Pharm Need to know Flashcards

Question

-operidol

Answer 1

Neuroleptic Haloperidol Droperidol

Answer 2

Methylxanthine Theophylline Aminophylline

Answer 3

ACE inhibitor Enalapril Lisinopril

Answer 4

Prostaglandin analog Latanoprost Travoprost Tx glaucoma

Answer 5

Angiotensin receptor blocker Losartan Valsartan

Answer 6

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor Atorvastatin Simvastatin

Answer 7

Anticholinesterase Neostigmine Physostigmine Rivastigmine (Alz dis)

Answer 8

Beta 2 agonist Albuterol Salmeterol

Answer 9

H2 histamine antagonist Cimetidine Ranitidine

Answer 10

5-HT 1B/1D agonist Sumatriptan Rizatriptan Migranes

Answer 11

TCA Amitriptyline Nortriptyline

Answer 12

Pituitary hormone Somatotropin Thyrotropin (TSH)

Answer 13

alpha1-antagonist Prazosin Doxazosin

Answer 14

- azepam | - azolam

Answer 15

-bendazole

Answer 16

- curium | - curonium

Answer 17

- ipramine | - triptyline

Answer 18

-glitazone

Answer 19

Acetazolamide Diuretic Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase Decrease aqueous humor PCT Acidosis

Answer 20

NSAIDS - Ibuprofen, naproxen Acetaminophen

Answer 21

Triptans - Sumatriptan - Rizatriptan - Zolmitriptan Serotonin agonist Causes vasoconstriction Modulates neurotransmission in trigeminal n. Contraindications: CAD Prinzmetal angina Pregnancy

Answer 22

Triptans - Sumatriptan - Rizatriptan - Zolmitriptan

Answer 23

100% O2 Triptans NSAID

Answer 24

Cholinesterase inhibitors - Donepezil - Galantamine - Rivastigmine NMDA receptor antagonist (Glutamate receptor type) - Memantine

Answer 25

Benzo | Anticholinergics

Answer 26

Increased ACh | Tx: Atropine (block muscarinic receptor Pralidoxime reactivate acetylcholinesterase)

Answer 27

Indirect cholinergic agonist Thymectomy

Answer 28

Grandma doesnt remember Galantamine Donepezil Rivastigmine AChE inhibitors

Answer 29

Direct 1) Bethanechol- Post op ileus, urinary retention 2) Carbachol- glaucoma 3) Pilocarpine- sweat, tears saliva 4) Methacholine- asthma Indirect 1) Neostigmine- post op ileus, urinary retention, MG 2) Pyridostigmine- MG long term 3) Edrophonium- MG diagnosis 4) Physostigmine- Atropine toxicity 5) Echothiophate- Glaucoma 6) Donepezil- Alz dis

Answer 30

1) Atropine- bradycardia, organophophate poisoning 2) Homotropine, tropicamide, cyclophentolate - pupil dilation 3) Benztropine- parkinson dis, tx effects of antipsychotics 4) Glycopyrrolate- reduce salivary, tracheobronchial, pharyngeal secretions, decrease gastric acid 5) Hyocyamine, dicyclomine- antispasmodics for IBS 6) Scopolamine- motion sickness 7) Ipratropium, tiotropium- asthma, copd 8) oxybutynin- decrease overreactive bladder

Answer 31

Muscarinic antagonist Homotropine Tropicomide Cyclophentolate

Answer 32

Glycopyrrolate

Answer 33

Hyocyamine | Dicyclomine

Answer 34

Off the Damn Toilet seat ``` Oxybutyin Tolterodine Darifenacin Trospium Solifenacin ```

Answer 35

BPH Hyperthermia Acute angle glaucoma* Elderly- delirum

Answer 36

Amphetamines- release stored Ephedrine- release stored Cocaine- inhibit reuptake

Answer 37

``` Clonidine: Alpha 2 Dopamine: All Phenylephrine: A1>A2 Albuterol: B2>B1 NE: A1, A2 B1 Isoproterenol: B1, B2 Epinephrine: All Dobutamine: B1>B2 Terbutaline: B2 >B1 ```

Answer 38

Epinephrine

Answer 39

Dobutamine

Answer 40

Phenylephrine

Answer 41

Albuterol, levalbuterol, salmeterol

Answer 42

Terbutaline

Answer 43

Terbutaline

Answer 44

Prazosin Doxazosin Terazosin Decrease BP, relax bladder sphincter TX: BPH

Answer 45

Tamsulosin Tx: BPH, just in prostate wont lower BP

Answer 46

Phenoxybenzamine - irreversibly bind alpha 1 Phentolamine - diagnosis and temporary tx phenochromocytoma Adverse effect - orthostatic hypotension - reflex tachycardia

Answer 47

Propranolol Timolol Nadolol

Answer 48

Metoprolol Atenolol Esmolol

Answer 49

Acebutolol Pindolol HTN Bradycardia

Answer 50

Carvedilol | Labetalol

Answer 51

Beta blockers

Answer 52

Clonidine Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist

Answer 53

Alpha-methyldopa Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist

Answer 54

Alpha-antagonist Phentolamine Phenoxybenzoamine

Answer 55

Tamsulosin

Answer 56

Hemicholinium

Answer 57

Metyrosine

Answer 58

Guanethidine | Bretylium

Answer 59

Amphetamine Ephedrine Tyramine

Answer 60

Cocaine TCA SNRI

Answer 61

Some Drugs With Low Therapeutic index ``` Seizure drugs Digoxin Warfarin Lithium Theophylline ```

Answer 62

Cracked Amigos ``` Ciprofloxacin Ritonavir Amiodarone Cimetidine Ketoconazole Acute alcohol Macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin) Isonazid Grape fruit juice Sulfonamides ```

Answer 63

Guinness, Coronas, PBRs Induce Chronic alcoholism ``` Griseofulvin Carbamazepine Barbiturates Rifampin St. John's wort Chronic alcoholism ```

Answer 64

Fomepizole

Answer 65

Disulfiram

Answer 66

Phenytoin Ethanol Aspirin "PEA"

Answer 67

Vancomycin (Red man syn) Niacin Adenosine Dihydropyridine Ca channel blockers

Answer 68

Inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase

Answer 69

Cocaine Amphetamines Triptans Ergotamine

Answer 70

Doxorubicin | Daunorubicin

Answer 71

``` Potassium channel blockers Sodium channel blockers Macrolides Haloperidol Chloroquine Protease inhibitors ```

Answer 72

Inhibit Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

Answer 73

Heparin | Cimetidine

Answer 74

Drugs Can Cause Pretty Major Collapse of Granulocytes Clozapine Carbamazepine Colchicine Propylthiouracil Methimazole Ganciclovir Dapsone

Answer 75

Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly ``` Carbamazepine Methimazole NSAIDs Benzene Chloramphenicol Propylthiouracil ```

Answer 76

Chloramphenicol

Answer 77

Hemolysis IS D PAIN ``` Isoniazid Sulfonamides Dapsone Primaquine Aspirin Ibuprofin Nitrofurantoin ```

Answer 78

Oral contraceptives

Answer 79

Amiodarone Bleomycin Busfulan

Answer 80

ACE inhibitors

Answer 81

Clindamycin Amoxicillin Ampicillin

Answer 82

Halothane Acetaminophen Valproic acid

Answer 83

STACKED ``` Spironolactone THC Alcohol Cimetidine Ketoconazole Estrogens Digoxin ```

Answer 84

Tamoxifen | Clomiphene

Answer 85

Amiodarone LIthium Sulfonamides

Answer 86

Phenytoin Verapamil (Cyclosporin)

Answer 87

``` Corticosteriods Heparin Bisphosphonates SERM- raloxifene (decrease vertebral factures) Teriparatide (recombinat PTH) Denosumab (RankL inhibitor) ```

Answer 88

Sulfonamides Amiodarone Tetracycline SAT

Answer 89

CLAPPPERS ``` Carbamazepine Lamotrigine Allopurinol Phenytoin Phenobarbital Penicillin Ethosuximide RASH Sulfa drugs ```

Answer 90

``` SHIPP Sulfonamides Hydralazine Isoniazid Procainamide Phenytoin ```

Answer 91

NSAIDs Furosemide Antibiotics

Answer 92

Lithium | Demeclocycline

Answer 93

Cyclophosphamide | Ifosfamide

Answer 94

Metoclopramide Antipsychotics Reserpine

Answer 95

Dizziness w/ HA, vision changes, tinnitus Quinidine Quinine

Answer 96

``` Bupropion Imipenem/ cilastatin Isoniazid Tramadol Metoclopramide Benzodiazepine ```

Answer 97

Antipsychotics | Metoclopramide

Answer 98

Disulfram like Meds Cause Flush Skin and Green Puke ``` Metronidazole Certain cephalosporins First generation sulfonyureas - Chlorpropamide, tolbutamide Griseofulvin Procarbazine ```

Answer 99

Aminoglycosides Cisplatin Polymixins

Answer 100

Aminoglycosides Vancomycin Loop diuretics Cisplatin

Answer 101

Absence of sweating, flushing, mydraiasis, lack of salivation, delirum, constipation, urinary retention, tachycardia ``` Atropine TCA -Amitriptyline H1 blockers -Diphenhydramine -Hydroxyzine Low potency neuroleptics - Thioridazine - Chlorpramazine Amantidine (anti influenza) ```

Answer 102

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Answer 103

Torsades de pointes

Answer 104

Agranulocytosis

Answer 105

Gray Baby syndrome

Answer 106

Thrombocytopenia

Answer 107

Pulmonary Fibrosis

Answer 108

Gynecomastia

Answer 109

Pseudomembranous colitis

Answer 110

Hypothyroidism

Answer 111

Hepatic Necrosis

Answer 112

Photosensitivity

Answer 113

Cinchonism

Answer 114

Gingival hyperplasia

Answer 115

Drug-induced lupus

Answer 116

Tendonitis

Answer 117

Steven-Johnson Syn

Answer 118

Doxorubicin | Daunorubicin

Answer 119

N-acetylcysteine

Answer 120

Sodium bicarb | Dialysis

Answer 121

Ammonium chloride

Answer 122

Atropine | Pralidoxine

Answer 123

Physostigmine

Answer 124

Normalize K and Mg Atropine Anti-digoxin Ab fragments

Answer 125

Deferoxamine

Answer 126

EDTA Succimer Dimercaprol

Answer 127

Dimercaprol | Succimer

Answer 128

Pencillamine

Answer 129

Nitrates Hydroxocobalamin Thiosulfate

Answer 130

Methylene blue, | Vit C

Answer 131

100% oxygen

Answer 132

Fomepizole Ethanol Dialysis

Answer 133

Naloxone | Naltrexone

Answer 134

Flumazenil

Answer 135

Sodium bicarb

Answer 136

Vit K | Fresh frozen plasma

Answer 137

Aminocaproic acid

Answer 138

Beta blocker

Answer 139

Acetaminophen toxin

Answer 140

Antimuscarinic anticholinergic events

Answer 141

Anticholinesterases, organophosphates toxin

Answer 142

Iron poisoning

Answer 143

Lead poisoning

Answer 144

Copper, arsenic gold

Answer 145

benzodiazepines

Answer 146

Indomethacin Blocks prostaglandin syn

Answer 147

Ventricular septal defect

Answer 148

Atrail septal defect

Answer 149

Patent ductus arteriosus

Answer 150

``` ACE inhibitors ARBs Aldosterone antagonist Certain beta blockers (Metoprolol, carvediolol, bisoprolol) Nitrates w/ hydralazine (African Americans) ```

Answer 151

Diuretics DIgoxin Vasodilators

Answer 152

Digoxin toxicity

Answer 153

NO LIP Nitrate Oxygen Loop diuretics Inotropic Position

Answer 154

1A Double Quarter Pounder - Disopyramide - Quinidine - Procainamide 1B Mayo, Lettuce, Tomato - Mexiletine - Lidocaine - Tocainide 1C Fries please Flecainide Propafenone

