #31. You prescribed amoxicillin and sent him home. He called today to say the swelling has gotten worse. You squeeze him into the schedule and notice that he has trouble breathing. You call an ambulance to escort him to the ER and tell the paramedics that he has Ludwig's angina. Ludwig angina is a severe and spreading infection that involves the:
• submental and sublingual spaces only
• submandibular, submental, and sublingual spaces unilaterally
• submandibular and sublingual spaces only
• submandibular, submental, and sublingual spaces bilaterally

submandibular, submental, and sublingual spaces bilaterally

14

Very important: The most serious complication of Ludwig angina is ?

edema of the glottis (which is a slit-like opening between the true vocal cords).

15

ESR rises with all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• inflammation
• administration of hydrocortisone
• necrosis
• suppuration
• pregnancy

administration of hydrocortisone (Elevated sedimentation rates [ESR] are not specific for any disorder but indicate the presence of inflammation)

16

Your 2-year-old nephew tells you he feels sick and then proceeds to vomit on the kitchen floor. You rush him to the bathroom where you notice toothpaste everywhere and his "SpongeBob" toothpaste tube completely empty. Your aunt asks you, "What is the estimated toxic dose for fluoride ingestion"? Your answer to her is:
• 1-2 mg/kg
• 5-10 mg/kg
• 8-10 mg/kg
• 12-15 mg/kg

5-10 mg/kg

17

? will reduce the absorption of dietary fluoride

The intake of calcium in high doses

18

fluoride poisoning includes?

• acute: going to hospital
• chronic: whit characteristic signs of osteosclerosis of the bones and dental fluorosis

19

The most common cause of xerostomia is:
• hereditary
• medications
• tooth decay
• mouth breathing

medications

20

xerostomia can lead to ?

• rampant tooth decay
• periodontal disease

21

The most common disease causing xerostomia is ?

Sjogren syndrome that occurs predominantly in postmenopausal women

22

Where in the oral cavity is malignant melanoma most commonly found?
• tongue and mandibular alveolar ridge
• buccal mucosa and pharyngeal pillars
• palate and maxillary gingiva
• mucobuccal fold of lower lip

palate and maxillary gingiva

23

Name the malignant, epithelial cell tumor that characteristically begins as a papule and enlarges peripherally, developing a central crater that erodes, crusts, and bleeds.

basal cell carcinoma (rarely metastasizes)

24

primary cause of the basal cell carcinoma is ?

excessive sun or x-ray exposure.

25

A 62-year-old patient comes into your office complaining of his loose lower molars. The health history reveals recent lower back pain. On a hunch, you send him down the hall to the orthodontist to take a lateral skull radiograph that reveals "punched-out" radiolucencies. You will refer this patient to the physician suspecting a diagnosis of:
• non-hodgkin lymphoma
• hodgkin lymphoma
• multiple myeloma
• langerhans cell disease

multiple myeloma (also known as "Plasma Cell Myeloma")

26

The most common type of malignant melanoma is:
• superficial spreading melanoma
• lentigo maligna melanoma
• acral-lentiginous melanoma
• nodular melanoma

superficial spreading melanoma

27

Skin cancer is a very common malignancy in the United States. Of the different types, ? is most common followed by ?, and the least common is ?

• basal cell carcinoma
• squamous cell carcinoma
• malignant melanoma.

28

When using the TNM method in assessing the prognosis and therapy of malignant neoplasms, the N represents:
• the presence of nikolsky sign
• the presence of nodules
• the presence of regional lymph node involvement
• the presence of erythroplakia

the presence of regional lymph node involvement
• T = size of the primary tumor
• N = presence of regional lymph node involvement
• M = presence of distant metastases

29

The most common site of squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue is the:
• dorsum
• ventral surface
• tip
• posterior lateral border

posterior lateral border

30

Of the following types of squamous cell carcinomas, which is the least common?
• squamous cell carcinoma of the palate
• squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx
• squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx
• squamous cell carcinoma of the maxillary sinus

squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx

31

At which growth stage is metastasis most likely for malignant melanoma?
• "horizontal" growth phase
• "circular" growth phase
• "vertical" growth phase
• "radial" growth phase

"vertical" growth phase

32

Malignant melanoma is an uncommon neoplasm of the oral mucosa. It exhibits a definite predilection for ?

the palate and the maxillary gingival alveolar ridge.

