Pharma Rudman Flashcards
(273 cards)
1
Q
which of the ff componds after metabolizing to form acetaminophenis an ACTIVE analgesic and antipyretic agent?
a. propoxyphene
b. phenacetin
c. aminopyrine
d. phenylbutazone
e. acetylsalicylic acid
A
b. phenacetin
2
Q
which of the ff statements concerning ethyl is TRUE?
a. produce a true stimulation of the central nervous system
b. protects individual against exposure to cold by preventing heat loss
c. is metabolized primarily by the lungs
d. is partially absorbed in the stomach
e. possesse teratogenic properties
A
d. is partially absorbed in the stomach
3
Q
prolonged and continued use of which of the ff antibiotics will MOST likely results in damage to the VIII cranial nerve?
a. sttretomycin
b. auremycin
c. penicillin
d. tetracyne
A
a. streptomycin
4
Q
a side effect unique with erythromycin estolate (ilosome)
a. hypersensitivity response involving the liver
b. staphilicoccal enteritis
c. bone marrow depression
d. cranial nerve damage
e. renal damage
A
a.
5
Q
the active metabolite of the biotransformation of phenacetin is?
a. aniline
b. gentisic acid
c. salicylic acid
d. acetaminophen
e. phenacetylurea
A
d
6
Q
the MOST probable cause for serous toxic reaction to the local anesthetic is
a. psychogenic
b. deterioration of the anesthetic agen
c. hypersensitivity to the vasoconstrictor
d. hypersensitivity to the local anesthetic
e. excessive blood level of the local anesthetic
A
e.
7
Q
the PRIMARY effect produced by digitalis at therapeutic dose levels is to
a. slow the cardiac rate
b. increase the force of myocardial contraction
c. derease the venous pressure
d. decrease cardiac enlargement
A
b.
8
Q
the ONLY local anethetic which increase the pressure activity of both epinephrine and norephineprhrine is
a. cocaine
b. procaine
c. dibucaine
d. lidocaine
e. mepivacaine
A
a.
9
Q
alkalization of tubular urine slows the rate of excretion of
a. water
b. chlorides
c. weak acids
d. weak bases
A
d.
10
Q
local anesthetic agents ats PRIMARYLY
a. at a cortical level to decrease the patients awareness of pinimpulses
b. at the myoneural junction to decrease frequency of pain impulses reachin the CNS
c. on the axon membrane to prevent depolorizing potentials
d. at the ganglionic sites to decrease central pain input
e. none of the above
A
c.
11
Q
Atropine is DESIRABLE for preanesthetic medication because it
a. prevents vomiting
b. obtunds the cough reflex
c. reduces glandular secretion in the airway
d. increase secretions of the GI tract
e. decrease the physiologic dead space of the airway
A
c.
12
Q
which of the ff would be the drug of choice for the rapid relief of suspected coronary vasoconstriction (spasm) characterized by sharp chest pain, shortness of breath, and a history of previous attacks?
a. morphine
b. digitalis
c. quinidine
d. nitroglycerine
e. pentobarbital sodium
A
d.
13
Q
a patient receiving pranolol has an acute asthmatic attack while undergoing dental treatment. the MOST useful agent for management of the conditions would be
a. orphine
b. epinephrine
c. phenolamine
d. aminophylline
e. norepinephrine
A
d
14
Q
fo which of the ff conditions would steroidsbe used?
a. diabetes
b. acromegaly
c. tuberculosis
d. colagen ds
A
d.
15
Q
iron will be absorbed from the duodenum when
a. pH in thee stomach is high
c. high concentrations of phosphate are present in the diet
d the level of ferritin in the mucosal cells is high
e. oxidizing agent are resent in the duodenum.
A
b.
16
Q
action of the sympathetc nervous system may beblocked by ehich of th ff types of agents?
a. ganglionic blocks agents only
c. curariform agents only
c. adrenergicblock agents only
d. both ganglionic and adrenergic blocking agent
A
d.
17
Q
an excess of which of the ff hormones may be asso. with increased sensitivity to epinephrine?
a. tstosterone
b. parathyroid
c. insuline
d. thyroid
A
d.
18
Q
which of the ff would LIKELY appear with atropine overdosage?
a. dryness of mouth and throat
b. pallor of face and neck
c. constricted pupils
d. none of the above
A
a.
19
Q
which is NOT an estrogenic substance?
a. premarin
b. theelin
c. estradiol
d. stilbesterol
e. follicle stimulating hormone
A
e.