Answer 155

Ivabradine Decrease SA node firing Chronic stable angina in patients who cannot take beta blockers Luminous phenomena - Overly bright vision

Answer 156

Sotalol | Amiodarone

Answer 157

Adenosine Increases K efflux hyperpolarizing the cell and decrease Ca Prevents depolarization

Answer 158

Phenoxybenzamine | Phentolamine

Answer 159

Renal cell carcinoma Thyroid cancer Blastic= prostate Both - Breast and lung

Answer 160

Neostigmine - MG - Reverse anesthesia - Post op urinary retention Physostigmine - Anticholinergic poisoning (atropine) Pyridostigmine - Reverse anesthesia - MG Rivastigmine - Alz disease

Answer 161

Flumazenil

Answer 162

TNF alpha inhibitor Prevent activation of immune system ``` Etanercept Inflixumab Adalimumab Golimumab Certolizumab ```

Answer 163

Conjunctivitis Urethritis Arthritis Cant see Cant pee Cant climb a tree

Answer 164

Dopamine: Shock Clonidine: HTN Amphetamine: ADHD, WL, Obesity, narcolepsy Terbutaline: Asthma, tocolysis Epinephrine: anaphylactic shock

Answer 165

1) Hyperkeratosis - Vit A analong (retinoic acid) - Tretinoin - Isotretinoin 2) Sebum overproduction - Isotretinoin - Spironolactone - OCPs 3) Propionibacterium acnes proliferation - Erythromycin, Clindamycin - Tetracycline, Doxycycline, Minocycline - Benzoyl peroxide 4) Inflammation - Steroids

Answer 166

Interact w/ transpeptidase and inhibit peptidoglycan cell wall synthesis

Answer 167

Fluoroquinolones

Answer 168

Aminoglycosides

Answer 169

Amantadine Also inhibits viral release through interactions iwth the viral M2 protein No longer used due to resistance

Answer 170

Ribavirin inhibits viral RAN polymerase activity adn rRNA fragment initiation adn elongation leadign to viral protein synthesis inhibition Used in Chronic Hep C infections and respiratory syncytial virus infection

Answer 171

Lamivudine emtricitabine Tx HIV

Answer 172

``` Aminoglycosides Vancomycin loop diuretics Cisplatin Amphotericin B ```

Answer 173

Cancer drug Inhibits topoisomerse II Myelosuppression Alopecia

Answer 174

Amiodarone Bleomycin Methotrexate

Answer 175

Prostaglandin E1 analog Prevent or treat NSAID induced gastritis of peptic ulcer disease

Answer 176

Efflux pumps

Answer 177

Tetracyclines (Doxycycline) | Aminoglycosides (Streptomycin)

Answer 178

``` Chloramphenicol Clindamycin Macrolides (erythromycin) LInezolid Linocmycin Streptogramins ```

Answer 179

Infliximab | Etanercept

Answer 180

Ethosuximide Decreases the calcium current in thalamic neurons

Answer 181

Bisphosphonates

Answer 182

Raloxifene

Answer 183

Teriparatide Dont use more than 2 years Pulsitale

Answer 184

Denosumab Inhibits osteoclast activity

Answer 185

``` Pulmonary fibrosis Hepatotoxicity Hypo/hyper thyroidism Corneal deposits Photosensitivity Neurologic defect Constipation ```

Answer 186

Flumazenil

Answer 187

Liver problems and hepatic necrosis NAPQ1 depletes glutathione Build up NAPQ1 N-acetylcysteine regenerates glutathione

Answer 188

Acute renal failure

Answer 189

Acute - NSAIDS - Steroids - Cox 2 inhibitor (celecoxib) Chronic - DMARDS (Methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, sulfasalazine, TNF-alpha inhibitors [imab, umab])

Answer 190

blocks prostaglandin synthesis Constricts renal vessels Decrease renal blood flow

Answer 191

``` Etanercept Inflixumab Adalimumab Golimumab Certolizumab ```

Answer 192

1) COPD, asthma 2) Pupil dilation 3) Parkinson dis 4) Motion sickness

Answer 193

Steroids NSAIDs Hydroxychloroquine Cyclophosphamide

Answer 194

``` Sulfonamides Hydralazine Isoniazid Phenytoin Procainamide ```

Answer 195

FDA approved: pregabalin, milnacipran Amitriptyline, not FDA approved

Answer 196

Prednisone

Answer 197

1) Dopamine: Shock 2) Clonidine: HTN 3) Amphetamine: ADHD, WL, obesity, narcolepsy 4) Terbutaline: asthma, tocolysis 4) Epinephrine: anaphylactic shock

Answer 198

Calcineurin inhibitors - prevents IL-2 Transcription Atopic dermatitis tx

Answer 199

5-Fluorouracil | Cryoablation

Answer 200

Phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors Sildanafil Tadalafil

Answer 201

- operidol: neuroleptic - phylline: Methylxanthines - terol: beta2 agonist - triptyline: TCA - zosin: Alpha 1 antagonist - phenothiazines

Answer 202

Spironolactone inhibits steroid binding Can cause gyncomastia and amenorrhea

Answer 203

Tx: Fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin), TMP-SMX

Answer 204

Nonselective alpha 1 blockers: doxazosin, prazosin, terazosin Selective alpha 1 A,D blocker - tamsulosin - no hypotension side effect 5alpha reductase inhibitors - finasteride, dutasteride

Answer 205

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor ``` Flushing HA Dyspepsia Impaired blue/green color vision Life threatening hypotension (w/ nitrates) ```

Answer 206

``` Griseofulvin Carbamezpine Phenytoin Barbiturates Rifampin St. Johns wart Chronic alcoholism ```

Answer 207

hepatic adenoma (tumors of liver)

Answer 208

Some Drugs With Low Therapeutic index ``` Seizure drugs Digoxin Warfarin Lithium Theophylline ```

Answer 209

Broad spectrum Ab Post partum - Gentamicin + clindamycin

Answer 210

OCPs Progestins Leuprolide - continous GnRH agonist Danazol - synthetic androgen - partial agonist at androgen receptor --> inhibits release FSH and LH via negative feedback

Answer 211

- synthetic androgen - partial agonist at androgen receptor --> inhibits release FSH and LH via negative feedback ``` Acne Hirsutism Deepening of voice WG Decrease HDL Hepatotoxicity Hot flashes ```

Answer 212

Leuprolide

Answer 213

GnRH analog Downregulation GnRH receptor --> decrease release FSH, LH and estrogen Hypogonadotrophic state ``` Amenorrhea Hot flashes Decreased libido Depression Bone loss** ``` Endometriosis Leiomyomas Advanced prostate cancer Infertility

Answer 214

``` OCPs Cyclic progestins Spironolactone (diuretic) Metformin (Type 2 DM) Clomiphene (ovulation induction) ```

Answer 215

``` Tx of infertility due to anovulation SERM Agonist/ antagonist depending on tissue Binds estrogen receptors Blocks negative feedback Increase FSH and LH ``` Hot flashes Ovarian enlargement Multiple gestations Visual disturbances

Answer 216

Methyldopa (central acting Alpha 2 agonist) Labetalol: alpha beta blocker Amlodipine: Ca channel blocker Nifedipine Hydralazine

Answer 217

Rapid acting antihypertensives Hydralazine labetalol Nifedipine Magnesium sulfate

Answer 218

Selective beta agonist Asthma and tocolysis AE: tachycardia, hypotension, pulmonary edema

Answer 219

Prostaglandin drugs Misoprostol - Prostaglandin E1 Dinoprostone - Prostaglandin E2

Answer 220

Mifepristone (RU-486) Competitive antagonist at progesterone receptor

Answer 221

Mifepristone: competitive antagonist at progesterone receptor Terbutaline: B2 selective agonist, uterine contraction

Answer 222

N-acetylcysteine | Antibiotics ( fluoroquinolones)

Answer 223

SERMS Tamoxifen, raloxifene bind estrogen receptors

Answer 224

Estrogen antagonist in breast Estrogen agonist in endometrial tissue - increase risk endometrial cancer

Answer 225

Estrogen agonist in bone Estrogen antagonist in breast Doesnt not increase risk of endometrial cancer

Answer 226

Aromatase inhibitor Post menopausal women w/ breast cancer Increase risk of osteoporosis and fracture

Answer 227

Infertility Estrogen receptor antagonist int he hypothalamus Limits normal feedback inhbition. Induces FSH secretion adn stimulates follicles

Answer 228

Bromocriptine

Answer 229

Tx - Metronidazole - Oral vancomycin - Fidxomicin (recurrent)

Answer 230

Erythromycin or penicillin Antitoxin Vaccinate

Answer 231

Ceftriaxone | Azithromycin

Answer 232

Prophylaxis - Rifampin - Ciprofloxacin - Ceftriaxone Tx - Cefotaxime - Ceftriaxone

Answer 233

Macrolides | Fluoroquinole

Answer 234

Oral: fluoroquinolones - Ciprofloxacin Levofloxacin ``` Ticardillin Pipercillin Cefepime ceftazidime Carbapenems - impenem - meropenem ```

Answer 235

``` Tx: Triple therapy - PPI - Clarithromycin - Amoxicillin or metronidazole ``` Quadruple therapy - PPI - Bismuth - Metronidazole - Tetracycline

Answer 236

Shigella (bloody) - Fluroquinolones - TMP-SMX - Azithromycin (macrolide) Salmonella (bloody) - Fluroquinoles - ceftriaxone Camppylobacter jejuni (bloody) - Supportive - Fluroquinoles - Azithromycin Yersinia enterocolitica (bloody) - Supportive - Fluroquinoles - TMP-SMX Vibero cholerae - rehydration

Answer 237

Question mark shaped Rodent urine Pencillin Ceftriaxone Doxycycline

Answer 238

Tx Doxycycline (early stage) Amoxicilin (children <8) Doxycycline or Ceftriaxone (late)

Answer 239

Penicillin G | allergy:doxycycline

Answer 240

B blocker can lead to severe hypotension from: unopposed alpha 1 activation blockade of beta 2 vasodilaiton

Answer 241

RIPE ``` 2 months Rifampin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol ``` 4 months Rifampin Isoniazid

Answer 242

Azithromycin Given once weekly Beginning when CD4 < 50

Answer 243

Tb tx RNA polymerase inhibitor Revs up cytochrome P450 Red orange body fluids Rapid Resistance used alone Hepatotoxicity

Answer 244

Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids Hepatotoxicity Peripheral neuropathy Give w/ B6

Answer 245

Inhibits arabinosyl transferase Imparied cellw all synthesis Optic neuropathy Color blindness Decreased visual acuity

Answer 246

Tuberculoid disease - Dapsone + rifampin (12 months) Lepromatous disease - Dapsone + rifampin + cloflazimine (24 months)

Answer 247

Leprosy Penumocystis jirovecii pneumonia Hemolysis in G6PD deficiency

Answer 248

"Spleen Purges Nasty Inclusions From Damaged Cells" ``` Sulfonamides Primaquine Nitrofurantoin Isoniazid Fava beans Dapsone Chloroquine ```

Answer 249

Oral metronidazole | Metronidazole cream

Answer 250

Doxycycline

Answer 251

Azithromycin

Answer 252

Azithromycin

Answer 253

Doxycyline or azithromycin for atypical pneumoniae (Macrolide or Tetracyclines)

Answer 254

Increase K efflux Hyperpolarization of cells Decrease intracellular Ca

Answer 255

I'm Supposed to cycle past tacos sir but my appetitie ``` Immuno Suppressant Cyclosporine Pimecrolimus Tacrolimus Sirlimus Basiliximab Mycophenolate mofetil Azathioprine ```

Answer 256

Binds cyclophilins Inhibits calcineurin Prevents IL-2 production Nephrotoxicity HTN

Answer 257

FK506 Binds FK binding protein Inhibits calcineurin Prevents IL-2 production ``` Nephrotoxicity HTN Neurotoxicity - HA - Paresthesias ```

Answer 258

aka rapamycin Binds FK protein 12 Inhibits mTOR Inhibits T cell proliferation and response to IL-2 Not nephrotoxic

Answer 259

Precursor of 6-mercaptopruine (cancer drug) Interferes w/ nucleic acid synthesis Bone marrow suppression Metabolized by xanthine oxidase (toxic effects increased by allopurinol)

Answer 260

Infliximab Adalimumab Seronegative spondolopathy RA

Answer 261

Etanercept

Answer 262

Rituximab Induces complement to lyse B cell Non-hodgkin lymphoma

Answer 263

Omalizumab Severe asthma patient

Answer 264

Abciximab Used on patients who recently has angioplasty and stenting of cardiac vessels Unstable angina or MI

Answer 265

Trastuzumab Breast cancer taht express HER2

Answer 266

Aldesleukin Stimulates T cells Used to tx renal cell carcinoma Metastatic melanoma

Answer 267

"grastim" Filgrastim Sargramostim

Answer 268

Oprelvekin Tx thrombocytopenia

Answer 269

MS Chronic granulomatous disease

Answer 270

Inhibits inosine monophosphate (IMP) dehydrogenase Inhibits guanine synthesis Prevents lymphocyte proliferation

Answer 271

Suppresses TNF-alpha production Increases NK cells and IL-2 Erythema nodosum leprosum ((hansen disease) Multiple myeloma Phocomelia

Answer 272

Carbamazepine or anticonvulsant (phenytoin, gabapentin, topiramate)

Answer 273

Ethosuximide

Answer 274

Benzodiaepines (diazepam or lorazepam) increase GABA Concurrently admistered w/ phenytoin (Na channel blocker)

Answer 275

Magnesium sulfate fails: benzo

Answer 276

Phenytoin Has Given MDs Frustration ``` Peripheral neuropathy Hirsutism Gingival hyperplasia Megaloblastic anemia due to decrease folate absorption Drug induced lupus Steven johnson Fetal hydantoin syndrome ```

Answer 277

Phenytoin Carbamazepine Valproic acid

Answer 278

Steve Jobs made APPLE PCS" ``` Allopurinol Pheytoin Phenobarbital Lamotrigine Ethosuximide ``` Penicillin Carbamazepine Sulfonamide

Answer 279

