Pharm (Gen Principles) Flashcards

1
Q

Alprostadil

A

a prostaglandin E1 analog used to maintain the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in congenital heart defects such as tetralogy of flow and pulmonary atresia; key effect of delivering blood to the lungs

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2
Q

Indomethacin

A

a NSAID that inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) and decreases prostaglandin formation; used to close the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) if remains open after birth

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3
Q

treatment for a gastrinoma

A

Octreotide (somatostatin) - inhibits gastrin release; high does PPI’s (omeprazole, lansoprazole, pantoprazole) or surgical excision

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4
Q

Octreotide

A

treatment for a gastrinoma; Zollinger-Ellison syndrome; gastrin secreting tumor; somatostatin analog; also used for bleeding varcies (slows blood flow); used in carcinoid syndrome (receptors are on most carcinoid tumors); acromegaly (inhibits GH)

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5
Q

Which antibiotic can be used to treat gastroparesis (as seen in diabetes) and why?

A

Erythromycin - because it binds to motilin receptors in the stomach, intestine and colon; promotes motility in the fasting state

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6
Q

Drug of choice for Ascites Tx

A

remove fluid from the body:
diet - sodium restriction

**Spironolactone - K+ sparing diuretic that blocks aldosterone at the distal tubule

large volume paracentesis

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7
Q

Infectious complication of ascites

A

Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP) - ascitic fluid infections; usually E. coli and Klebsiella (gram negatives); fever, abdominal pain, and increased PMNs; tx with Cefotaxime (3rd generation cephaloporins)

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8
Q

Penicillamine

A

copper chelator used in Wilson’s Disease; accumulation of copper due to ATP7B defect

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9
Q

Treatment for H. pylori

A

triple therapy:
PPI
Clarithromycin
Amoxicillin/Metronidazole

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10
Q

Antiacids

A

OTC use for GERD symptoms:
Sodium Bicarbonate
Calcium carbonate
Aluminum hydroxide
Magnesium hydroxide

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11
Q

Aluminum hydroxide

A

OTC use for GERD symptoms; no bloating to alkalosis (no C02 by product); can cause constipation (aluminum = decreased GI motor activity); bind phosphate in the gut (can be used in renal failure to lower P03 levels); can cause HYPOphosphatemia leading to muscle weakness; can cause aluminum toxicity in renal failure pt

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12
Q

Drugs at risk for poor absorption w/ the use of antiacids

A

**Tetracycline
Fluoroquinolones
Isonizid
Iron supplements

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13
Q

Histamine (H2) blockers

A

Fanotidine
Ranitidine
Nizatidine
Cimetidine

block H2 receptors on parietal cells; can cause **confusion (elderly - can block CNS receptors)

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14
Q

Cimetidine

A

one of the 1st histamine (H2) blocker; potent P450 inhibitor; anti-androgen: gynecomastia, impotence and PRL release; crosses BBB can cause confusion and headaches and reduces creatinine excretion

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15
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPI’s)

A

Omeprazole
Pantoprazole
Lansoprazole
Esomeprazole

inhibit H+/K+ pump on parietal cells; increased rates of **C. Diff infections (loss of protective barrier) and Pneumonia (more pathogens in upper resp); can lead to malabsorption (hypomagnesium, decreased Ca2+, B12 def, iron and vit C)

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16
Q

Bismuth Salicylate

A

Pepto-Bismol; coats ulcers/erosions; most effective in H. pylori ulcers; another use b/c salicylate inhibits PGEs and cane used in diarrheal illnesses; blackens the stool (can be confused w/ melena)

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17
Q

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

A

Kayexalate (trade name) an osmotic laxative that binds K+ in the gut, can also be used for hyperkalemia

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18
Q

Lactulose

A

an osmotic laxative that is a synthetic disaccharide also used in hyperammonemia (traps NH4 and is excreted in the stool)

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19
Q

Ondansetron

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonist used in vomiting; blocks 5-HT receptors found in vomiting center in the medulla; commonly used in pt receiving chemo; side effects of headache and constipation

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20
Q

Metoclopramide

A

Reglan; D2 receptor antagonist used in gastroparesis (diabetic gastroparesis); activated chemoreceptor trigger zone so has effect as anti-emetic as well and can be used w/ migraines; whenever you block dopamine watch for Parkinson-like symptoms (movement symptoms - fear consequence of long term use - tardive dyskinesia - irreversible); contraindicated in epilepsy (lowers seizure threshold), pts w/ Parkinson and also bowel obstructions (stimulates GI motility)