33

Cancer of which oral cavity structure is most commonly associated with mortality?
• lip
• tongue
• floor of mouth
• buccal mucosa

tongue

34

Metastases from tongue cancer are relatively common at the time of primary treatment. In general, metastatic deposits from SCC of the tongue are found in the lymph nodes of the neck, usually on the ipsilateral side. The first nodes to become involved are ? at the angle of the mandible.

the submandibular or jugulodigastric nodes

35

• the 5-year survival rate for SCC is ?;
• with neck metastasis, it is ?.

• 45% to 50%
• 25%

36

A 47-year-old HIV+ patient is referred from his physician to you because of an exophytic growth in the maxillary left mucobuccal fold. Unable to find an odontogenic source, a biopsy was done. A starry-sky morphology was found and a dismal diagnosis of Burkitt lymphoma was made. Which virus is thought to be responsible for this lymphoma?
• herpes virus
• epstein-barr virus
• cytomegalovirus
• human papillomavirus

epstein-barr virus

37

The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with ?

• Burkitt lymphoma
• infectious mononucleosis,
• oral hairy leukoplakia,
• nasopharyngeal carcinoma

38

At the age of 9, poet Lucy Grealy was diagnosed with Ewing sarcoma of the jaw. Although rare in females, and rare in the jaw, Ewing sarcoma most often presents radiographically as:
• multiple radiolucent/radiopaque lesions resembling "cotton ball" or "cotton wool" appearance
• multiple "punched-out" radiolucencies
• "moth-eaten" destructive radiolucencies of medulla and erosion of the cortex with expansion
• lytic lesion that may be ill-defined or sharply defined

"moth-eaten" destructive radiolucencies of medulla and erosion of the cortex with expansion

39

Histologically, it is often difficult to distinguish this tumor from a neuroblastoma or a reticulum cell sarcoma, however, the cells of Ewing sarcoma contain ?

glycogen

40

A 15-year-old patient presents to his physician because of localized pain in his right femur and rapidly enlarging swelling. A radiograph of the area shows a "sun-ray" appearance. Which is a likely diagnosis for this patient based on incidence?
• chondrosarcoma
• osteosarcoma
• scleroderma
• chronic osteomyelitis

osteosarcoma

41

Osteosarcomas involving the mandible present most commonly with ?. In some cases, there may be ? as well as ? due to involvement of the inferior alveolar nerve

• swelling and localized pain
• loosening and displacement of teeth
• paresthesia
treated by radical mandibulectomy or maxillectomy

42

While doing a dental mission trip in Ethiopia, you notice purplish-brown nodules on the hard palate of a 32-year-old female patient. You notice more of these spots on her arms and legs. Given that HIV infection has an almost 5% prevalence in urban Addis Ababa, what neoplasm are you suspicious of?
• nicotinic stomatitis
• hemangioma
• kaposi sarcoma
• leukemia

kaposi sarcoma (characterized by abnormal vascular
proliferation (it is a cancer of the lining of blood vessels), predilection for the palate)

43

The ? presents as a movable, painless submucosal nodule with a yellowish-pink discoloration most commonly in the floor of the mouth.
• lipoma
• ranula
• lymphoma
• oral lymphoepithelial cyst

oral lymphoepithelial cyst

44

Which of the following statements concerning metastatic tumors of the jaws are correct. Select all that apply.
• they may be completely asymptomatic
• the patient is usually aware of slight discomfort or pain
• the maxilla is affected far more frequently than the mandible
• the molar region is predominantly involved