``` Carbamazepine Clozapine Colchicine Propyltiouracil (PTU) Methimazole ```

Answer 280

Valproic acid | Carbamazepine

Answer 281

Sturge-Weber syndrome CNV1 or V2 Overabundance of capillaries Vascular malformation Mutation of GNAQ gene Not inheriteid

Answer 282

Beta blocker (propranolol) Primidone (anticonvulsant) CLonazepam

Answer 283

Levodopa Not all makes into CNS - HTN arrhythmias - Hallucinations - Tolerance Given w/ Carbidopa - Inhibits DOPA in periphery - Inhibits conversion of levodopa in periphery - reduce side effects - Doesnt effect anxiety and agitation

Answer 284

PBR Always Last Can, Everyone Takes Real Smooth Beer Pramipexole Bromocriptine Ropinirole Amantadine Levodopa Carbidopa Entacapone Tolcapone Rasagiline Selegine Benztropine (antimuscarinic)

Answer 285

Bromocriptine (ergot) - vasoconstrictor Pramipexole Ropinirole

Answer 286

Increase dopamine release and inhibit reuptake

Answer 287

Selegiline, rasagiline Inhibit dopamine breakdown MPTP exposure **

Answer 288

Tolcapone Entacapone Decreasing peripheral levodopa degradation

Answer 289

Tetrabenazine - blocks dopamine release ``` Neuroleptics - Olanzapine - Haloperidol Antagonist to dopamine Tx chorea and psychosis ```

Answer 290

Dantrolene Prevents release of Ca from SR Muscle relaxation Malignant hyperthermia

Answer 291

Baclofen - Activates GABA-B at SC - Induce relaxation Cyclobenzaprine - Centrally acting - Anticholinergic effects Metaxalone Carisoprodol - Centrally acting - addictive

Answer 292

Topical corticosteriods (diflorasone) Vit D analogs (Calcipotriene, calcitriol) Inhibition of T cell and keratinocyte proliferation

Answer 293

Femoral neuropathy Sensory loss over anterior and medial thigh

Answer 294

Vancomycin

Answer 295

Tetracycline

Answer 296

selective alpha 1 adrenegic receptor agonist Arterial vasoconstriction

Answer 297

Nonselective beta agonist Decreased peripheral vascular resistance and bp Increased cardiac rate Rarely used

Answer 298

Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist Decreases BP by decreasing central sympathetic outflow ``` CNS depression Bradycardia hypotension Respiratory depression Miosis Rebound HTN w/ abrupt cessation ```

Answer 299

1) ACE inhbitors and ARBs - renal failure and oligohydramnios 2) Aminoglycosides - Ototoxicity 3) FLuoroquinoles - Cartilage damage 4) Tetracyclines - discolored teeth 5) Cyclophosphamide - ear/facail anomalies, limb hypoplasia, absence of digits 6) Methotrexate - Neural tube defects, abortion 7) Carbamazepine - neural tube defects 8) valproic acid - neural tube defects 9) phenytoin - fetal hydantoin syndrome 10) Lithium - Ebstein anomaly 11) Statins - CNS and limb abnromaltiies 12 ) warfarin - bone/ cartilage defects, nasal hypoplasia 13) Isotretinoin - spontaneous abortion, birth defects 14) DES - clear cell vaginal adenocarcinoma 15) Thalidomide - Phocomelia

Answer 300

Vincristine: block polymerization, prevent growing Vinblastine: block polymerization, prevent growing Taxanes: hypersensitize the microtuble, can grow but breask down Benzimidazoles Griseofulvin: antifungal Colchicine: anti-inflammatory gout

Answer 301

Cardiac glycoside inhibits Na/K ATPase - indirect inhibition of Na/Ca exchanger - Increase Ca --> positive inotropy (force of contraction) --> decrease HR HF (to increase contractility) Afib (decrease conduction at AV node) Blurry yellow vision Hyperkalemia

Answer 302

Zileuton Prevents production of Leukotrienes

Answer 303

Zafirlukast | Montelukast (approved for young)

Answer 304

Glucocorticoids: phospholipase A2 Zileuton: 5- lipoxygenase Zafirlukast & montelukast: inhibit leukotriene receptors NSAID, Acetaminophen, ASA, celecoxib: cycloxygenase

Answer 305

Infliximab Blocks TNF-alpha

Answer 306

Nimodipine | dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

Answer 307

1) Neostigmine - Neurogenic ileus - NMJ blockade reversal - MG 2) Pyridostigmine - MG 3) Edrophonium - MG (diagnosis) 4) Physostigmine - Atropine overdose 5) Echothiophate - Glaucoma 6) Donepezil - Alzheimer disease 7) Galantamine - Alzheimer disease 8) Rivastigmine - Alzheimer disease

Answer 308

Lowers intraocular pressure Eye drops 1) Timolol (beta 2 blocker) (decrease synthesis) 2) Apraclonidine (alpha agonist) (decrease aqueous humor synthesis) Increase outflow of aqueous humor 1) prostaglandins 2) Acetazolamine (diuretic- proximal tubule)(decrease aqueous humor, inhibit carbonic anhydriase) 3) Mannitol (osmotic diuretic, proximal tubule) 4) Pilocarpine (cholinergic agonist) First line tx: prostaglandins and beta blockers drops

Answer 309

Macular degeneration Neovascularization in choroid Fragile new vessels bleed and damage photoreceptors ``` Smoking cessation Antioxidants - Beta carotene - Vit C - Lutein - Selenium - Zinc ```

Answer 310

S. pneumoniae Nontypable H. influenzae Ml. catarrhalis Antibiotics - Amoxicillin - Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid - Cephalosporins

Answer 311

``` Check iron stores Pramipexole (dopamine agonist) Ropinirole (dopamine agonist) Gabapentin (gaba analog) Pregabalin ```

Answer 312

Benzodiazepines | decrease stage N3

Answer 313

``` Desmopression (first line) Imipramine (TCA) - reduce stage N3 Indomethacin - decrease renal blood flow ```

Answer 314

Modafinil | Methylphenidate

Answer 315

Benzodiazepines | Imipramine

Answer 316

Sevoflurane Desflurane Higher lipid solubility --> more potent

Answer 317

Milk of amnesia Increases GABA in CNS rapid onset induce anesthesdia Rapid off

Answer 318

Barbiturates Decrease CSF Act on GABA receptor Binds chloride channel, keeps open longer

Answer 319

Phenobarbital

Answer 320

Diazepam, Lorazepam Alprazolam, Midazolam Increases frequency of chloride channel opening on GABA receptor

Answer 321

Temazepam (benzo)

Answer 322

Midazolam (benzo)

Answer 323

Flumazenil Trigger withdrawal seizure

Answer 324

Depolarizing NMJ blocking agent Binds nicotinic receptors Stimulates receptor, depolarize, remains bound Fasciculations Pt w/ RYR1 gene mutation --> malignant hyperthermia tx dantrolene

Answer 325

Curare Curium Reverse w/ acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

Answer 326

Dantrolene Causes muscle relaxation

Answer 327

Dantrolene

Answer 328

1) Ketamine 2) Midazolam 3) Halothane 4) Propofol 5) Thiopental (Benzo) 6) Fentyl 7) Propofol

Answer 329

Block Na channels

Answer 330

Somatostatin (octreotide) Decreases splanchnic blood flow

Answer 331

Triple therapy - PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin "-prazole" - PPI + clarithromycin + metronidazole Quadruple therapy - PPI + bismuth + metronidazole + tetracycline Clarithromycin: macrolide -50 S subunit Metronidazole - forms free toxic radical damages DNA Amoxicillin - AMPed up penicillin - D-Ala-D-Ala structural analog - Binds penicillin binding proteins (transpeptidases), blocks crosslinking of peptidoglycan in cell wall

Answer 332

Tums - Calcium carbonate - SE hypercalcemia --> G cells produce gastrin --> rebound excessive acid ``` Rolaids - Magnesium hydroxide - Smooth muscle relaxer - Diarrhea, hyporeflexia, hypotension, cardiac arrest (Mg Must Go to bathroom) ``` Maalox, Mylanta - Aluminum hydroxide - increases pH - constipation, hypophosphatemia, proximal muscle weakness, seizures, osteodystrophy (CHOPS) All can cause hypokalemia - Neutralize acid creates alkalosis - React to alkalosis by pumping H ions out of cell in exchange for potassium

Answer 333

Bismuth Sulcralfate (requires acidic environment to polymerize)

Answer 334

-prost Increase uterine tone Can cause abortion Diarrhea

Answer 335

Ondansetron Granisetron "-setron" Chemotherapy Post-op nausea Pregnancy

Answer 336

Antagonist at dopamine D2 receptor Serotonin agonist Increase contractility in GI tract

Answer 337

Rifampin | red urine

Answer 338

5-ASA (aminosalicylites) Mesalamine Sulfasalazine

Answer 339

Metronidazole (anaerobic bacteria) | TMP-SMX or fluoroquinolone

Answer 340

Macrolides | Tetracyclines

Answer 341

Octreotide | resection

Answer 342

Lactulose | Antibiotic: rifaximin

Answer 343

Potassium sparing spironolactone w/ furosemide

Answer 344

Octreotide - somatostatin analog - decreases visceral secretions Propranolol or nadolol

Answer 345

Diuretic (tx ascites and edema) - Spironolactone - Fursemide Beta block (block bleeding from esophageal varices) - Propranolol - Nadolol Vit K (max clotting potential) Lactulose - Trap ammonium to remove from gut - Tx hepatic encephalopathy Rifamacin - Help tx refractory hepatic encephalopathy

Answer 346

Penicillamine Chelates copper adn allows excretion through urine

Answer 347

Phlebotomy Deferoxamine (chelating agent)