20
Q
hich of the ff statements describes in the part the cardiovascular effects of a pressor dose of epinephrine?
a. an increase in blood pressure is followed by a decrrease, a biphasic pressure response
b. total peripheral resistance is never decreased
c. the myocardium is istimulated by exognous epinephrine only at the sympathetic accelerator nerve endings
d. all blood vessels are constricted.
A
a.
21
Q
a hypnotic LIKELY to be suitable for use in an individual allergic to secobarbital is?
a. thiopental
b. pentobarbital
c. chloral hydrate
d. phenobarbital
e. propoxyphene
A
c.
22
Q
the outstanding advantage of diphenylhydrantoin over phenobarbital in the ttreatent of grandmal epilepsy is that diphenylhydrantoin
a. exerts less sedstion for a given degree of motor corte x depression
b. is effective in a greater percent of cases
c. needs to be given much less frequently
d. does not bring about addiction
A
a.
23
Q
some antidepressant drgs are known to inhibit the enzyme
a. cholinesterase
b. choline- acetylase
c. monoamine oxidase
d. o-methyltransferase
A
c
24
Q
if a patient requiring an extraction reports that he is on bishydroxycoumarin therapy, the laboratory test that would MOST valuable in evaluating the surgical risk is?
a. clotting time
b. bleeding time
c. sedimentation rate
d. CBC
e. plasma prothrombin time
A
e.
25
dilantin is the drug of choice for
a. jacksonian epilepsy
b. relief of visceral pain
c. relief of pheripheral pain
d. grandmal epilepsy
e. petitmal epilepsy
d.
26
which is not a general anesthetic?
a. benzylalcohol
b. cyclopropane
c. ethylene
d. vinyl ether
e. trichlorethylene
a.
27
which of the ff should NOT be adminitered to a patient with myasthenia gravis?
a. atropine
b. curare
c. insulin
d. digitlis
e. prsotagmine
b.
28
procaine may cause cardiovascular collapse because procaine blocks autonomic ganglia.
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
C.
29
in clinical testing of anew drug , the double blind design is not usually necessary because few drugs possess a true placebo effect
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
e.
30
dimercaprol (BAL) is effective in erly poisoning by mercuric salts because it successfully competes with essential sulfhydryl groups in the body for the binding and subsequent excretion of mercuric ions
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
a.
31
acid medium will increase the local anesthetic potency of procaine HCL bacause the undissociated form of procaine can penetrste easily the nerve membrane
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
d.
32
nitroglycerin can increase the coronary blood flow bacause it blocks the sympathetic nervous system
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
c.
33
epinephrine is contraindicated in asthmatic patients because epinephrine exerts a Beta Adrenergic effect on brochial smooth muscle
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
d.
34
the avialable evidence suggest that drugs penetrate or enter into cell membranes at the mostvrapid rate when they are in the unionized form because unionized drugs possess maximal water solubility
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
c.
35
the plasma level of weak organic acids may be reduced by sodium bicarbonate bacause this alkalizing agent promotesthe renalelimination of such acids.
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
a.
36
adminstration of which of teff drugs is MOST likely to PROLONG clotting time?
a. morphie
b. vitamin k
c. a barbiturate
d. acetaminophen
e. acetylsalicylic acid
e.
37
if a narcotic agent were chosen for intravenous sedation which of the ff drugs should be avaiable as the antagonist of choice?
a. naloxone
b. doxapram
c. pentazocine
d. fentanyl
e. diphenhydramine
a.
38
which ofthe ff is a frequent side effect of histmine therapy ?
a. anemia
b. anuria
c. diuretics
d. drowsines
e. autonomic nervous system overactivityy
d.
39
which of the ff is a local anesthetic subject to inactivation by plasma esterases?
a. procaine
b. lidocaine
c. prilocaine
d. mepivacaine
e. bupivacaine
a.
40
methoxylation of which of the ff compounds results in the formation of codein?
a. morphine
b. codeinone
c. oxycodone
d. methylmorphine
e. diacetylmorphine
a.
41
which of the ff drugs is used prinncipally for its diuretic action
a. aldosterone
b. angiotensin
c. meprobamate
d. vasopressin
e. . chlorothiazide
e.
42
which of the ff is a predictable result of a-adrenergic blockage?
a. mydriasis
b. xerostomia
c. bronchochonstricion
d. lowered blood pressure
e. dryness of nasal mucous membrane
d.