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21
Q

Isoniazid tx for latent TB infection

A

can be directly hepatotoxic causing acute mild dysfunction in pt and frank hepatitis (fever, anorexia and nausea)

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22
Q

Cephalosporin resistant organisms

A
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23
Q

Class III anti arrhythmic drugs

A

amiodarone, sotalol, dofetilide

predominately blocks K+ chs and inhibit the outward K+ currents during phase 3 prolonging repolarization and total AP duration

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24
Q

beta blocker withdrawal syndrome

A

prolonged beta blockers leads to up regulation of beta-adrenergic receptors and increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines, causing enhanced beta response on abrupt beta blocker cessation

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25
Q

Fenoldopam

A

selective peripheral dopamine-1 receptor agonist; causes vasodilation of systemic and renal arterioles to lower BP while also increasing renal perfusion, urine output and natriuresis; useful tx for HTN emergency in pts w renal insufficiency

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26
Q

Hydralazine

A

direct arteriolar vasodilator; often used in HTN emergency; associated w reflex sympathetic activation resulting in increased in HR and contractility

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27
Q

Phenylephrine

A

alpha-adrenergic agonist that causes an increase in SVR due to arterial vasoconstriction; used in pts w hypotension or shock and is contraindicated in HTN emergency

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28
Q

RAAS and anti-HTN agents

A
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29
Q

Chronic digitoxin toxicity

A

presents w nonspecific GI and neurological symptoms; changes in color vision are particularly associated w digoxin OD; life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias are the most serious complication

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30
Q

Fenofibrate therapy MOA

A

fibrates lower triglyceride levels by activating peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha, which leads to decreased hepatic VLDL production and increased lipoprotein lipase activity; fish oil supplements containing high concentrations of omega-3 FAs lower triglycerides by decreasing production of VLDL and apolipoprotein B

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31
Q

Statin induced myopathy

A

statin inhibit RLS via competitive inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase leads to enhanced hepatic LDL receptor recycling and increased LDL clearance from the circulation; statin-induced myopathy (elevated creatine kinase) is the most common complication

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32
Q

Statin induced myopathy

A

statin inhibit RLS via competitive inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase leads to enhanced hepatic LDL receptor recycling and increased LDL clearance from the circulation; statin-induced myopathy (elevated creatine kinase) is the most common complication but also watch for liver injury by checking LFT before initiating tx

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33
Q

Clonidine induced orthostatic syncope

A

an antiHTN agent stimulates central alpha-2adrenergic receptor causing a decrease in presynaptic release of NE and a decrease in sympathetic outflow; prevents normal baroreceptor-mediated increase in PVR and HR during standing which can cause orthostatic syncope

34
Q

Adverse effects of nitrates

A

used for relief of chronic stable angina; main side effects are headaches and cutaneous flushing along with lightheadedness and hypotension due to systemic vasodilation

35
Q

Niacin tx for hyperlipidemia

A

increases HDL levels and decreases LDL levels and triglycerides; niacin causes cutaneous flushing which is mediated by prostaglandins and can be diminished by pretreatment w aspirin

36
Q

Major side effects of amiodarone

A

class III anti-arrhythmic used in a-fib; 40% iodine by weight amIODarone can cause HYPOthyroidism due to decreased production of thyroid hormone; order serum TSH before starting a pt on this tx

37
Q

Digoxin

A

only cardiac glycoside approved for chronic HF; reversible inhibition of Na/K+ ATPase; K+ cannot enter (hyperkalemia) and Na+ can’t leave; increase in intracellular Na+ prevents Ca2+ from leaving the cell via Na+/Ca2+ exchanger; build up of Ca2+ leads to cardiac contractility and increased LV systolic fxn;

chronic digoxin use may cause “scooped” concave ST segments on ECG

presents w nonspecific GI and neurological symptoms; changes in color vision (xanthopsia - objects appearing yellow) are particularly associated w digoxin OD

38
Q

ACEi

A
39
Q

Dobutamine

A

beta adrenergic agonist w predominant activity on beta-1 receptors; causes increase in HR and cardiac contractility leading to an increase in myocardial O2 consumption

40
Q

Digoxin MOA

A

reversible inhibition of Na/K+ ATPase; K+ cannot enter (hyperkalemia) and Na+ can’t leave; increase in intracellular Na+ prevents Ca2+ from leaving the cell via Na+/Ca2+ exchanger; build up of Ca2+ leads to cardiac contractility and increased LV systolic fxn