• they may be completely asymptomatic
• the patient is usually aware of slight discomfort or pain
• the molar region is predominantly involved

45

which part of mandible in metastatic jaw lesions is mostly effected?

angle and body of the mandible

46

Explain what is meant by a carcinoma of the oral cavity having the following TNM designation:
T1, N2, M1

— Tis: Carcinoma in situ
— T1: less than 2 cm in greatest diameter
— T2:4 cm in greatest diameter
— T3:greater than 4 cm in greatest diameter
—N1: Palpable homolateral lymph node(s), not fixed but metastases suspected
— N2: Palpable centralateral/bilateral lymph node(s), not fixed but metastases suspected
—N3: Palpable lymph node(s), fixed metastases suspected
— M0: No distant metastasis
—M1: Clinical and/or radiographic evidence of metastasis other than regional lymph nodes

47

A 65-year-old patient of East Indian origin presents to your clinic with a complaint of a lesion on the maxillary alveolar tuberosity. The lesion is a thick white, exophytic mass with a cauliflower appearance. A social history reveals that this woman has been chewing a betel nut concoction from her native India for over 40 years. What is the likely diagnosis of this lesion?
• papilloma
• erythroplakia
• verrucous carcinoma
• hyperkeratosis

verrucous carcinoma (rarely metastasizes)

48

A 73-year-old patient presents to your office with complaint of a lasting ulceration on the right side of his tongue. He has a history of hypertension and high cholesterol and a 40-year pack history of smoking. The patient takes antihypertensives and antilipidemics and has no allergies. You cannot find any sources of trauma. After 2 weeks, the ulcer has grown in size. What is the likely diagnosis of this most common malignancy of the oral cavity?
• adenoid cystic carcinoma
• mucoepidermoid carcinoma
• basal cell carcinoma
• squamous cell carcinoma

squamous cell carcinoma

49

The most reliable histologic criterion for a diagnosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma is ?

invasion

50

While attempting to give an inferior alveolar nerve block, if you inject the anesthetic solution into the capsule of the parotid gland, you may cause a Bells palsy-like feeling for the patient by anesthetizing the:
• trigeminal nerve
• glossopharyngeal nerve
• hypoglossal nerve
• facial nerve

facial nerve

51

gradual, complete recovery of bell palsy occurs in ? of patients.

over 85%

52

A 25-year-old college student comes into your office complaining that, when she wakes up, she has trouble opening her mouth. When conducting a TMJ exam, you note tenderness of the right lateral pterygoid and nonreciprocal clicking of the right TMJ. What is the most likely cause of the patient's myofacial pain?
• trauma
• muscle spasm
• periodontal disease
• tumor

muscle spasm

53

myofacial pain treatment?

Most cases are self-limiting. Soft diet, limited talking, no gum chewing, moist heat, NSAIDs, and diazepam help relieve symptoms

54

A 53-year-old patient comes to your office and notes that, sometimes when he swallows, he gets a sharp "jolt" on the right side of his throat. He says the pain is severe and he can even feel it in his ear. The most likely diagnosis is:
• postherpetic neuralgia
• orolingual paresthesia
• frey syndrome
• glossopharyngeal neuralgia

glossopharyngeal neuralgia (similar to that of trigeminal neuralgia but not as common, hock-like pain located deep in the throat)

55

Which of the following is a relatively rare autoimmune disorder of peripheral nerves in which antibodies form against acetylcholine (ACh) nicotinic postsynaptic receptors at the myoneural junction?
• myasthenia gravis
• myelofibrosis
• multiple sclerosis
• graves disease

myasthenia gravis (The muscles are quickly fatigued with repetitive use, Xerostomia and rampant caries, )

56

Multiple sclerosis AND Bell palsy and trigeminal neuralgia

both Bell palsy and trigeminal neuralgia may develop more frequently in patients with MS