43
B1- adreneergic blocking agents will antagonize which of the ff actions of epinephrine?
a. glycogenolysis
b. cardiac acceleration
c. vasoconstriction in gatrointestinal vasculature
d. vasodilation of skeletal muscle vasculature
e. bronchodlation
b
44
which of the ff maybe useful as an infiltrative local anesthetic in a patient allergic to both amide and ester anesthetic derivatives?
a. N2O
b. bupivacaine
c. phenylephrine
d. diphendydramine
e. ethylaminobenzoate
d.
45
which of the ff is IRREVERSIBLE side effect resulting from long term administration of phenothiazine antipsychotics
a. sedation
b. xerstomia
c. infertility
d. parkinsonism
e. tardine dyskenisia
e.
46
```
withdraw of a patient from which of the ff drugs is attended by changes in the electroencephalogram and convulsions?
a. heroin
b . cocaine
c. morphine
d. secoarbital
e. methamphetamine
```
d
47
which of the ff drugs is aplied topically would produce mydriasis of short duration with no cycloplega?
a. atrophine
b. ephedrine
c. homatrophine
d. isoproterenol
e. diisopropylfluorophosphate
b.
48
it is a general rule in using antibiotic combination therapy to NEVER combine -_____ agents.
a. two bactericidal
b. two bacteriostatic
c. a bactericidal with a bacteriostatic
d. two analgesic
e. an analgesic with a bactericidal
c
49
admistration of which of the ff drugs INCREASES the likelihoof of toxic responses to digitalis?
a. reserpine
b. diazepam
c. lidocaine
d. spironolactone
e. chlorothiazine
e.
50
a 5 grain aspirin tablet contains approximately ____ milligramsof the drug
a. 75
b. 150
c. 325
d. 500
e. 700
c.
51
```
excitement and delirium are commonly present is tage of ether anesthesia
a. I
b. II
c.III, plane 1
d III, plane 3
e. IV
```
b.
52
which of the ff drugs is safe to administer to a patient who suffers from atrial tachycardia, is allergic to quinine and has no evidence of congestive heart failue?
a. digitoxin
b. quinidine
c. epinephrine
d. procainamide
e. acetylcholine
d.
53
which of the ff types of drug response is LEAST predictale in occurence?
a. side effect
b. idiosyncrasy
c. tachyphylaxis
d. therapeutic action
e. overdosage toxicity
b.
54
which of the ff drugs has the leaset anti-inflammatory activity?
a. prednisone
b. aldosterone
c. prednisolone
d. hydrocortisone
e. triamcinolone
b.
55
which of the ff drugs ,when administered intravenously, is LEAST likely to produce respiratory depression?
a. fentanyl
b. diazepam
c. thiopental
d. meperidine
e. pentobarbital
b.
56
which of the ff is NOT a property of tetracycline antibiotics?
a. absorption is impaired when taken with milk
b. the predispose to monilial superinfection
c. they form a stable complex ith the developing tooth matrix
d. they have a low tendency for sensitization but a very high therapeutic index
e. they are effective substitutes for penicillin in subacute bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis
e.
57
which f the ff drugs is an analgesic and antipyretic but does NOT have significant anti-inflammatory properties?
a. indomethacin
b. phenylbutzone
c. acetaminophen
d. sodium salicylate
e. acetylsalicylic acid
c.
58
following administration of 1% lidocaine,the patient feels faint and light headed and begins to wheeze. the injection of 0.5cc of 1:1,000 epinephrine subcutaneously will produce all of the ff effects EXCEPT?
a. sedation
b. bronchodilation
c. cardiac acceleration
d. increased systolic blod pressure
e. none of the above
a.
59
the blood level of a drug reflects all of the ff EXCEPT
a. absorptio
b. protein binding
c. mechanism f action
d. amount of drug given
e. succinylcholine
b.
60
each of the ff drgs is subject to hydrolysis by esterases EXCEPT
a. procaine
b. epinephrine
c. tetracaine
d. acetylcholine
e. sicinylchooline
b
61
excessive dose of acetylsalicylic acid can produce each of the ff EXCEPT
a. tinitus
b. hyperventilation
c. metabolic acidosis
e. gastrointestinal irritation
b.
62
activity of the hepatic drug metabolizing enzymes may be enhanced by each of the ff except?
a. dicumarol
b. meprobamate
c. phenobarbital
d. acetycholine
e. cigarette smoking
d.
63
administrstion of tricyclic antidepressant may cause each of the ff ECEPT?
a. xerostomia
b. orthostatic hypotension
c. immediate releif of acute depression
d. side effects similar to those of the phenothiazines
e. inhibition of norepinephrine reuptak by specific central nervous sytem adrenergic neurons
c.