Answer 348

Tenofovir | Entecavir, telbivudine, lamivudine, adefovir

Answer 349

Charcot triad for cholangitis

Answer 350

Reynolds pentad for cholangitis

Answer 351

Competitive antagonize the endothelium 1 receptor - Bosentan - Ambrisentan Prostaglandin analog - Iloprost - Epoprostenol Phosphodiesterase inhibitor (prlong effects of NO) - Sildenafil Dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker -Nifedipine

Answer 352

Bone morphogenetic protein receptor type II Leads to excessive vascular smooth muscle proliferation - Increased resistance Primary pulmonary hypertension

Answer 353

Antagonist at the endothelin 1 receptor Tx for pulmonary htn

Answer 354

Delirium Seizures Anticholinergic toxicity Caused by blockage of cardiac fast sodium channels Sodium bicarbonate

Answer 355

Benzodiazepine Allosterically modulate teh binding of GABA, increrasing frequency channel is opening

Answer 356

beta adrenergic agonist Increased cardiac contractility and heart rate Mild vasodilation

Answer 357

Abortive - Triptans - NSAIDs - Antiemetics - Ergotamine Preventive - Anticonvulsants (topiramate, valproate) - TCA - Beta blockers

Answer 358

Amiodarone

Answer 359

Closure of VG Ca channels Reduce calcium influx Decreased excitartory NT release Increase potassium efflux out of the cells

Answer 360

Disrupt cell membranes

Answer 361

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOs) Antidepressants INhibit oxidative deamination Increase serotonin, NE, dopamine Mood reactivity

Answer 362

GnRH analog Initial increase DHT and testosterone --> decreases

Answer 363

Beta 2 agonists | INcrease cAMP

Answer 364

activate PPAR-alpha, decreased hepatic VLDL production and increased LPL activity

Answer 365

Blocks intestinal cholesterol absorption

Answer 366

Bile acid binding resins Increases fecal loss of cholesterol derivatives by binding bile acids in intestine and disrupting enteroheptaic bile acid circulation

Answer 367

Altered structure of enzyme involved in bacterial RNA synthesis Inhibition of bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Answer 368

Isoniazid: inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis Ethambutol: inhibition of arabinosyl transferase

Answer 369

Atropine Adenosine - hyperpolarizes AV node --> AV conduction delay Amiodarone

Answer 370

Bile acid-binding resins Interferes w/ circulation of bile acids and increase in excretion Results in hepatic syntheis of new bile acids, which consumes cholesterol stores Hepatic uptake of LDL from circulation is increased

Answer 371

Bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor - Macrolide - Tetracycline

Answer 372

Bipolar | Anticonvulsant mood stabilizer

Answer 373

Atypical antipsychotic Risperidone - apine - prazole - idone

Answer 374

Naltrexone Blocks Mu opioid receptor Inhibits reward Acamprosate - modulating glutamate neurotransmission at the N-methy-Daspartate receptor

Answer 375

Nifedipine Amlodipine Felodipine (Dihydropyridines) Primarily affect smooth muscle Cause reflex tachycardia due to peripheral vasodilation

Answer 376

Bradycardia

Answer 377

Na channel blocker

Answer 378

Rifampin Tx: current infection - penicillin, ceftriaxone

Answer 379

anticoagulants - LMWH binds antithrombin III (ATIII), once activated binds factor Xa stops factor Xa from converting prothrombin to thormbin act on factor Xa

Answer 380

5-HT3 receptor antagonist | ondansetron

Answer 381

octreotide inhibit bioactive amine relase diarrhea in carcinoid syndorme or VIPoma

Answer 382

Vancomycin Fluoroquinolones, binds DNA gyrase Macrolides, tetracyclines Pencillin, cephalosporins

Answer 383

Change in protein structure Inhibits binding

Answer 384

Sotalol Amiodarone Dofetilide K channel blocking properties

Answer 385

SGLT2 inhibitor - decrease renal reabsorption of glucose effectiveness depends on glomerular filtration of glucose

Answer 386

Varenicline

Answer 387

SSRI Blocks reuptake in raphe nuclei

Answer 388

inhibit HIV protease Inhibit production of functional viral encoded enzymes

Answer 389

2nd generation sulfonyureas Increase insulin secretion by inhibiting beta cell K atp channels Work even when glucose levels are normal Hypoglycemia Weight gain

Answer 390

Reduce conversion of T4 to T3

Answer 391

Acetazolamide

Answer 392

First 10 days: LMW heparin (enoxaparin, dalteparin) fondaparinux, unfractionated heparin Long term anticoagulation - warfarin (goal of INR 2-3) - LMW heparin - fondaparinux

Answer 393

Oral - Fibaroxaban - Apixaban - Edoxaban SQ - Fondparinux

Answer 394

Dabigatran

Answer 395

First 10 days - LMW heparin - fondaparinux - unfractionated heparin Long term - warfarin Ribaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban, dabigatran (direct factor Xa inhibitor)

Answer 396

Inhibit H/K ATPase Omeprazole Esomeprazole Lansoprazole Pantoprazole

Answer 397

B2 agonist Bronchodilation

Answer 398

1) Cyproheptadine - Appetite stimulant - Antidote serotonin syndrome 2) Promethazine - N/V 3) Hydroxyzine - Sedation, itching 4) Meclizine - Vertigo

Answer 399

Formoterol Salmeterol Mainstay of COPD tx For asthma must be on inhaled corticosteroid

Answer 400

Decreased inflammation Inhibit cytokine synthesis Inhibit TNF-alpha production First line for pts who fail short acting beta agonist Fluticasone Budesonide Beclomethasone

Answer 401

Cromolyn Prevents bronchoconstriction and inflammation

Answer 402

Muscarinic antagonists - Ipratropium (short acting) - Tiotropium (long acting) Decreases overall vagal or parasympathetic tone in lungs

Answer 403

Zileuton Blocks conversion of arachidonic acid into leukotrienes

Answer 404

Montelukast Zafirlukast Aspirin and allergic induced asthma

Answer 405

Methylxanthines Can cause bronchodilation by inhibiting phosphodiesterase Increase cAMP, decrease hydrolysis SE: tremor and tachycardia, seizures

Answer 406

Guaifenesin - thins mucus - does not suppres cough + dextromethorphan to suppress cough N-acetylcysteine - tylenol overdose - used for contrast induced nephropathy - Mucolytic that breaks disulfide bonds in patients with obstructive lung disease

Answer 407

Anti-IgE monoclonal therapy Severe asthma with an allergic component Binds to IgE in serum and blocks the receptor Reduces exacerbation and use of rescue inhaler

Answer 408

1st generation H1 blocker ( dimenhydrinate, chlorpheniramine) Allergies Motion sickness Sleep aids Toxicity: sedation, dry mouth, delirum

Answer 409

2nd generation H1 blockers Allergy Less sedating

Answer 410

Dextromethorphan Derivative of morphine

Answer 411

Phenylephrine Pseudoephedrine Alpha agonist Constrict dilated arteroles in nasal mucosa SE: if taken long time rebound nasal congestion

Answer 412

1) Epoprostenol iloprost - directly vasodilating the pulmonary vascular beds - Se: jaw pain, flushing 2) Bosentan - antagonizing endothelial receptor 1 - Se: hepatotoxicity 3) Sildenafil - inhibits PDE-5 - do not give w/ nitroglycerin --> unsafe drop in BP

Answer 413

Theophylline

Answer 414

Bleomycin - pneumonitis with infiltrates Busulfan - acute lung injury - chronic interstitial fibrosis - alveolar hemorrhage Amiodarone - pulmonary fibrosis Methotrexate - hypersensitivity like lung reaction

Answer 415

Octreotide

Answer 416

Bile acid binding resins - Cholestyramine - colestipol - colesevelam

Answer 417

Modest reduction in triglycerides levels by decreasing synthesis and increase clearance of VLDL particles

Answer 418

Selectively inhibits the intestinal absorption of cholesterol and lowers LDL levels. Does not affect triglyceride absorption but may lower blood triglyceride levels slightly

Answer 419

Fibrate - fenofibrate Inhibit hepatic production of triglycerides First line tx for hypertriglyceridemia

Answer 420

Reduces blood triglyceride levels Raises HDL levels Decreases VLDL conversion to LDL, thereby decreasing LDL concentrations as well Tx w/ aspirin

Answer 421

Inactivated vaccine

Answer 422

monoclonal ab for tx of breast cancer, bind HER2 and block downstream signaling Adverse effect - Cardiotoxicity Decrease in myocyte contractility

Answer 423

Beta blocker B1 blocker specific - Metoprolol Decrease HR, contractility, and O2 consumption, renin

Answer 424

Macrolide | Third generation cephalosporin

Answer 425

Clindamycin | - anaerobic oral organisms and aerobes

Answer 426

Kills veetative bacteria (not spores) fungus and enveloped viruses Dissolves their lipid bilayer membranes

Answer 427

Neuraminidase blocking Neuramindase inhibitors - Oseltamivir - Zanaamivir Block virion particle release

Answer 428

Short benzo <6 hr - Triazolam - Midazolam Intermediate 6-50 hr - Oxazepam - Alprazolam - Lorazepam - Clonazepam Long > 50 hr - Diazepam - chloridiazepoxide - flurazepam

Answer 429

Methotrexate Pyrimethamine Prevent reduction of folic acid to tetrahydrofolate (THF) by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)

Answer 430

Contraction of detrusor muscle Muscarinic cholinergic agonist Bethanechol

Answer 431

5alpha reductase inhibitor Bladder outlet obstruction secondary to prostatic hypertrophy Decreases conversion testosterone to dihydrotestosterone

Answer 432

Alpha agonist Encourages trigone and sphincter contaction Promotes urinary retention

Answer 433

Antimuscarinic Used for urge incontinence

Answer 434

GABA receptor agonism -short acting Insomnia

Answer 435

Haloperidol | Risperidone

Answer 436

Suvorexant

Answer 437

Thioamide drugs Tx hyperthyroidism Inhibit thyroid peroxidase, enzyme responsible for both iodine organification and coupling of iodotyrosines

Answer 438

1) Perchlorate, pertechnetate - inhibit Na/iodide symporter 2) Propylthiouracil - decrase conversion T4--> T3 3) Beta blockers - propranolol 4) Thioamide drugs - Methimazole - propylthiouracil

Answer 439

1) Hepatotoxicity - statins 2) Statins especially w/ fibrates or niacin 3) Decreased absorption - Bile acid resins ( cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam) 4) Fibrates (Gemibrozil, bezafibrate, fenofibrate) 5) Niacin (vit B3) 6) Niacin (vit B3) 7) PCSK9 inhibitors - alirocumab - evolocumab 8) PCSK9 inhibitors

Answer 440

Ezetimibe Decrease LDL Increase to no change HDL Decrease to no change TG

Answer 441

1) Azathiopurine 2) Muromumab 3) Daclizumab 4) Mycophenolate mofetil 5) Cyclosporine Tacrolimus Pimecrolimus 6) Azathioprine 6-mercaptopurine