57

A 34-year-old dentophobe is your patient for the morning. After getting a very hesitant health history, you decide to begin your oral exam. As you reach toward her face, she immediately flinches and puts her hands up. She lets you know that if you touch a particular point above her lip, she gets sharp, stabbing jolts of pain. You let her know that a neurologist can work her up for:
• glossopharyngeal neuralgia
• trigeminal neuralgia
• postherpetic neuralgia
• diabetic neuralgia

trigeminal neuralgia

58

The drug of choice for treating trigeminal neuralgia is ?

carbamazepine (Tegretol). It is an analgesic and anticonvulsant.

59

Which of the following are typically within soft tissue and may mimic inflammatory lesions of odontogenic origin?
• median alveolar cyst
• globulomaxillary cyst
• nasolabial cyst
• nasopalatine cyst

nasolabial cyst (called, inaccurately, nasoalveolar cyst. This latter designation is inappropriate because the entity is not a true cyst of the maxilla. Rather, it represents a soft tissue cyst without involvement of the alveolus, hence the preference for the designation "nasolabial cyst." Note: Because this cyst is extraosseous, it is not likely to be seen on a radiograph.)

60

Which of the following cysts are congenital? Select all that apply.
• thyroglossal duct cyst
• branchial cyst
• globulomaxillary cyst
• dermoid cyst

• thyroglossal duct cyst (frequent important symptom is hemorrhage into the mouth)
• branchial (cleft) cyst (located in the lateral portion of the neck, usually anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle)
• dermoid cyst (The most common site is the midline of the floor of the mouth if above the mylohyoid muscle. It appears as a mass in the upper neck if below the mylohyoid muscle)

61

The branchial cyst has an intraoral counterpart known as ?. The floor of the mouth is the most common site for these lesions

the lymphoepithelial cyst

62

Which of the following cysts are developmental (or fissural)? Select all that apply,
• nasopalatine duct (canal)
• nasolabial (nasoalveolar)
• branchiogenic
• median palatal
• median alveolar

• nasopalatine duct (canal, also known as an incisive canal cyst) (most frequent type of nonodontogenic cyst. Teeth are vital)
• nasolabial (nasoalveolar) (extraosseous cyst)
• median palatal
• median alveolar

63

The circular radiolucent area is clinically seen as a marked swelling in the region of the palatine papilla. It is situated mesial to the roots of the central incisors. The pulps of the anterior teeth in this patient tested vital. what it that?

nasopalatine duct (canal) cyst—also known as an incisive canal cyst

64

The soft tissue (and far less common) variant of the nasopalatine canal cyst is ?

the cyst of the palatine papilla

65

When making a diagnosis of nasopalatine duct (canal) cyst, the following two cysts should be ruled out:?

• The globulomaxillary cyst: usually appears between the roots of the lateral incisor and those of the canine. It is "pear-shaped" and often causes the roots of involved teeth to diverge
• The median palatal cyst: usually situated in the midline of the hard palate, posterior to the premaxilla. Clinically, this lesion presents as a firm swelling that is usually painless

66

An 8-year-old girl who looks like 14 years old. Her father states she has McCune-Albright syndrome. Select all that apply.
• congenital heart defects
• polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
• café au lait spots
• endocrine dysfunction

• polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
• café au lait spots
• endocrine dysfunction
The hallmark of Albright syndrome is premature puberty in the female

67

A child has pain on the left side of head for 5 weeks. No abnormal findings on physical examination. A panorammic radiograph reveals multiple radiolucent lesions (a punched-out appearance) on the left side of the maxilla.Teeth appear floating in space

langerhans cell disease

68

Which are true regarding central giant cell granulomas?
• found predominantly in children and young adults
• affects females more than males
• present almost exclusively in the small bones of the hands and feet

• found predominantly in children and young adults
• affects females more than males
• more frequently in the mandible

69

central giant cell granulomas appear less frequently than ?

peripheral giant cell granulomas

70

The microscopic appearance of central giant cell granuloma is virtually identical to the giant cell lesion (Brown tumor) associated with ?. However, blood tests will show ?