64
each of the ff is a naturally occuring local mediator in man EXCEPT?
a. endorphin
b. histmain
c. bradykinin
d. prostaglndin
e. tetrahydrocannabinol
e
65
propanolol is CONTRINDICATED in each of the ff clinicl condition EXCEPT?
a. hypoglycemia
b. bronchial asthma
c. atrial tachycardia
d. congestive heart failure
c.
66
each of the ff drugs may results in blood dyscrasias EXCEPT?
a. codein
b. phenytoin
c. indomethacin
d. phenylbutazone
e. chloramphenicol
a.
67
the prostagandins produce all of the ff pharmacologic actions EXCEPT?
a. pyrexia
b. uterine contraction
c. increased gastric secretion
d. incresed capilalry permiability
e. pain when injected intradermally
c.
68
which of the following is NOT characteristic of the thiazide diuretics? they
a. increased renal excretion of sodium and chloride
b. increased renal excretion potassium
c. exacerbate existing diabetes
d. cause hypokalemia
e. cause hypoglycemia
e.
69
which of the ff is NOT true about acetaminophen?
a. is a non-prescription drug
b. cross-allergic with aspirin
c. possess both analgesic and antipyretic effects
d. may iduce methymoglobinemai at high doses
e. may be the pharmacologically active form of acetophenetidin (phenacetin)
b.
70
which of the ff antibiotics is cross allergic with penicillin and should NOT be admisnisered to the penicillin sensitive patient?
a. ampicillin
b. erythromycin
c. clindamycin
d. lincomycin
e. tetracycline
a.
71
which of the ff is NOT true regarding siccinylcholine?
a. it is structurally related to acetylcholine
b. it is generally adminstered intravenously
c. it is metabolized by pseudocholinesterase
d. its most serious toxic effect is apnea
e. it is antagonized by anticholinesterases.
e
72
the sulfonylurea hypoglycemic drugs are usually NOT iseful in childhood diabees because
a. they are antagonized by ACTH
b. they have low therapeutic indices
c. few pancreatic islet cells are active
d. they inhibit the physiologic production of insulin
e. none of the above
c.
73
adrenal steroids are used succesfully to treat all of the ff conditions EXCEPT ?
a. gastric ulcers
b. addisons disease
c. lupus erythematosus
d. rheumatoid arthritis
e. apthous stomatitis
a.
74
the germicidal action of benzalknium chloride is rpidly REDUCED in the presence of
a. soap
b. water
c. fluorides
d. inorganic matter
e. cationic detergents
a.
75
amide typesloca anesthetics are metabolized in the
a. serum
b. liver
c. spleen
d. kidneys
e. axoplasm
b.
76
the MOST probable causefor a serous toxic reaction to local anesthetic is
a. pychogenic
b. deterioration of the anesthetic agent
c. hypersensitivity to the vasoconstrictor
d. hypersensitivity to thelocal anesthetic
e. excessive blood level of the local anesthetic
e.
77
in angina pectoris, the MOST rapid and depedable relief will be provided by
a. oral glyceryl trinitrate
b. oral isosorbide dinitrate
c. oral erythrityl tetranitrate
e. ora pentaerythritol tetranitrate
d.
78
the PROBABLE mechanism of the bacteriostatic ction of sulfonamides involves
a. disruption of the cell membranes
b. coagulation of intracelllar proteins
c. reduction in oxygen utilization by the cells
d. inhibition of metabolism by binding acetyl groups
e. competition with para -aminobenzoic acin in folic acid synthesis
e.
79
nitroglycerin dilates the coronary arteries in angina pectoris by
a. decreasing the heart rate reflexly
b. increasing the metabolic work of the myocardium
c. direct action in smooth muscle in the vessel walls
d. increasg the effective refractory period in the atrium
e. blocking beta- adrenergic receptors
c.
80
a patient with grandmal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with
a. meprobamate
b. pentobarbital
c. trimethadione
d. ethosiximide
e. phenytoin
e.
81
phenothiazines are used to
a. produce muscle relaxation
b. alter psychotic behavior
c. suppress coughing
d. produce analgesia
e. produce hypophysis
b.
82
cardiovascular collapse elicited by a high circulating dose of a local anesthetic may be caused by
a. syncope
b. vagal stimulation
c. histamin realease
d. myocardial depression
e. medullary stimulation
d.