41
Q

Side effects of statins

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) are muscle and liver toxicity; hepatic enzymes should be checked prior to initiating therapy and repeated if symptoms of hepatic injury occur

42
Q

Tx for beta blocker OD

A

should be treated w glucagon; increases HR and contractility independent of adrenergic receptors; activates the Gs,AC, cAMP pathway resulting in calcium release from intracellular stores and increased SA firing

43
Q

Dobutamine MOA

A

Beta 1 agonist; increased cAMP and intracellular [Ca2+] leading to increased myocardial contractility

44
Q

examples of tachyphylaxis

A

activation of adrenergic receptors in arrestin binding and receptor internalization; this effect is responsible for the tolerance effect seen w alpha-adrenergic (decongestants) and beta-adrenergic (bronchodilators) agonists

45
Q

effects of bisphosphonates

A

alendronate, risedronate

medication induced esophagitis is a common adverse effect of bisphosphonates; they are also associated w increased risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw and atypical femoral fractures

46
Q

pharmacokinetic differences between neonatal patients and adults

A

neonates have a higher proportion of body water compared to adults; this can result in lower [water-soluble drugs] if they are administered at the same weight-based dosage as given to adult pts

47
Q

Beers criteria

A

the Beer’s criteria identify drugs that should be used w caution in geriatric pts; common drugs to avoid include anticholinergics (1st-gen antihistamines - diphenhydramine)

48
Q

antiplatelet therapy

A

GI mucosal injury and bleeding are the most common side effects of aspirin; these are primarily due to COX-1 inhibition which results in impaired PGE-dependent GI mucosal defense and decreased platelet aggregation

49
Q

Drug allergy

A

drugs and their metabolites can act as happens that bind to a carrier protein to form antigens that generate an immunologic response; type 1 hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated and involves a sensitization phase and a repeat exposure phase; clinical manifestation include urticarial rash, wheezing, and anaphylaxis

50
Q

oral isosorbide dinitrate and sublingual nitroglycerin

A

nitrates used for immediate relief of angina and to prevent recurrent anginal episodes in pts with chronic stable angina; vasodilation of venous vessels (decreased preload and less work on the heart)

51
Q

serum drug levels and half life

A

the half-life of a drug is the time required to lower its concentration by 50%; vD refers to how well the drug distributes into tissues compared to plasma; the higher the vD the greater the drug distributes; drug concentration = drug dose/vD

52
Q

statin-associated myopathy

A

the risk of severe myopathy are increased when statins are given concurrently w vibrates (particularly gemfibrozil), which impair the hepatic clearance of statins and lead to excessive blood levels

53
Q

maintenance dose

A

clearance determines the dose rate required to maintain a given steady-state plasma concentration

54
Q

Amiodarone effects on digoxin

A

amiodarone increases digoxin blood levels via inhibition of P-glycoprotein transmembrane efflux transporters in the intestine to cause increased digoxin absorption, and in the kidneys to cause decreased digoxin excretion; therefore a dose reduction of digoxin is needed when coadministered w amiodarone

55
Q

causes of low volume of distribution (vD)

A

characteristics of a drug such as high molecular weight, high plasma protein binding, high charge and hydrophilicity tend to trap the drug in the plasma compartment resulting in a low vD (3-5L)

56
Q

chelation drug interactions

A

tetracyclines interact w polyvalent cations (Fe2+,Ca2+,Al3+, Mg2+) to form non absorbable chelate complexes in the GI tract; this can lead to significantly decreased drug absorption and therapeutic affect; fluoroquinolones and thyroxine are also susceptible to chelation

57
Q

log dose-response curves

A

the changes in the log dose-response curve for the effect of a reversible competitive antagonist added to a full agonist are:
1) a parallel shift to the R due to increase in the ED50
2) no change in the maximum effect (Emax)

*competitive = change ED50 = shift R; noncompetitive = change Emax = shift down

58
Q

Linezolid and serotonin syndrome

A

serotonin syndrome is characterized by a triad of autonomic instability, altered mental status, and neuromuscular irritability; it may develop when a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) antidepressant or a non-antidepressant with MAOI activity (linezolid) is combined w serotonin meds

59
Q

acetaminophen poisoning pathogenesis

A

excessive acetaminophen use causes toxicity through its metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine, which disrupts hepatocyte mitochondrial function and induces oxidative injury throughout the liver; the resulting hepatocellular liver injury markedly elevates ALT (>1000 U/L)