• hyperparathyroidism
• an increase in serum calcium and alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in serum phosphorus in hyperparathyroidism.

71

A 21-year patient bite seems off. His chin is deviated to the right. Taking a panoramic x-ray, you notice that the left condylar neck seems to have elongated.
• condylar agenesis
• condylar hyperplasia
• condylar hypoplasia
• hemifacial microsomia

condylar hyperplasia

72

A boy has been hospitalized multiple times for broken bones. His alkaline phosphatase levels were quite high. Dentally, you notice multiple impacted teeth. If this patient has a form of fibrous dysplasia, which radiographic feature may you find?
• the lesions are usually radiopaque, not well-circumscribed, and may have a "groundglass" appearance
• the lesions are usually radiolucent, well-circumscribed, and may have a "cotton wool" appearance
• the lesions are usually a saucer-shaped radiolucency
• the lesions are usually, well-demarcated unilocular or multilocular radiolucencies

the lesions are usually radiopaque, not well-circumscribed, and may have a "groundglass" appearance

73

Fibrous dysplasia is an idiopathic condition in which normal medullary bone is gradually replaced by?

an abnormal fibrous connective tissue proliferation

74

Osteoblastoma is an uncommon primary lesion of bone that occasionally arises in the maxilla or mandible. It is a benign process that?

• Radiographically is well-circumscribed, may have a "sun-ray" pattern of new bone production
• mandible is the most frequent head and neck site

75

where mandibular tori most often appear?

on the lingual surface of the mandible, most often in the premolar region, superior to the mylohyoid ridge

76

ossifying fibroma develop from ?

undifferentiated cells of the periodontal ligament

77

Which of the following are clinical features of the ossifying fibroma? Select all that apply.
• slow growing expansile lesion
• more often in maxilla
• asymptomatic
• common in young adults around 35 years of age
• more common in females

• slow growing expansile lesion
• asymptomatic
• common in young adults around 35 years of age
• more common in females
most often in the mandibular premolar-molar area

78

A 17-year-old patient of yours comes in for a routine examination. A head and neck examination reveals multiple cysts of the skin. Her panoramic exams have always shown multiple impacted teeth and today shows multiple radiopacities of the jaws, especially at the angle of the mandible. You suspect Gardner syndrome. What is the most serious complication she should be concerned with when consulting her physician?
• odontomas
• osteomas
• epidermoid cysts
• multiple polyps that affect the large intestine

multiple polyps that affect the large intestine

79

inevitable outcome of Gardner syndrome is ?

invasive colorectal cancer

80

In Gardner syndrome polyps of the colon ultimately change into ? by the fourth decade of life

adenocarcinoma

81

Multiple impacted and supernumerary teeth are seen in ?

• Gardner syndrome
• cleidocranial dysplasia

82

A 10-year-old boy comes with his mother to the dental office because of a painless swelling of his maxilla. Radiographic exam reveals an irregularly shaped radiopaque mass with a ground-glass appearance. No other bulges have been noted by the mother. A biopsy reveals fibrous tissue in the bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• monostotic fibrous dysplasia
• polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
• albright syndrome
• jaffe syndrome

monostotic fibrous dysplasia

83

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia applies to cases in which more than one bone exhibits evidence of the disorder. however, many patients have lesions of the skull, facial bones, or jaws, as a component of the condition. Note: ? may be elevated in up to 30% of patients with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

Alkaline phosphatase

84

The differential diagnosis of ? radiographically is its well-circumscribed appearance; while ? has the poorly defined radiographic and clinical margins