83
```
the PRINCIPAL centrl action of caffeine is in the
a. cerebral cortex
b. corpus callosum
c,. hypothalamus
d. spinal cord
e. medulla
```
a.
84
quinidine is used to treat
a. hypertension
b. angina pectoris
c. atrial fibrillation
d. ventricular fibrillation
e. cingestive heart failure
atrial fibrillation
85
diazepam is prefered to barbituates as an antianxiety agent because diazepam
a. produces no sedation
b. is a very short acting drug
c. is substantially less expensive
d. does not potentialte CNS depressanrs
e. has less addiction potential
e.
86
the general anesthesia,the last part of the CNS to be depressed is the
a. medulla
b. cerebrum
c. midbrain
d. cerebellum
e. spinal cord
a.
87
the ONLY local anesthetic which increases the pressor acrivity of both epinepgrine and norepinephrine is
a. cocaine
b. procaine
c. dibucaine
d. lidocaine
e. mepivacaine
a
88
the lenetration of a local anesthetic into venous tissue is a function of the
a. length of the central alkyl chain
b. lilid solunility of thd unionized form
c. lipid solubility of the unionized form
d. ester linkages between the aromatic nucleus and the alkyl chain
e. amide linkage between the aromatic nucleus and the alkyl chain
c.
89
the antagonist of choice in the treatment of opiod overdosage is
a. naloxone
b. nalorphine
c. pentazocine
d. levallorphan
e. propoxyphene
a.
90
inhilation general anesthetics ppsses relatively LOW therspeutic indices, but their clinical safety is greatly INCREASED by
a. rapid renal excreation
b. rapid liver metabolism
c. extreme esse in reversing tissue concsntrstion
d. ready reversal of effects by antsgonist
e. none of the above
c.
91
therapy with nonendocrine antineoplastic agents is asso. with
a. mutagenicity
b. bone marrow depression
c. decreased immume response
d. gastrointestinal and orsl ulcerstions
e. all of th above
e.
92
cardiac arrythmias MOST commonly seen during administration of
a. thiopentsl
b. halothane
c. ethyl ether
d. nitrous oxide
e. none of the above
b
93
the drug of choice for initial therspy for mild hylertension is
a. reserpine
b. guanethidine
c. phenobarbital
d. chlorothiazide
e. alpha- methyldopa
d.
94
the inorganic ion which is Primarily implicated in hypertension is
a. sodium
b. fluoride
c. potassium
d. magnesium
e. ammonium
a.
95
the MOST common clinical cause of bacterial resistance is
a. improper antibiotic selection
b. faulty gastrointestinal absorption of antibiotics
c. use of antibiotics when they are not indicsted
d. fsilure to use culture and zensitivity test
e. none of the above
c.
96
neostigmine can stimulate denervatted skeletalmuscle because it
a. is a congener of acetylcholine
b. is a competitive blocking agemt
c. has no effect on acetylcholinesterase
d. is more potent that diisopropylfluorophosphate
e. is capable of acting directly on the end plate
e.
97
propanolol is a value in treating angina pectoris becaise it
a. has a direct action on vascular smooth muscle
b. blocks autoregulatory mechanism in the heart
c. inhibits oxygen metabolism in cardiac cells
d. provides relief wothin seconds of an avute anginal attack
e. prevents chronotropic responses to endogenous epinephrine emotions and exercise
e.
98
the signature portion of the prescriptuon contains
a. the full personal signature of the doctor
b. the drug name plus the unit dosage
c. instructions to the pharmacisr concerning dispensing the drug
d. instructions to the patient regarding tsking the medication
e. age, sex and address of the pstient
d.
99
the oral contraceptives exert their primary effect by
a. inhibiting ovulation
b. spermatocidal action
c. blocking implantation
d. decreasing uterine motility
e. stimulating FSH release from the pituitsry
a.
100
amphetaminesacts by
a. promoting storage of the mediator
b. causing rapid release of the mediator
c. causing low depletion of the mediator
d. combining with a receptor substance on the effector cell
e. interfering with the response of the receptor to the mediator
b.
101
the drug MOST commonly used to treat severe mentsl depression is
a. sodium
b. imilramine
c. chlorpromazine
d. tranylcypromine
e. dextroamphetsmine
b.
102
idiosuncracies to drugs are telated to
a. species
b. genetic factors
c. age of the patient
d. allergies
e. all of the above
e.
103
gastric acid secretion has been shown to be MOST effectively reduced with the use of
a. adrenal stenosis
b. anticholinergicdrugs
c. serotonin antagonisr
d. H1 histsmine receptor antagonists
e. H2 histsmine receptor antsgonist
e.