Answer 442

nonamphetamine stimulant May enhance dopaminergic signaling Narcolepsy

Answer 443

Serotonin (5-HT) receptor antagonist Ondansetron Granisetron Dolasetron

Answer 444

Histamine blockers Diphenhydramine meclizine Promethazine

Answer 445

Benzo Lorazepam Diazepam Chlordizepoxide

Answer 446

``` IV nitroprusside (risk cyanoide toxicity) IV labetalol ```

Answer 447

Beta blockers

Answer 448

-dipine Dihydropyridiens Ca channel blocker act on vascular smooth muscle to cause vasodilation (no effect at heart) HTN, angina, raynaud phenomen (vasospasm), migraine prophylaxis

Answer 449

Ca channel blockers Blocks Ca channel at pacemaker cells HTN, ANGINA, arrhythhmias

Answer 450

Minoxidil Opens K channels and hyperpolarizes smooth muscle , resulting in relaxation of vascular smooth m. Vasodilation Hypertrichosis (excess hair)

Answer 451

1) COUGH - dry hacking - elevated bradykinin 2) Angioedema - swelling lips, tongue, oral muscoa 3) Hyperkalemia 4) Renal insufficiency (decrease GFR) 5) Teratogenic

Answer 452

Renin inhibitor HTN Contraindicated in pregnancy Hyperkalemia Renal insufficiency

Answer 453

Increase cGMP Activates myosin phosphatase --> dephosphorylates myosin --> relaxation and dilation Dilates arterials (more than veins) Decrease afterload HTN urgency and emergency HTN in pregnancy Reflex tachycardia (Prevent w/ beta blocker) Fluid retention Drug induced Lupus (SHIPP)

Answer 454

Hypertensive Moms Love Nifedipine Hydralazine Methyldopa Labetalol Nifedipine

Answer 455

Nitroprusside

Answer 456

Release of NO in smooth muscles Vasodilation Increase in cGMP Dilate veins Decrease preload Angina Acute pulmonary edema SE Nitroprusside --> cyanide toxicity

Answer 457

Afterload | Preload

Answer 458

1) ACE inhibitor or ARB 2) Thiazide diuretic, Ca channel blocker 3) Thiazide diuretic, Ca channel blocker, ACE inhibitor, ARB

Answer 459

Beta blocker | Diltiazem/ Verapamil

Answer 460

alpha blocker

Answer 461

CCB | Beta blocker

Answer 462

Propranolol

Answer 463

``` ACE inhibitor ARB Aldosterone antagonist Beta blockers - carbedilol - metoprolol - bisoprolol Diuretics ```

Answer 464

Ranolazine Inhibits the late phase of Na current Reduces diastolic wall tension Reduces oxygen consumption No effect HR or BP Prolongation QT

Answer 465

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors ``` Prevent production de novo cholesterol Increase cell surface LDL receptors Decrease plasma LDL Increase HDL Decrease TG ``` Hepatotoxicity Myalgias Myositis** Rhabdomylolysis

Answer 466

Cholestyramine Colestipol Colesevelam Prevent intestinal reabsroption of bile acids; liver must use cholesterol to make more (Cholesterol gallstones?) GI upset

Answer 467

Prevents cholesterol reabsorption at teh small intestine brush border Use if dont tolerate statins Low lipids SE Increase LFTs (rare) Diarrhea

Answer 468

Niacin Inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue reduces hepatic VLDL synthesis Flushing Rash Pruritis Hyperglycemia hyperuricemia

Answer 469

Fibrates Femfibrozil Fenofibrate Upregulate LPL --> increase TG clearance Activates PPAR-alpha to induce HDL synthesis Myositis** Myalgias Hepatotoxicity Increase cholesterol gallstones** Statins (increased risk of myositis)

Answer 470

``` Nitrates End-diastolic volume (preload) - Decrease (relax venous) BP: Decrease Contractility: increase (due to drop in BP) HR: Increase Ejection time: Decrease Myocardial oxygen demand or consumption: Decrease ``` ``` Beta blockers End-diastolic volume (preload): nothing BP: decrease Contractility: decrease HR: decrease Ejection time: increase Myocardial oxygen demand or consumption: Decrease ```

Answer 471

MI tx if not undergoing stenting

Answer 472

Clopidogrel | Ticagrelor

Answer 473

Prophylactic Penicillin | Empiric IV vancomycin (covers staph and strep)

Answer 474

Raynaud phenomenon Arterial vasospasm Dihydropyridine CCB - Amlodipine Nifedipine

Answer 475

1) Alpha blockers (-zosin) , clinidine 2) Minoxidil 3) Nitroprusside 4) Clonidine

Answer 476

-osin Urinary symptoms of BPH PTSD (prazosin) HTN (except tamsulosin) First dose orthostatic hypotension

Answer 477

Bind to penicillin binding proteins Inhibit formation of corss linkages between peptidoglycan chains Cell lysis Upregulate autolysins

Answer 478

``` Gram positive Spirochetes- syphilis Gram positive rods Gram negative cocci - neisseria ```

Answer 479

Bulky R group Methicillin Nafcillin Oxacillin Dixcloxacillin

Answer 480

Ampicillin (IV) Amoxicillin (greater oral bioavailability) Pencillinase sensitive ``` HEELPSS H. influenzae E. coli Enterococci Listeria Proteus mirabilis Salmonella Shigella ```

Answer 481

Clavulanic acid Sulbactam Tazobactam Add to pencillinase sensitive drugs

Answer 482

Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid Cefdinir (3rd generation)

Answer 483

Sulbactam + ampicillin

Answer 484

Ticarcillin Carbenicillin Piperacillin Attacking cell wall Pseudomonas Gram neg rods Suscpetible to penicillinase

Answer 485

``` CAMPFIRE Carbapenems Aminoglycosides Monobactams Polymyxins Fluroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) thIRd and fourth generation cephalosporins - ceftazidime - cefepime Extended spectrum penicillins -Ticarcillin -Carbenicillin -Piperacillin ```

Answer 486

Active against cell wall Bind to penicillin binding proteins Gram (+) Gram (-) Less susceptible to penicillases

Answer 487

Cefazolin Cephalexin Gram + cocci PEcK Proteus mirabilis E. coli Klebsiella UTIs URIs Prophylaxis viridans strep endocarditis

Answer 488

Amoxicillin

Answer 489

Cefoxitin Cefaclor Cefuroxime Cefprozil ``` HENS PEcK H. influenza Enterobacter Neisseria Serratia marcescens Proteus mirabilis Ecoli Klebsiella ``` Not used for gonorrhea

Answer 490

Ceftriaxone Cefotaxime Ceftazidime Cefdinir Serious gram - infections ``` HENS PEcK E.coli Proteus mirabilis Klebsiella Enterobacter Serratia Citrobacter Neisseria H. influenza Strep pneumoniae ** ```

Answer 491

Ceftriaxone Longest 1/2 life GIve IV Excreted in bile (good for renal failure)

Answer 492

cefepime broad spectrum Pseudomonas Gram + coverage

Answer 493

Ceftaroline Broad spectrum MRSA

Answer 494

Ceftaroline

Answer 495

``` LAME Listeria Atypicals (mycoplasma, chlamydia) MRSA Enterococci ```

Answer 496

Monocyclic beta lactam Inhibits cell wall synthesis Binds to penicillin binding protein 3 No sensitivity allergy ``` E. Coli Lebsiella Pseudomonas Serratia (Gram neg only) ```

Answer 497

Imipenem- cilastatin Meropenem Ertapenem Doripenem Gram + cocci Gram - rods Anaerobes Pseudomonas Binding penicillin binding proteins

Answer 498

Cilastatin inhibitor of renal dehydropeptidase 1 Decreased activation of imipenem in renal tubules

Answer 499

Inhibit cell wall synthesis Inhibits cell wall mucopeptide formation by binding to the D-ala D-ala moieties of the cell wall precursors Inhibts cell wall glycopeptide polymerization ``` Gram positive only MRSA Enterococci Clostridium difficile (oral) Coagulase negative staph endocarditis ``` NOT Nephrotoxicity Ototoxicity Thrombophelbitis Redman syndrome - diffuse flushing - nonspecific mast cell degranulation pretreat w/ antihistamines

Answer 500

1) Beta blockers 2) Any vasodilator - Nitrates - Dihydropyridien CCB - Minoxidil - Hydralazine 3) Hydralazine 4) Hydrochlorothiazide

Answer 501

Buy AT 30, CCELL at 50 30S inhibitors - Aminoglycosides - Tetracyclines 50S - Chloramphenicol - Clindamycin - Erythromycin, macrolides - Lincomycin - Linezolid

Answer 502

Linezolid Serotonin syndrome

Answer 503

Binds 30S Prevents attachment of aminoacyl tRNA ``` VACUUM THe BedRoom Vibrio cholerae Acne Chlamydia Ureapolasma urelyticum Mycoplasma pneumoniae Tularemia Helicobacter pylori Borrelia burgdorferi Rickettsia ``` Avoid with - milk antiacids Iron, calcium, magnesium (inhibit absorption in gut) Discoloration teeth Inhibit bone growth kids Photosensitivity Blue skin (minocycline)

Answer 504

Minocycline (TCA)

Answer 505

Mean GNATs can NOT kill anaerobes Gentamicin, Neomycin, Amikacin, Tobramycin, Streptomycin Inhibits the formation of the initation complex and causes misreading of mRNA Ineffective against anaerobes Use - severe gram negative rod infections - bowel surgery (neomycin) "NOT" Nephrotoxicity Ototoxicity Tetatogenic

Answer 506

Azithromycin Clarithromycin Erythromycin -romycin Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking translocation Binds to the 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal subunit "PUS" Pneumonia -Mycoplasma Chlamydophilia, legionella URI - strep pyogenes - h. influenza STD - chlamydia - gonorrhea Prolonged QT Drug interaction w/ warfarin Safe in pregnancy Methylation of the 23S rRNA binding site

Answer 507

Inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase activity Meningitis - H. influenza - N. meningitides - strep. pneumoniae Toxicity - Anemia - Aplastic anemia - Gray baby syndrome

Answer 508

Gray baby syndrome Chloramphenicol Phenobarbital

Answer 509

Quinupristin Dalfopristin Bind 23S portion of 50S MRSA VRE Staph and Strep skin infxn Hepatotoxicity Pseudomembranous colitis Inhibit CYP450

Answer 510

Blocks peptide bond formation with the 50S subunit ``` Anaerobic infections ** MRSA Protozoal infections Topically acne Bacteroides fragilis Clostridium perfringens MRSA skin abscess ``` Toxicity: pseudomembranous colitis

Answer 511

Tigecycline | Binds to 30S

Answer 512

Macrolides | - romycin

Answer 513

SAT Sulfonamides Amiodarone Tetracycline

Answer 514

NOT Nephrotoxicity Ototoxicity Teratogenic

Answer 515

Amiodarone

Answer 516

Vancomycin too quick infusion

Answer 517

Sulfamethoxazole Sulfadiazine Folic acid inhibitors Competitive inhibitors of enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase ``` Hemolysis in G6PD def Nephrotoxicity Kernicterus (infants brain damage due to bilirubin build up) Photosensitivity Steven Johnson syndrome ```

Answer 518

"Sulfa Pills Frequently Cause Terrible Allergy Symptoms" ``` Sulfasalazine Probenecid Furosemide Celecoxib Thaizide (TMP-SMX) Acetazolamide Sulfonyureas ```

Answer 519

``` Steve Jobs made APPLE PCS Allopurinol Phenyltoin Phenobarbital Lamotrigine Ethosuximide Penicillin Carbamazepine Sulfonamides ``` ``` Fever Bullae formation and necrosis Sloughing of skin + Nikolsky Targetoid lesions ```

Answer 520

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase Megaloblastic anemia Leukopenia Granulocytopenia

Answer 521

``` UTIs Shigella Salmonella MRSA skin infections Pneumocystis jirovecii pneuonia ```

Answer 522

Trimethoprim | Methotrexate

Answer 523

Levofloxacin Nalidixic acid Inhibits DNA gyrase (topisomerase II) Dont take w/ antiacids or supplements contains calcium, iron or magnesium ``` Gram negative infections Gram negative rods UTIs GI tract infections Pseudomonas Varying Gram positive coverage ``` Cartilage damage Tendonitis and tendon rupture QT interval prolongation Chromosome endoced mutation at the DNA gyrase

Answer 524

Fluorquinolones

Answer 525

Metronidazole

Answer 526

Forms toxic radicals that damage DNA ``` "GET GAP on the Metro" Giardia lamblia Entamoeba histolytica Trichomonas GArdnerella vaginalis Anaerobic bacteria (clostridium spp, bacteriodes fragillis) Pylori ``` Disulfiram like reaction

