Pharm Flashcards

(93 cards)

1
Q

Polysporin

A

bacitracin and polymyxin

for scrapes and cuts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bacitracin MOA

A

disrupts gram positive cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

polymyxin MOA

A

polypeptide cationic detergent targets gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

neomycin

A

MOA: aminoglycoside that disrupts gram-
Adverse – contact dermatitis and systemic toxicity
Use: scrapes and cuts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Muprocin MOA

A

MOA: inhibits gram+ protein synthesis by inhibiting isol-tRNA synthetase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Muprocin adverse

A

Adverse: contact dermatitis, burning rash, not for systemic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Muprocin uses

A

Use: folliculitis, nonbullous impetigo, bullous impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

doxycycline MOA

A

inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

doxycycline adverse

A

photosensitivity, stained teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

doxycycline uses

A

furuncle, lyme disease, rocky mountain spotted fever, ocular rosacea, acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

clindamycin MOA

A

inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

clindamycin uses

A

furuncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TMP SMX MOA

A

overall inhibits folic acid synthesis
SMX inhibits the synthesis of DHF acid
TMP inhibits thymidine and DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

vancomycin MOA

A

binds D-Ala-D-Ala to inhibit transpeptidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bullous impetigo treatment

A

Muprocin and nafcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

scalded skin syndrome treatment

A

dicloxacillin or vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

miconazole MOA

A

inhibits ergosterol synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

miconazole uses

A

tinea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

terbinafine MOA

A

inhibits squalene epoxidase to interfere with ergosterol synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

metronidazole uses

A

rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

metronidazole MOA

A

inhibits nucleic acid synthesis in anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

clindamycin adverse

A

pseudomembranous colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

dapsone MOA

A

antifolate; inhibits bacterial synthesis of DHF acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