• the ossifying fibroma
• fibrous dysplasia

85

A new patient walks into your office. Your initial physical assessment reveals that his eyes are set wide and that he has multiple lesions of the skin. When shaking his hand, you notice that the skin of his palm is very thick and has palmer pitting. When doing a health history, he reveals that he sees a neurologist and that he has some calcified structures "in his brain". A panoramic radiograph may likely reveal:
• osteomas
• keratocystic odontogenic tumors
• odontomas
• dentigerous cysts

keratocystic odontogenic tumors (This patient has nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome also called Gorlin syndrome)

86

A mother brings her 2-year-old boy into the dental office because of a "swelling" on his alveolar ridge. Your exam reveals a smooth-surfaced bluish lesion with fluctuance where tooth #K will be erupting. The most likely diagnosis of this is:
• dentigerous cyst
• eruption cyst
• hematoma
• hemangioma

eruption cyst (No treatment is necessary as the cyst often ruptures spontaneously. In a few rare cases, incision or even the removal of the overlying tissue may be necessitated by pain or tenderness associated with the lesion)

87

Upon viewing a panorex of a 14-year-old patient, you see a well-defined multilocular radiolucency with scalloping around the roots on the left side of the mandible apical to the canine and first premolar. No clinical symptoms are present. Teeth are not carious and respond normally to vitality tests. Medical history is unremarkable. On opening the area, no fluid or tissue is evident. What is the most probable diagnosis?
• dentigerous cyst
• traumatic (simple) bone cyst
• primordial cyst
• residual cyst
• stafne (static) bone defect

traumatic (simple) bone cyst (This cyst may be completely devoid of solid or liquid material)

88

The residual cyst refers to a situation in which a tooth associated with ? is extracted but the cyst is left undisturbed, it persists within the jaw and this lesion is called a residual cyst. Note: You must ? after extraction.

• a radicular cyst
• curette the socket of a tooth with a radicular cyst

89

A healthy 19-year-old patient presents to your office for a routine exam. Taking a panoramic radiograph, you see a well-corticated, unilocular radiolucency surrounding the crown of impacted tooth #17. The lesion is asymptomatic. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• keratocystic odontogenic tumor
• dentigerous cyst
• cystic ameloblastoma
• central ossifying fibroma

dentigerous cyst — or follicular cyst

90

The fissural cysts (which are also called developmental cysts) are ? in origin, they include ?

• non dental
• nasoalveolar, median palatal, and nasopalatine cysts

91

The primordial cyst contains ? calcified structures

NO

92

The gingival cyst of the newborn also called ? appear typically as ?

• Bohn nodules
• multiple nodules along the alveolar ridge in neonates

93

The keratocystic odontogenic tumor (formerly known as the odontogenic keratocyst) is derived from which of the following:
• hertwig epithelial root sheath
• the reduced enamel epithelium
• remnants of the dental lamina
• a preexisting osteoma

remnants of the dental lamina

94

The most remarkable feature of keratocysts is ?

their great tendency toward recurrence

95

Which cyst arises from cystic changes in a developing tooth bud before the formation of enamel and dentin matrix?
• residual cyst
• traumatic bone cyst
• primordial cyst
• periodontal cyst

primordial cyst

96

? regions are the most common locations for a primordial cyst

The mandibular third and fourth molar

97

residual cyst can easily be misdiagnosed as a primordial cyst. what is the difference?

The primordial cyst arises in lieu of a tooth, whereas a residual cyst arises in relation to an extracted tooth.

98

Which of the following radiographically appears as a well-defined, round or teardrop-shaped radiolucency with an opaque margin?
• lateral periodontal cyst
• dentigerous cyst
• keratocystic odontogenic tumor

lateral periodontal cyst
• 95% mandibular canine-premolar area
• Apposition with root of vital tooth
• Usually symptomless

99

? is the soft tissue counterpart of lateral periodontal cyst

The gingival cyst of adulthood

100

The origin of the lateral periodontal cyst is related to proliferation of ?

the rests of dental lamina

101

? is the characteristic microscopic feature of the calcifying odontogenic cyst

Ghost cell keratinization