Answer 527

1) Ciprofloxacin 2) Rifampin (prophylaxis) Tx: Ceftriaxone/ penicillin 3) Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline for c. trachomatis) 4) Penicillin G 5) TMP-SMX Amoxicillin 6) TMP-SMX 7) Penicillin, Amoxicillin, Cephalexin 8) Ampicillin 9) Erythromycin 10) Macrolides (azithromycin) 11) Piperacillin/ tazobactam, aminoglycosides, carbapenems 12) Doxycycline 13) Fluconazole, Caspofungin Amphotericin B 14) Amphotericin B and flucytosine Maintenance: fluconazole 15) Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

Answer 528

1) Sulfonamides 2) Trimethoprim Methotrexate 3) Fluoroquinoles 4) Nitrofurantoin 5) Metronidazole 6) Polymyxin B

Answer 529

Broad spectrum Ceftriaxone Vancomycin Ampicillin

Answer 530

Ciprofloxacin | Doxycycline

Answer 531

``` Exacerbation of asthma Increase blood glucose Mask symptoms of hypoglycemia Bradycardia AV block CHF ```

Answer 532

Zidovudine

Answer 533

Mother: acyclovir starting at 36 weeks

Answer 534

SSRI - Fluoxetine - Sertraline - Escitalopram Causes SIADH

Answer 535

Progestin Binds progesterone receptor Use: chemotherapy adverse effects treatment Tx: loss of appetite Tx: muscle wasting

Answer 536

Antiarrhythmic Na channel blocks Quinidine, Prcainamdie Dispyramide Flecainide Propafenone Beta blockers Ca channel blockers

Answer 537

1) Rifampin 2) Fluroquinoles 3) Trimethoprim

Answer 538

"PUS" ``` Pneumonia (atypical) - mycoplasma pneu - Legionella - Chlamydophilia pneu ``` URI - Strep pyogenes - H. influenza STDS - Gonorrhea - Chlamydia

Answer 539

Fluoroquinoles | Etoposide

Answer 540

VACUuM THe BedRoom ``` Vibrio cholerae Ache Chlamydia Ureaplasma urelyticum Mycoplasma pneumoniae Tularemia H. pylori Borrelia burgdorferi RIckettsia rickettci ```

Answer 541

4 Rs Inhibits RNA polymerase Red secretions RREvs up cytochrome p450

Answer 542

Anti cholinergic (sedation, dry mouth, ileus, urinary retention, orthostatic HTN) - Chlorpromazine - Thioridazine ``` Higher potency (Tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant) - Haloperidol - Fluphenazine (Loxapine) (Thiothixene) (Trifluoperazine) ``` D2 receptor inhibition Anti HAM - Histamine 1 - Alpha 1 - Muscarinic i

Answer 543

``` Olanzapine Quetiapine Risperidone Aripiprazole Clozapine ``` - apine - asidone Fewer EPS Fewer anticholinergic Weight GAIN D2 and 5HT2a inhibition

Answer 544

``` Mental status changes Hyperthermia Sympathetic hyperactivity Diffuse rigidity (lead pipe) Hyporeflexia ``` Dantrolene Dopaminergic drugs - Bromocriptine (DA agonist) - Amantadine (Increase DA release)

Answer 545

Olanzapine

Answer 546

Mood stabilizer - Lithium Atypical antipsychotics - Risperidone - Aripiprazole - Olanzapine Antiepileptics - Lamotrigine - Valproic acid - Carbamazepine

Answer 547

LITHIUM ``` Loopy (sedation/ dizziness) Increased urination Tremors Hypothyroidism Increased thirst Underactive memory Myocardial heart lock ```

Answer 548

Decrease serotonin and decrease NE SSRI (-xetine, not duloxetine) SNRIs (-faxine) TCA (-pramine, triptyline) MOA Inhibitorss (giline) Anxiety OCD PTSD Bulemia

Answer 549

Fluoxetine Sertraline Paroxetine Citalopram Inhibit reuptake of serotonin Sexual dysfunction Serotonin syndrome

Answer 550

``` Increased muscle activity Hyperthermia Hyperreflexia Myoclonus Autonomic instability - HTN - Tachycardia Flushing Diarrhea Mental status changes ``` Stop drug Cool patient Benzodiazepines Cyproheptadine

Answer 551

Venlafaxine Desvenlafaxine Duloxetine Milnacipran (fibromyalgia) Serotonin an dNE reuptake inhibitors Depression Generalized anxiety Chronic pain (duloxetine) Fibromyalgia (milnacipran) SE - Increased BP - Sedation

Answer 552

``` Amitriptyline Nortriptyline Clomipramine Imipramine Amoxapine Doxepin ``` Blocks reuptake of NE and serotonin Enuresis (imipramine) OCD (clomipramine) Fibromyalgia (amitriptyline) Anticholinergic effects Prolong QT

Answer 553

``` Amiodarone Dofetilide Fluoroquinoles Macrolide (azithromycin) Ranalazine Sotalol ```

Answer 554

ABCDE antiArrthmic - Type IA - Type III (amiodarone, sotalol, dofetilide) antiBiotic - Macrolide (azithromycin) - Fluroquinolones antipsyCotic - Haloperidol anti-depressant - TCA antiEmetic - ondasetron

Answer 555

``` Tachycardia Hypotension Arrthymias Sedation, Coma Seizure Dry mouth, urinary retention ``` Sodium Bicarb

Answer 556

Tranylcypromine PHenelzine Selegiline Rasagiline Inhibit MAO, which breaks down serotonin and catecholamines (NE an DA) - Increases NA and DA Selegiline and Rasagiline - selective MAO B inhibitors - Break down dopamine Hypertensive crisis w/ ingestion of tyramine - Brown bananas - Wine - Aged cheeses - Soy sauce

Answer 557

``` Amitriptyline= TCA Bupropion= NDRI Citalopram= SSRI Clomipramine= TCA Doxepin= TCA Duloxetine= SNRI Fluoxetine= SSRI Imipramine= TCA Nefazodone= Sero modulat Nortriptyline= TCA Paroxetine= SSRI Phenelzine= MAOI Sertraline= SSRI Tranylcypromine= MAOI Trazodone= Sero Modulator Venlafaxine= SNRI ```

Answer 558

1) Trazodone, nefazodone 2) Bupropion 3) Mirtazapine 4) Bupropion 5) Imipramine

Answer 559

Tri C's Cardotoxicity: arrthymias CNS toxicity: seizure coma antiCholinergic: confusion, urinary retention, hyperpyrexia

Answer 560

NE dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) Depression Smoking cessation Stimulant effect Lowers seizure threshold (increse risk of seizure) Does NOT cause sexual dysfunction

Answer 561

Alpha 2 antagonist on presynaptic Inhibits alpha 2 receptor inhibition on NE and serotonin release Increases NE and 5-HT release Weight gain Sleep

Answer 562

Old drugs - Trazadone, nefazodone - depression, insomnia - alpha blocking (hypotension) - antihistamine (sedation) - PRIAPISM (painful persistent penile erection New drugs - Vilazodone, vortioxetine - Depression - SE: GI upset, anticholinergic, serotonin syndrome

Answer 563

Benzodiazepine

Answer 564

GEneralized anxiety disorder - SSRI Panic attacks -Benzo

Answer 565

SSRI | Beta blocker

Answer 566

SSRI | Clomipramine (TCA)

Answer 567

Stimulates serotonin receptor Generalized anxiety disorder Not many side effects

Answer 568

Supportive therapy | Counseling

Answer 569

SSRI (fluoxetine)

Answer 570

Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

Answer 571

Tics > 1 year | Behavioral therapy Alpha 2 agonist (clonidine Anti dopamine drugs Fluphenazine, pimozide)

Answer 572

Naltrexone - opioid antagonist Acamprosate Disulfiram Topiramate - Affect glutamate receptors, modulate glutamate transmission

Answer 573

Barbiturate, benzodiazepines withdrawal Reversal agent: flumazenil - can cause seizures

Answer 574

Opioid intoxication Tx Naloxone Naltrexone

Answer 575

Amphetamine or cocaine intoxication Benzodiazepines (agitation) Haloperidol( paranoid idealations)

Answer 576

Opioid withdrawal Methadone

Answer 577

Benzo | Haloperidol

Answer 578

Class IA - Disopyramide - Quinidine - Procainamide - Intermediate inhibition of phase zero - Prolonged AP Class IB - Lidocaine - Mexiletine - Weak inhibition of phase 0 - Shortened AP Class IC - Flecainide - Propafenone - Strong inhibition of phase 0 - No change on AP

Answer 579

"SEAT" Aldosterone antagonists - Spironolactone - Eplerenone Inhibit epithelial Na channel - Amiloride - Triamterene

Answer 580

Potassium sparing diuretics

Answer 581

Loop diuretics Cause isotonic water excretion

Answer 582

Acetazolamide | Mannitol

Answer 583

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor Cant reabsorb bicarb Excreted in urine Facilitate excretion of bicarb Altitude sickness (over come resp alkosis more quickly) Urine alkalinization Glaucoma Idiopathic intracranial HTN - First line - reduces CSF production as well Metabolic acidosis Sulfa allergy

Answer 584

Acetazolamide

Answer 585

Osmotic diuretic - causes osmolar load to stay in filtrate - prevent reabsorption of water - cause excretion of water Increase serum osm Increase serum Na Shock Drug overdose Glaucoma Elevated ICP SE - dehydration Contraindications - Anuric renal failure - CHF

Answer 586

Bumetanide Ethacrynic acid Furosemide Torsemide Inhibit Na/K/CL cotransporter - cant concentrate urine Loops lose calcium CHF Pulmonary edema Nephrotic syndrome Cirrhosis [NOT HTN] ``` Sulfa allergy (all but ethacrynic acid) Hypokalemia Dehydration Gout Ototoxicity Nephrotoxicity ```

Answer 587

Ethacrynic acid

Answer 588

Chlorthalidone Hydrochlorothiazide Metolazone Inhibit reabsorption of Na and Cl Retain calcium Help with osteoporosis HTN (first line) Idiopathic hypercalciuria (not if hypercalcemia) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus ``` Hypokalemia Hyponatremia Hyperglycemia Hyperlipidemia Hyperuricemia Hypercalcemia Sulfa allergy ```

Answer 589

Aldosterone antagonists - Spironolactone - Eplerenone Block Na channel - Amiloride - Triamterene Give w/ Loop diuretic to retain potassium CHF (aldosterone antagonist) SE - Hyperkalemia --> arrthymias - Antagonist androgen receptor --> gynecomastia Anti-androgen effects Menstrual irregularities (except eplerenone)

Answer 590

Acetazolamide ``` Loop diuretics - Bumetanide - Furosemide - Torsemide [Not ethacrynic acid) ``` All thiazides

Answer 591

All except acetazolamide

Answer 592

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (acetazolamide) K sparing diuretics

Answer 593

[ Lose Na CL in urine, become hypochloremic --> reduced excretion of bicarb] Loop diuretics THiazide diuretics

Answer 594

Aminoglycosides require oxygen to enter bacterial wall Use O2 in AminO2glycosides Use: Metronidazole or clindomycin

Answer 595

Central: intranasal desmopressin Nephrogenic DI: - Hydrochlorothiazide (first line) (causes dehydration so PCT will concentrate more) Indomethacin - inhibit prostaglandin syn - reduce urine output Amiloride - Lithium induced nephrogenic DI - Blocks Na channels Lithium uses to enter

Answer 596

Amiloride | - Blocks Na channels Lithium uses to enter

Answer 597

1) Hyponatremia 2) Hypercalcemia 3) Hypocalcemia 4) Hypomagnesemia 5) Hypermagnesemia 6) Hypokalemia 7) Hyperkalemia

Answer 598

``` NSAIDS Antibiotics - pencillin -cephalosporin - ciproflxacin - rifampin Diuretics PPI Cimetidine Allopurinol ```

Answer 599

``` Dry as a bone Hot as a hare Blind as a bat Mad as a hatter Red as beet Bloated as a toad ```

