Pharm Final Flashcards

(89 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT an action of the body on a drug?

a- absorption
b-distribution
c-metabolism
d-excretion
e-adverse affects

A

e- adverse effects

(pharmacokinetics - body on drug= ADME)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The study of cost and benefits/detriments of drugs used clinically:

A

pharmacoeconomics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The study of drugs effects between individuals in a population and between populations:

A

pharmacoepidemiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What phase can be used for humans but is still in the post-marketing surveillance phase?

A

phase 4

(only phase with post-marketing surveilence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What phase is the investigative new drug phase?

A

after preclinical testing & before phase 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What phase is the new drug application?

A

after phase 3 and before phase 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of these drugs’ target interactions is an example of covalent bonding? (irreversible)

A

-aspirin & cycloxygenase
- proton pump & omeprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what determines the degree of movement of a drug between body compartments?

a- size
b- pH
c- degree of ionization
d-protein binding
e- all of the above

A

(distribution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Aspirin readily donates a proton in aqueous salutations and pyrimethamine readily accepts a proton in aqueous solution. Thus aspirin is a ____ and pyrimethamine is a ___.

A

acid; base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For a dose/response chart, what will you need to do to the dose if you add a competitive inhibitor?

A

increase dose to get same effect as agonist alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Following the agonist activation of a single GPCR, amplification of the downstream signal occurs because:

A

duration of activation of g-protein is long than agonist activation of receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What allows histamine to get a variety of different affects in different receptors?

A

the heterogeneity of the g-protein coupled receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What superfamily has a DNA binding domain?

A

nuclear receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What keeps the nuclear receptor ligands stable?

A

heat shock protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What receptor takes the longest and requires hours to days for an affect?

A

nuclear receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What receptors can be involved in rapid responses (seconds to minutes)

A

GPCR (beta adrenergic)

Ligand gated (nicotinic acetylcholine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acidic drugs bind primarily to which of the following plasma proteins?

A

albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Basic drugs bind primarily to which of the following plasma proteins?

A

alpha-1 glycoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cp= plasma concentration
our goal is to get a plasma concentration within a therapeutic window in order to elicit and appropriate response with out causing toxicity

parameters of this include:
1. clearance
2. volume of distribution
3. half life

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

determines the maintenance dose rate?

A

clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

determines the loading rate?

A

volume of distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

determines the time to reach steady state and dosing intervals?

A

half life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The free or unbound fraction of a drug is usually a portion that:

A

exerts a pharmacologic effect

(if protein binding is reduced, greater free drug concentration is available which may lead to increased drug activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If a drug is 80% bound to blood elements or plasma proteins, what part is considered the free form?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the average bioavailability of a drug following IV administration?
100%
26
What organ is responsible for metabolism in the FIRST pass effect?
liver
27
Which of the following would receive a drug slowly?
adipose
28
Bactrim is a 2C9 inhibitor and warfarin is a 2C9 substrate. what happens when the two are taken together?
increased warfarin effect
29
Pharmacokinetics is the effect of ____ and pharmacodynamics is the effect of the ____.
kinetics = body on drug dynamics= drug on body
30
Which of the following describes minimal effective concentration (MEC)
the minimal drug PLASMA concentration to produce an effect
31
Which of the following is NOT a pharmacokinetic process:
the drug causes dilation of coronary vessels
32
What refers to your body "tank"
volume of distribution (VD also determines the loading rate!)
33
For first order drug elimination, half-life is t1/2 is ____ at two places on the curve and a constant ____ is lost per unit time
equal; percentage
34
What happens to insulin once its bound to the receptor?
phosphate group to tyrosine kinase protein
35
Physiochemical properties of drugs-
racemic mixture regarding chirality
36
What is the equation for loading dose for an IV drug?
D= Vd x Css/ F Dry = Very Dry x Cause / Fuck
37
Which of the following drugs would likely need a loading dose to help reach therapeutic levels?
whichever drug has the greatest half life
38
Which of the following is the amount of drug absorbed per the amount administered?
bioavailability
39
The lipid soluble form of a base is ____ and the lipid soluble form of an acid is ____
unprotonated; protonated
40
What prohibited full FDA review of supplements and botanicals as drugs?
dietary supplemental health and education act
41
Who is in charge of safety regarding drug development?
Manufactureres
42
Paul ehrlich states that a drug will not work unless:
bound
43
What happens to the curve when naloxone is bound to morphine?
right shift
44
What superfamily receptor is a single trans-membrane spanning domain?
kinase linked and related receptors
45
What drug is used for patients with TNA-alpha to decrease symptoms?
infliximab
46
What does verapamil block?
calclium
47
T/F: The first order elimination of a drug half-life is constant
true
48
For a drug to be useful, what needs to occur?
must show a high degree of binding site specificity
49
What drug interaction still allows binding of the agents, but binds to the same receptor?
allosteric antagonist
50
HMG-CoA redutase inhibitors:
statins
51
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors do?
competitively inhibit rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis in the liver (lovastatin)
52
An anti-epileptic with cognitive impairment, gingival hyperplasia, and drug interaction of CYP450 3A4 enzyme induction?
phenytoin
53
Drugs that cause gingival hyperplasia include:
1. anticonvulscents 2. calcium channel blockers 3. cyclosporin (anti-fungal)
54
abtianginal medication that works by blocking beta adrenoreceptor
atenolol
55
What are three endogenous catecholamines?
1. epi 2. Norepi 3. dopi
56
Cardiac output is a function of:
SV x HR
57
Myocardial oxygen demand is determined by:
1. HR 2. myocardial contractility 3. myocardial wall stress
58
What is true of regarding the EXTRINSIC pathway of coagulation cascade?
results in formation of activated factor 7a
59
Which of the following is true regarding the INTRINSIC pathway?
all components are present in the blood
60
Predictable dose related reaction NOT part of the therapeutic effect?
side effect
61
Levofloxacin is 2C9 inhibitor and warfarin is a 2C9 substrate. What happens when both are taken?
Increased warfarin effect
62
What results from covalent modification and alteration of DNA?
mutagenesis
63
What will dissolve in H20?
must be ionized
64
T/F: Ionized drug more readily crosses the plasma membrane
false - small uncharged molecules
65
After FDA approval how long is left of patent life?
5-10 years
66
Beta 2 agonist for short term control in asthma:
albuterol
67
Vaughn Williams classification for potassium channel blocker?
class IV
68
What happens to EC50 when competitive agonist is added?
shift to right
69
What is a high intensity dose?
Rousuvastatin at 20 mg
70
What is a high intensity dose?
Atorvastatin (lipitor) 80 mg
71
What has the most perfusion?
central organs (heart brain liver kidney)
72
HDL should be:
greater than 60
73
LDL should be:
less than 100
74
What competitive inhibits conversion of plasminogen to plasmin by TPA?
tranexamic acid
75
Which drug is associated with anaphylactic shock?
PCN
76
Dries secretions and increases HR in nerve agent exposure?
atropine
77
Pt is using albuterol for asthma which medication nis most likely to result in pharmacodynamic interaction and negate use?
propranolol
78
Class of lipid lowering agents most potent lowering LDL cholesterol and also very expensive?
PCSK-9 inhibitors
79
Study of genetic basis of ADME and receptor target interaction?
pharmacogenomics
80
Study of drug effect at a population level?
parhamcoepidemiology
81
What enzyme is responsible for breaking down acetylcholine in serum?
aceytelcholineesterase
82
Clot that occurs in arterial circulation and consists of platelets:
white thormbus
83
Taking APAP with codeine, what effects can it have on other meds they take?
slowed absorption
84
What should be avoided in asthmatic patients?
1. Asprins 2. NSAIDs 3. Opiates 4. Barbituates 4. Antihistamine
85
Non-covalent type of interaction:
formation of hydrogen peroxide
86
Antianginal medications with gingival hyperplasia:
dilitazem
87
DIRECT thrombin inhibitor:
pradaxa
88
WHIch would you not expect with acute cholinergic toxicity?
dry mouth
89