dapsone uses

A

acne, psoriasis, dermatitis herpetiformis and lichen planus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
dapsone adverse
hemolytic anemia esp in G6P
26
sulfacetamide MOA
antifolate; PABA analog that inhibits dihydropteroate synthase
27
sulfacetamide adverse
SJS esp in HIV
28
calcineurin topical inhibitor examples
pimecrolimus, tacrolimus,
29
pimecrolimus, tacrolimus, MOA
inhibit calcineurin phosphatase to decrease IL2 and other cytokines
30
pimecrolimus, tacrolimus, uses
psoriasis, severe atopic dermatitis, auto-immune
31
pimecrolimus, tacrolimus, adverse
immunosuppression, nephrotoxic, hypertriglyceridemia, hypertension Black box: lymphoma and skin cancer risk
32
imiquimod uses
warts, actinic keratoses, basal cell carcinoma
33
imiquimod MOA
activates immune cells via TLR7 and Langerhans | Stimulates TNFa and macrophages, and antiviral
34
methotrexate MOA
DHFRi that suppresses T cells, adenosine can be anti-inflammatory
35
methotrexate adverse
* Adverse: can be toxic with NSAIDs, nausea, GI, liver enzymes, teratogen * Black box – myelosuppression * Potential risk for infection
36
methotrexate uses
RA, autoimmune, abortion
37
infliximab / Adalimumab MOA
TNFa monoclonal that binds TNFa and stops mediated lymphocyte activation
38
infliximab / Adalimumab uses
RA
39
infliximab / Adalimumab / etanercept adverse
* Adverse: headaches, URIs * Black box: fungal opportunistic infections (check TB test), lymphoma * Do not use TNFai in MS patients
40
etanercept MOA
decoy fusion protein that binds TNFa and decreases TNFaR1 activity Neutralizing antibodies cannot be produced
41
anakinra MOA
IL1ra antagonist | reduces T cell activation by IL1
42
anakinra adverse
nausea, GI, toxicity with TNFai
43
tocilizumab MOA
IL6R antibody | IgG prevents IL6 from activating receptor and reduces T helper activation and thus reduces B cell synthesis
44
tocilizumab adverse
dyslipidemia, hepatotoxicity, malignancy risk (avoid if patient has melanoma)
45
utsekinumab MOA
IgG1 monoclonal antibody binds IL12p40 and IL23 to prevent cytokines from activating receptors and reduces IL23 effect
46
utsekinumab uses
psoriatic arthritis, can also treat RA, Crohn’s, sarcoidosis
47
utsekinumab adverse
: RPLS (reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome), headaches, seizures, CYP450, flu-like, URIs, infections, malignancy, allergic rxns
48
Abatacept MOA
fusions protein binds CD80-86 on APCs to prevent binding of co-stimulatory CD28 and thus reduces activation of T cells
49
abatacept indications
RA add on (avoid with TNFa or IL1)
50
abetacept adverse
opportunistic infections and malignancy (lymphoma
51
rituximab MOA
CD28 B cell monoclonal antibody that selectively depletes B cells and decreases autoimmune response
52
rituximab adverse
cytokine release syndrome (fever, nausea), aplastic anemia | Black Box: PML
53
leflunomide MOA
active metabolite A77-1726 inhibits dihydrooronate dehydrogenase to decrease pyrimidine synthesis and suppress T cells
54
leflunomide adverse
hepatotoxic, teratogen
55
leflunomide uses
Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs
56
sulfasalazine MOA
converted to 5ASA which reduces inflammation, IgA, IgM and T cell
57
sulfasalazine adverse
SJS-TENs, GI, hemolytic anemia
58
sulfasalazine uses
add on for RA, also Crohn’s and UC
59
hydroxychloroquine MOA
antimalarial that suppresses APC, TLRs and decrease T cell activation
60
hydroxychloroquine adverse
myopathy, retinopathy, SJS-TENS, pruritis, worsen psoriasis
61
hydroxychloroquine uses
RA and psoriasis
62
cyclosporine MOA
binds cyclophilin to block calcineurin NFAT activation to decrease IL1 and 2
63
cyclosporine uses
RA, transplants, psoriasis, SLE
64
cyclosporine adverse
renal dysfx, nephrotoxicity, HTN, malignancy
65
belilmumab MOA
BLyS inhibitor for psoriasis
66
rituximab uses
pemphigus vulgaris, RA, some cancers
67
cephalosporins MOA
binds to PBPs to inhibit cell wall synthesis
68
benzoyl peroxide MOA
oxidization to benzoic acid kills bacteria in skin
69
benzoyl peroxide adverse
for acne; | itching, peeling, dermatitis
70
azelaic acid uses
mild acne, 1st line rosacea, hyperpigmentation disorders
71
retinoids MOA (isoteretinion)
binds at RAR to alter gene transcription to reduce cell hyperplasia also has antimicrobial activity and enhances cell mediated toxicity
72
retinoids uses (isoteretinion)
1st line mild to severe acne, psoriasis, photodamaged skin, wrinkles
73
retinoids adverse (isoteretinion)
tumorigenic with UVR, erythema, dryness, irritation, IBD, ELE, dryness, photosensitivity, SJS-TENS, vasculitis, hypertriglyceridemia, teratogenic (MUST be on birth control)
74
cholecalciferol (D3 form) MOA
activated in liver and kidney to increase serum calcium and decrease PTH
75
cholecalciferol (D3 form) indications
osteoporosis prevention, rickets prevention, hyperparathyroidism, CKD
76
Alendronate, risedronate MOA
bisphosphonates bind hydroxyapatite crystal to inhibit osteoclast activity and attachment to bones, also decrease osteoclast survival by inhibiting farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase
77
Alendronate, risedronate adverse
GI, reflux, esophageal cancer, jawbone osteonecrosis
78
denosumab MOA
monoclonal antibody to RANKL to prevent osteoclast formation avoid if hypocalcemia
79
raloxifene MOA
SERM partial agonist at bone estrogen receptors to counteract menopausal bone loss decrease breast cancer risk causes clots and hot flashes
80
teriparatide MOA
PTH analogue that mimics anabolic PTH effects at low doses = activates osteoblasts
81
teriparatide adverse
high doses can be catabolic and activate osteoclasts | o Black box: osteosarcoma
82
abaloparatide MOA
less homology to PTH than teriparatide, PTHR1 receptor agonist primarily to be anabolic towards bone
83
abaloparatide adverse
hypercalciuria, kidney stones, osteosarcoma
84
calcitonin MOA
binds to osteoclasts to inhibit resorption and reduces Ca and PO4 resorption from kidney
85
calcitonin adverse
Hypocalcemia
86
NSAIDs
 MOA: Inhibits COX to decrease PG synthesis  Use: Indomethacin (first line)  Do not use: aspirin (may increase uric acid)  Adverse: marrow suppression (indo), GI, cardio, renal
87
colchicine
 MOA: inhibits tubulin to decrease mitosis, microtubules, phagocytosis  Adverse: GI upset, diarrhea, hepatic and renal necrosis
88
Allopurinol, febuxostat
xanthine oxidase inhibitors • MOA: metabolized by XO to alloxanthine that irreversibly inhibits XO • Adverse: GI (diarrhea), SJS-TENS, vasculitis • Dangerous drug interaction with azathioprine or mercaptopurine due to XO inhibition • Avoid with thiopurines, warfarin and aspirin
89
probenecid
uricosurics • MOA: organic acid that decreases body urate and thus decreases uric acid resorption • Adverse: kidney stones, GI, aplastic anemia
90
staph antibiotics
oxacillin, cefazolin
91
MRSA antibiotics
vanco or dapto
92
neisseria antibiotics
ceftriaxone
93
pseudomonas antibiotics
cephalosporin; carbapenem or fluoroquinolone + tobramycin