Answer 600

1) Hep B- 1st given 2) Yearly from 6 months 2,4,6 (8) who do we appreciate STRIPPERS "Damn BaBy, ROTate that ass on the POLe" 3) Dtap, HepB, Hib, Rotavirus, Polio (IPV), PCV (pneumococcal) 4) DTaP, Hib, Polio, PCV, Rotavirus 5) DTAP, Hib, PCV, RV 6) Influenza, HPV, Meningococcal, Tdap

Answer 601

Ampicillin + gentimycin

Answer 602

Antagonist at dopamine D2 receptor Serotonin agonist Increase contractility in GI tract

Answer 603

Malignant hyperthermia | Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Answer 604

Dopamine antagonists - Bromocriptine - Cabergoline Antipsychotics - Haloperidol - risperidone Domperidone Metoclopramide

Answer 605

Octreotide Somatostatin LAR Lanreotide-P ``` Tx for: Pituitary excesses Zollinger-Ellison Carcinoid VIPoma Insulinoma ``` Bleeding varices Bleeding peptic ulcers

Answer 606

Diagnosis= IGF-1 Tx: Octreotide

Answer 607

Surgical removal Alpha blocker - phenoxybenzamine (nonselective irreversible) Never give beta blocker by itself - Make HTN worse - Epinephrine stimulates both beta and alpha receptors - Just block beta --> still stimulating alpha receptors --> alpha 1 vasoconstriction --> raise BP

Answer 608

Levothyroxine - Synthetic analog of T4 - No side effects if dosed correctly Over dose - Tachycardia - Heat intolerance - Tremors - Arrhythmias Triiodothyronine - synthetic analog of T3

Answer 609

Methimazole (preferred) Propylthiouracil (PTU) Beta blockers (tachycardia and anxiety)

Answer 610

Inhibits peroxidase enzyme in thyroid, part of thyroid hormone production Agranulocytosis (bone marrow stops making WBCs) Pharyngitis, pharyngeal abscess, fever and sore throat 1st trimester - Fetal goiter and hypothyroidism - Fetal aplasia cutis (fetal scalp defect)

Answer 611

1st trimester: Propylthiouracil (PTU) 2nd and 3rd trimester: Methimazole

Answer 612

Inhibits peroxidase in thyroid and conversion T4 --> T3 in periphery Agranulocytosis Liver dysfunction Fetal goiter and hypothyroidism

Answer 613

thyrotoxic crisis Big surge of thyroid hormone and catecholamines ``` Increased body temp Altered mental status Tachycardia Arrhythmias Vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration Coma Death ``` Beta blocker (for increased catecholamines) Methimazole or PTU

Answer 614

Fluoroquinoles

Answer 615

Atypical antipsychotics - Risperidone - Aripiprazole - Olanzapine Clozapine

Answer 616

Aspart Glulisine Lispro Used with meals

Answer 617

NPH | Insulin

Answer 618

Glargine | Detemir

Answer 619

Biguanide Decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis Improve insulin sensitivity Increased risk of lactic acidosis when used in renal failure Limited to patients with good renal function

Answer 620

Glimepiride Glipizide Glyburide Closed K channels in beta cells --> depolarization --> increase Ca influx --> Stimulates continuous insulin release from the beta cells hypoglycemia Weight gain Requires pancreatic function - Not effective in Type I - not effective in Type II wiht long duration

Answer 621

Thiazolidinediones Binds to peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARy) receptors Improves insulin sensitivity Decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis Weight gain Fluid retention Increased risk of CHF Possible hepatotoxicity

Answer 622

Gut derived hormone that augment pancreatic release of insulin in a glucose dependent way Most important incretin= Glucagon Like Peptide (GLP-1) 1. Increase glucose dependent insulin release from pancreas 2. Decrease glucagon release 3. Decrease gastric emptying DDp-4 inactivates GLP-1

Answer 623

DDP-4 inhibitors - endogenous GLP-1 has longer active time GLP-1 agonist - mimic effect of endogenous GLP-1

Answer 624

DDP-4 inhibitors Gliptin keep GLP in

Answer 625

GLP-1 agonist Also Exenatide Weight loss Gi side effect nausea

Answer 626

Weight loss medication

Answer 627

SGLT-2 inhibitors -gliflozin Inhibits Na glucose linked transporter in the kidney (more glucose loss in the urine) Risk with kidney dysfunction Glucose in urine --> UTIs, mycotic infections Dehydration, polyurea Possible DKA

Answer 628

Acarbose - Inhibit enzyme in brush border of enzyme - Loss of ingested carbs through stool Miglitol

Answer 629

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors - Inhibit enzyme in brush border of enzyme - Loss of ingested carbs through stool

Answer 630

Direct Thrombin inhibitors -rudin Lepirudin, Bivalirudin, Desirudin Derivatives of hirudin Directly inhibits thrombin

Answer 631

-rudin (Lepirudin, Bivalirudin, Desirudin) Argatroban Dabigatran

Answer 632

Low Molecular weight heparin -parin Enoxaparin Dalteparin Stimulate antithrombin to inactivate factor Xa SQ injections Weight based dosing

Answer 633

Activates antithrombin | Inhibits factor Xa

Answer 634

Direct Factor Xa inhibitors -xaban Rivaroxaban Apixaban Oral anticoagulants Afib Prevent post-op DVT

Answer 635

Warfarin (Oral) Responsible for recycling Vit K Decrease Factor II, VII, IX, X Protein C and S Increase PT Chronic anticoagulation - A fib - DVT prophylaxis - DVT treatment - PE treatment

Answer 636

Bone and cartilage problems in epiphyses Nasal hypoplasia

Answer 637

IV or subQ Protamine sulfate

Answer 638

Clot busting drugs Streptokinse Urokinse tPA (alteplase) Activates plasmin --> degrades fibrin ``` Active bleeding hx intracranial bleeding Recent surgery Known bleeding disorder Severe HTN ``` Aminocaproic acid

Answer 639

Aminocaproic acid

Answer 640

Fomepizole

Answer 641

-grel Clopidogrel Ticlopidine Ticagrelor Prasugrel Block binding of ADP to receptor and expression of glycoprotein IIB/IIIA MI After coronary angioplasty Prevent recurrent strokes Aspirin allergy

Answer 642

Abciximab Tirofiban eptifibatide Acute coronary syndrome -NSTEMI Angioplasty

Answer 643

Thromboxane A2

Answer 644

1. Metformin 2. Sulfonylureas 3. Sulfonyureas 4. Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)

Answer 645

5-fluorouracil (5-fu)

Answer 646

Methotrexate Myelosuppression - reversible w/ leucovorin Hepatotoxicity Mucositis (mouth ulcers) Fibrotic lung disease Teratogenicity - folate deficiency Nephrotoxicity

Answer 647

Leucovorin

Answer 648

dUMP--> dTMP 5-fluorouracil pyrimidine analog Myelosuppression - uridine rescue agent Photosensitivity

Answer 649

6-Mercaptopurine S-phase antimetabolite Purine analog Metabolized by xanthine oxidase Hepatotoxicity

Answer 650

Same as 6-MP but not metabolized by xanthine oxidase Can be given w/ allopurinol

Answer 651

Cladribine Purine analog Induces DNA breaks Uses - Hairy cell leukemia Neurotoxicity Nephrotoxicity

Answer 652

Cytarabine AML Megaloblastic anemia

Answer 653

Cyclophosphamide Ifosfamide Nitrosoureas Busulfan

Answer 654

Doxorubicin and daunorubicin 1. Generate free radicals 2. Intercalate DNA - wedge into DNA between base pairs and form tight bonds - DNA can not unwind Cardiotoxicity - dilated cardiomyopathy

Answer 655

Dexrazoxane Iron chelating drug

Answer 656

Busulfan (alkylating agent) | Bleomycin ( free radicals)

Answer 657

Nitrosoureas alkylating agent Cross BBB - brain tumors CNS toxicity

Answer 658

Ifosfamide Cyclophosphamide Prevent w/ Mesna

Answer 659

Cyclophosphamide Immunosuppressant - Lupus nephritis - POlyarteritis nodosa Requires bioactivation in liver

Answer 660

Nitrosoureas | - mustine

Answer 661

Cyclophosphamide

Answer 662

Intercalates DNA Wilms tumor Ewing sarcoma Rhabdomyosarcoma

Answer 663

1. Dexrazoxane - Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin - Cardiotoxicity 2. Leucovorin - Methotrexate - Myelosuppression 3. Mesna - Cyclophosphamide - Hemorrhagic cystitis 4. Uridine - 5-FU - Myelosuppression

Answer 664

Binds to DNA and causes ssDNA and dsDNA breaks Generates free radicals Pulmonary fibrosis Testicular cancer

Answer 665

Bleomycin Etoposide Cisplatin

Answer 666

1. Busulfan 2. Bleomycin 3. 6-mercaptopurine 4. Nitrosoureas 5. Methotrexate 6. Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin 7. Nitrosureas 8. 5-fluorouracil 9. Dactinomycin 10. Cyclophosphamide, Ifosfamide

Answer 667

Cisplatin, carboplatin, oxaliplatin Testicular cancer Ovarian cancer Bladder cancer Nephrotoxicity Ototoxicity

Answer 668

Vancomycin Aminoglycosides Loop diuretics Cisplatin and carboplatin

Answer 669

Etoposide | Teniposide

Answer 670

"Eradicate Ball Cancer" Etoposide + Bleomycin + Cisplatin Etoposide + ifosfamide + cisplatin

Answer 671

Irinotecan | Topotecan

Answer 672

Vincristine | Vinblastine

Answer 673

Hodgkin lymphoma Wilms tumor Ewing sarcoma Choriocarcinoma Neurotoxicity Peripheral neuritis

Answer 674

Myelosuppression

Answer 675

Vincristine | Methotrexate

Answer 676

Paclitaxel Myelosuppresion Hypersensitivity Rxn

Answer 677

``` Vincristine Vinblastine Paclitaxel Mebendazole Albendazole Griseofulvin Cochicine ```

Answer 678

Hydroxyurea Inhibits DNA synthesis CML Myeloproliferative disorders

Answer 679

-xifen Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) ER antagonist= Breast ER agonist= bone ER partial agonist= endometrium Risk of endometrial carcinoma

Answer 680

-xifen Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) ER antagonist - Breast - Endometrium ER agonist - Bone No risk endometrial cancer

Answer 681

Trastuzumab Tx breast cancer expressing HER-2 Cardiotoxic

Answer 682

1 Trastuzumab 2. Paclitaxel 3. Tamoxifen 4. Cisplatin 5. Vincristine

Answer 683

Monoclonal Ab against CD20

Answer 684

Enzyme inhibitor Targets mutant BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase produced by philidelpha chromosome t(9;22) CML ALL AML

Answer 685

Borteozomib Carfilzomib Tx Multiple myeloma Mnatle cell lymphoma Peripheral neuropathy Risk of shingles

Answer 686

Hyperkalemia Hyperphosphatemia Hypercalcemia IV hydration ALlopurinol Rasburicase

Answer 687

Recombiant form of urate oxidase (uricase) Breaks down uric acid --> allantoin Converted to ammonia and excreted in urine

Answer 688

Monoclonal Ab against VEGF Uses - Metastic cancer ``` Impaired wound healing Hemorrhage - Hemoptysis - Epistaxis - GI bleeding ```

Answer 689

Cetuximab Antibody against EGFR Tyrosine kinase receptor

Answer 690

EGFR inhibitor Used for non-small cell lung cancer Rashes

Answer 691

INhibitor of BRAF oncogene Serine/ threonine kinase Metastatic melanoma

Answer 692

Beta blocker (propranolol) Methinazole

Answer 693

Guanosine analog First phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase Inhibits DNA plymerase HSV-1 HSV-2 VZV EBV Valacyclovir hydrolyzed to acyclovir

Answer 694

Prodrug of penciclovir - Acyclic guanosine nucleoside analog Relies on viral thymidine kinase HSV-1 HSV-2 VZV Preferred over acyclovir for VZV

Answer 695

Famiclovir

Answer 696

Acyclovir | Famciclovir

Answer 697

Activated by CMV viral kinase Inhibits viral DNA polymerase Bone marrow suppression Renal toxicity

Answer 698

Ganciclovir | Foscarnet (retinitis)

Answer 699

Foscarnet Inhibits DNA polymerase Resistant HSV CMV retinitis Renal toxicity Anemia

Answer 700

Neuroaminidase inhibitors Zanamivir Oseltamivir Block release of virions from host cell

Answer 701

Ribavirin | IFN-alpha

Answer 702

Guanosine analog RSV Hep C Teratogenicity Hemolytic anemai

Answer 703

One dose of dexamethasone | supportive

Answer 704

Passive w/ palivizumab

Answer 705

PCP prophylaxis TMP-SMX Dapsone (in sulfa allergy)

Answer 706

Toxoplasmosis prophylaxis (if positive IgG before) TMP-SMX Dapsone + pentamidine + leucovorin

Answer 707

MAC prophylaxis Azithromycin

Answer 708

-navir Protease inhibitors GI intolerance Inhibit cytochrome p450 Hyperlipidemia hyperglycemia Lipodystrophy

Answer 709

Kidney stone indinavir Atazanavir

Answer 710

Atazanavir

Answer 711

Combination of at least 3 different HIV medications 2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors and a different class medication

Answer 712

-vudine Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) Didanosine Abacavir Emtricitabine Tenofovir (NtRTI)

Answer 713