60
Q
A
61
Q

acetylation

A

isoniazid is metabolized by acetylation; the speed a pt is able to acetylate drugs depends on whether they are genetically “fast” or “slow” acetylators; the presence of fast and slow acetylators within the same population results in a bimodal distribution of the speed of isoniazid metabolism; slow acetylators are at increased risk of adverse side effects

62
Q

Folinic acid (leucovorin)

A

Folinic acid (leucovorin) can reverse the toxicity of methotrexate in the non-cancerous cells in the GI mucosa and bone marrow if administered in the appropriate times leucovorin serves as a reduced form of folic acid that does not require the action of dihydrofolate reductase (DHF reductase)

63
Q
A
64
Q

metformin clearance

A

metformin is excreted unchanged by the kidney; pts w significant renal insufficiency due to HF or CKD are at increased risk of toxicity (ex: lactic acidosis)

65
Q

limitations of drugs needed to pass the BBB

A

P-glycoprotein is an efflux pump found on brain capillary endothelial cells (BBB) that inhibits a wide range of substrates from entering the brain; inhibition of p-glycoprotein can improve drug delivery to the CNS

66
Q

mesna

A

hemorrhagic cystitis during therapy w cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide is caused by urinary excretion of the toxic metabolite acrolein; it can be prevented by aggressive hydration, bladder irrigation and admin of *mesna (a sulfhydryl compound that bonds acrolein in the urine)

67
Q

monoclonal antibody (mAbs) clearance

A

monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are not eliminated by hepatic or renal clearance; therefore, no dose adjustment is necessary w impaired hepatic/renal function or use of cytochrome P450 inducers or inhibitors

68
Q

chronic opioid therapy

A

leads to development of acquired pharmacodynamic tolerance via downregulation and decreased responsiveness of opioid receptor systems

69
Q

cytochrome P450 polymorphism

A

cytochrome P450 enzymes found in the liver are responsible for the majority of drug metabolism; polymorphism occurring in the genes coding for these enzymes result in various phenotypes that differ in their rates of metabolism; individual differences in phenotype alter tx efficacy and drug toxicity

70
Q

anesthetic multi-compartment drug metabolism

A

following IV admin, a highly lipophilic drug will be rapidly distributed to organs w high blood flow (ex: brain, liver, kidneys, lungs); the drug is then redistributed to tissues w relatively lower blood flow (ex: skeletal muscle, fat, bone); this accounts for the short duration of action of many commonly used anesthetics such as propofol

71
Q

dose-response curves interpretation

A

efficacy is a measurement of the maximum pharmacodynamic effect achievable w a drug; potency refers to the dose of drug that is required to produce a given effect; drugs that bind their receptors w a higher affinity or are better able to gain access to their target tissues will have greater potency (lower ED50)

72
Q

antiemetic drugs

A
73
Q

zero-order and first-order kinetics

A

1st-order kinetics, a constant fraction of drug is metabolized per unit of time, so the amount metabolized changes based on the serum concentration; in zero-order kinetics, a constant amount of drug is metabolized per unit of time, independent of serum levels

74
Q

physostigmine

A

a cholinesterase inhibitor w a tertiary ammonium structure that can reverse both the central and peripheral nervous system symptoms of anticholinergic toxicity

75
Q

antibody-drug conjugates

A

antibody-drug conjugates improve drug efficacy and minimize toxicity by allowing conventional chemotherapeutic agents to selectively target and kill cancer cells while sparing healthy cells (targeted delivery)

76
Q

tx of toxoplasmosis

A

congenital toxoplasmosis is tx w sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine; these medications work synergistically to inhibit formation of THF a necessary cofactor in purine nucleotide synthesis

77
Q

rifampin moa in TB tx

A

inhibit bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; decreases RNA production; also turns bodily fluids orange

78
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

drug used in myasthenia gravis; inhibits acetylcholinesterase (Ache) enzymes from breaking down the ACh

79
Q

TB Drugs

A

“RIPE ONGO”
Rifampin - Orange secretions
Isoniazide - Neuropathy
Pyrazinamide - Gout
Ethambutol - Optic neuritis

80
Q

Ethambutol

A

can cause optic neuropathy that results in color blindness, central scotoma, and decreased visual acuity; this adverse side effect may be reversed w discontinuation of the drug