``` Lamivudine Zidovudine Didanosine Abacavir Emtricitabine Tenofovir (NtRTI) ``` Competitive inhibitors Have to be phosphorylated by thymidine kinase to work Abacavir - Hypersensitivity assoc w/ HLA B57 - Type IV delayed hypersensitivity - Delayed rash

Answer 714

Zidovudine (AZT)

Answer 715

-vir, -virine ``` Nevirapine Delavirdine Efavirenz Etravirine Rilpivirine ``` non-competitively inhibit reverse transcriptase Do NOT require phosphorylation

Answer 716

Rilpivirine

Answer 717

Enfuvirtide En envelop Fu fusion Binds Gp41 and blocks HIV fusion Given by injection

Answer 718

-tegravir Integrase inhibitors Blocks integration into host DNA

Answer 719

Maraviroc CCR-5 on macrophages and CD4 T cells Inhibits gp120 conformational change Only in patients with all R5 virus

Answer 720

1. Zidovudine (NRTI) 2. Didanosine (NRTI) Ritonavir (PI) 3. Didanosine (NRTI) 4. Abacovir (NRTI) 5. NNRTIs 6. Efavirenz (NNRTI) 7. Efavirenz (NNRTI) 8. Efavirenz (NNRTI) 9. Indinavir, Atazanavir (protease inhibitor) 10. Atazanavir (protease inhibitor) 11. Didanosine

Answer 721

gp 41: Enfuvirtide Gp120: maraviroc (not directly CCR-5

Answer 722

Superficial - Nystatin - Clotrimazole (topical) - Fluconazole (oral) oral thrush Systemic - Fluconazole - Amphotericin B - Echinocandin

Answer 723

Amphotericin B + flucytosine Followed by fluconazole

Answer 724

TMP-SMX Sulfa allergy - Pentamidine Clindamycin + primaquine

Answer 725

Voriconazole | Lipid formation of amphotericin B

Answer 726

Surgical debridment | AMphotericin B

Answer 727

Topical terbinafine or azole Extensive skin infection or scalp/hair - Oral terbinafine or azole

Answer 728

Malassezia furfur Topical azole Topical selenium sulfide Oral azole

Answer 729

Steatorrhea GI discomfort Decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

Answer 730

1. Nystatin, Amphotericin B 2. Griseofulvin 3. Flucytosine 4. Terbinafine 5. -azoles

Answer 731

``` Cryptococcosis Blastomycosis Coccidioidomycosis Aspergillosis Histoplasmosis Mucormycosis ``` ``` Fever and chills Anemia Arrhythmias Hypokalemia Nephrotoxicity** ```

Answer 732

Flucytosine

Answer 733

Caspofungin Invasive aspergillosis GI upset Flushing

Answer 734

Itraconazole ``` Blstomyces Coccidioides Paracoccidioides Histoplasma Sporothirx ```

Answer 735

Voriconazole

Answer 736

Posaconazole

Answer 737

Clotrimazole | Micronazole

Answer 738

Decreased production of cortisol and testosterone Gynecomastia Impotence Drug-drug interactions Increase hepatic enzymes

Answer 739

Inhibits enzyme squalene epoxidase uses superficial fungal infections Hepatotoxicity GI symptoms

Answer 740

Targets microtubule function --> inhibits mitosis Deposits in keratin containng tissues Tinea corporis Tinea capitis Onychomycosis ``` Tertatogenicity HA GI symptoms Confusion Cytochrome p450 ```

Answer 741

1. Caspofungin 2. Nystatin 3. Terbinafine, itraconazole, fluconazole 4. Griseofulvin 5. IV amphotericin B + flucytosine 6. Itraconazole

Answer 742

Amphotericin B

Answer 743

Metronidazole | Tinidazole

Answer 744

Treatment - trophozoites= metronidazole or tinidazole - cysts= iodoquinol or paromomycin

Answer 745

Metronidazole

Answer 746

Metronidazole

Answer 747

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine + folinic acid

Answer 748

Amphotericin B

Answer 749

Early: Suramin | CNS involved: Melarsoprol

Answer 750

Benznidazole | Nifurtimox

Answer 751

Liposomal amphotericin B

Answer 752

Sodium stibogluconate

Answer 753

P. vivax, P. ovale - primaquine P. falciparum - chloroquine

Answer 754

Quinine + clindamycin

Answer 755

Benzimidazoles - Albendazole - mebendazole Pyrantel pamoate

Answer 756

Benzimidazoles - Albendazole - mebendazole Pyrantel pamoate

Answer 757

Benzimidazoles - Albendazole - mebendazole

Answer 758

Ivermectin | Albendazole

Answer 759

Benzimidazoles - Albendazole - mebendazole Pyrantel pamoate

Answer 760

Praziquantel

Answer 761

Surgical removal of cysts

Answer 762

Albendazole Praziquentel Dexamethaone: keep CNS symptoms from getting worse

Answer 763

Praziquantel

Answer 764

Praizquantel

Answer 765

Praziquantel | Albendazole

Answer 766

Diethylcarbamazine

Answer 767

Permethrin Pyrethrin | Malathion

Answer 768

Permethrin | Ivermectin

Answer 769

Inhibition of the cytochrome P450-dependent demethylation reaction

Answer 770

Hepatotoxicity | Myopathy

Answer 771

Diuretic Decrease CSF production by the choroid plexus

Answer 772

Alpha 1= vasoconstriction Beta 1= increase heart rate Labetalol alpha 1/beta 1 blocker

Answer 773

NRTIs main line - competitively inhibit nucleotide binding to reverse transcriptase and terminate the DNA chain Abacavir Didanosine Lamivudine Tenofovir

Answer 774

ADP receptor inhibitors -grel ticlopidine

Answer 775

Antiplatelet phosphodiesterase inhibitors Cilostazol Dipyridamole

Answer 776

Granulocytes

Answer 777

Lomustine | Cyclophosphamide

Answer 778

Amantidine (dopamine agonist) | Benzotropine (anticholinergic)

Answer 779

Proteasome inhibitor Blocks presentation of antigens to CD8 T lymphocytes

Answer 780

Increase availability of NE and dopamine

Answer 781

Lipohyalinosis with small vessel occlusion Lacunes are small cavitary infarcts in basal ganglia, result of occusion to small penetrating arteries

Answer 782

Dont reabsorb bile acids in terminal ileum --> less bile acids in bile so ratio of cholesterol/bile acids increases. Supersaturation of bile with cholesterol leads to formation of gallstones

Answer 783

Bile acid suplement

Answer 784

Cilostazol Inhibits platelet phosphodiesterase which is the enzyme responsible for break down of cAMP also vasodilator

Answer 785

Dopamine receptor antagonists - Phochlorperazine - Metocloprammide Serotonin (5-HT) receptor antagonist - Ondansetron - Granisetron Neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor antagonists - Aprepitant - Fosaprepitant

Answer 786

Antimuscarinics (anticholinergics) - scopolamine Antihistamines - diphehydramine - Meclizine - Promethazine

Answer 787

Fibrates | - fibrozil

Answer 788

Blocks Leukotriene B4

Answer 789

Sulfonurea Increases insulin secretion by inhibiting beta cell K ATP channel

Answer 790

Irreversibly inhibit acetylcholinesterase Increase ACh Tx Atropine

Answer 791

Decrease heart rate and contractility | Decrease O2 consumption

Answer 792

Carvedilol | Labetalol

Answer 793

``` Anticholinergics (risk of delirium, sedation, falls, constipati) Anti histamines Antidepressants Benzodiazepines opioids ``` alpha blocks (hypotension) PPIs (risk c. diff) NSAIDS (Gi bleed)

Answer 794

Taking Pills Necessitates Having blood Checked ``` Tacrolimus Protease inhibitors Niacin HCTZ Corticosteroids ```

Answer 795

You're having a Mega Blast with PMS Hydroxyurea Phenytoin Methotrexate Sulfa drugs

Answer 796

Myasthenia gravis - ab to acetylcholine recpetor Tx Indirect cholinergic agonist - Neostigmine - Edrophonium (diagnosis)

Answer 797

Muscarinic antagonist Reduces salivary, tracheobronchial and pharyngeal secretions

Answer 798

Muscarinic antagonist Antispasmodics for IBS

Answer 799

Muscarinic antagonist pupil dilation

Answer 800

Cyclophentolate Homotropine Tropicamide

Answer 801

"Off The Darn Toilet Seat" ``` Oxybutynin Tolterodine Darifenacin Trospium Solifenacin ```

Answer 802

Indomethacin - blocks prostaglandin synthesis - closes PDA

Answer 803

Macrolides - erythromycin - azithromycin Fluroquinoles - ciprofloxacin - mixifloxacin Antipsychotics - haloperidol - risperidone Antiemetics - ondansetron - metoclopramide

Answer 804

A. Cholesterol Thiazides inhibit Na/Cl cotransporter - Decrease Na and Cl - Compensatory rise in renin and aldosterone (hypokalemia) - Decrease insulin secretion and reduce glucose uptake into peripheral tissues ( hyperglycemia) - Also increase LDL cholesterol and TG levels

Answer 805

Opiod anti-diarrhea agent Binds Mu opiate receptor in GI and SLOWS MOTILITY Relieve diarrhea

Answer 806

D. IL-6 Predominantly CD4 T cells and macrophages Production of cytokines IL-6) Tocilizumab - Monoclonal Ab against IL-6

Answer 807

CHF Cirrhosis Thiazide diuretic ACE inhibitors NSAIDS

Answer 808

Highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART)

Answer 809

``` alpha agonist Beta blocker Diuretic (acetazolamide, mannitol) Cholinergic agonist Prostaglandins (PGF2alpha) ```

Answer 810

Bosentan - Endothelin- receptor antagonist - blocks effects of endothelin (vasoconstrictor that also stimulates endothelial proliferation) Decreases pulmonary arterial pressure and lessens the progression of vascular remodeling and right ventricular hypertrophy

Answer 811

Tesamorelin | GHRH analog

Answer 812

Typical neuroleptics - Thioridazine - Chlorpromazine 1st generation antihistamines - diphenhydramine - hydroxyzine TCA - Amitriptyline Amantidine - Anti influenza

Answer 813

Antihistamine Use: Appetite stimulant Antidote serotonin syndrome

Answer 814

Antihistamine | USe: Nausea and vomiitng

Answer 815

Antihistamine | Use: Sedation, itching

Answer 816

AntihistamineUse: vertigo

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