104
theratioof the median lethal dose ( LD50) to the mediameffective dose (ED50 ) is the
a. morbidity index
b. mortslity index
c. anesthetic ratio
d. therapeutic index
e. none of the above
d.
105
the sole therapeutic advantage of lenicillin V over penicillin G is
a. greater resistance to penicillinase
b. broader antibacterial spectrum
c. more reliableoral absorption
d. slower renal excrerion
e. none of the above
c.
106
the use of vasocnstrictors in combinations with local anesthetics is CONTRAINDICATED in a dental patient
a. with angina pectoris
b. who is hypertensive
c. who had rheumatic fever
d. who has had a myocardial infarction
e. with parkinson ds whk is on levodopa therapy
e.
107
a distinct advantage that tetracycline have over penicillins is that tetracyclines
a. have no side effects
b. do not cause superinfections
c. are safer to use during pregnancy
d. have a wider range of antibacterial activoty
e. produce higher blood levels faster after oral administrarion
d.
108
the most frequent cause of fainting asso. with local anesthetic used in dental practice is
a. psychic factors
b. hylersensitivuty reactions
c. excessive alkalinity of the injected solutiom
d. excessive acidity of the anesrhetic solutiom
e. deterioration of the anesthetic zolution
a.
109
lidocaine is more widely used than procainein routine dentla practice because lidocaine
a. is a vasoconstrictor
b. does not cause CNS stimulation
c. cause fewer allergic reactuons
d. is less likely to cause cardiovascular collapse
e. is 50 times more potentas a local anesthetic
c.
110
the two instances in which epinephrine is imdicated in fental office emergencies are
a. anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest
b. acute hypotension and respiratory arrest
c. hypovolemia and myocardial infarction
d. respiratory arrest and extrapyramidal reactions to phenothiazines
a.
111
a patient with a history of rheumatic heart ds is schedule for a dental procedure. according to the guidelines published by american heart association in 1977, the patient should receive what dosage of penicillin?
a. 250 mg
b. 500 mg
c. 750 mg
d. 1 gram
e. 2 grams
e.
112
nystatin mayne used to treat oral infections due to
a. herpesvirus
b. candida albicans
c. treponema pallidum
d. strep. pyogenes
e. bacteroides melanogenicus
b.
113
which of the ff drugs is MOST often used to dry secretions in the oral cavity?
a. diazepam
b. promethazine
c. physostigmine
d. prolantheline
e. diphenhydramine
d.
114
which of the ff disease states is a CONTRAINDICATION to the use of nitrous oxide oxygen?
a. epilepsy
b. hypertension
c. angina pectoris
d. history of recent myocardial infarction
e. none of the above
e.
115
which of the ff conditions is a CONTRAINDICATION to the use of atrophine to reduce salivation?
a. glaucoma
b. peptic ulcer
c. bladder disease
d. parkinsons disease
e. cardiovascular ds
a.
116
which of the ff is NOT a problem encountered by the demtisr in treating s patient on chronic adrenal cortocosteroid therspy?
a. signs of inflammation are masked
b. tendency to bleed is increasef
c. susceptibility to infection is increased
d. ability to withstand stress is decreased
e. none of the above
b.
117
a dental patienton clinidine therapy for hypertension MOST oftencomplains of
a. restlessness
b. xefostomia
c. severe postural hypertension
d. frequent visits to the bathroom
e. none of the above
b.
118
which of the ff antiepileptic drugs causes hyperplasia of the gingiva?
a. phenytoin
b. valproic acid
c. ethosuximide
s. carbamazepine
e. trimethadione
a.
119
administration of ehich of the ff drugs will NOT inhibit secretory activity in the oral cavity?
a. atropine
b. ephedrine
c. scopolamine
d. mecamylamine
e. dilhenhydramine
b.
120
premedication of the dental patient is directed toward
a. providing patient safety and comfort
b. providing ease for fhe operatoe to perform technical procefures
c. lessening patient anxiety
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
d.
121
premedication of the dental patient is directed toward
a. providing patrient safety snd comfort
b. providing ease for the olerstor to lerform technical prpcedures
c. lessening patient anxiety
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
d.
122
for the dentist , the MOST reliable method of detecting a patients allergy to penicillin is by
a. injecting penicillin intradermaly
b. taking a thourough medical history
c. placing a drop of penicillin on the eye
d. having the patient inhale a penicillin aerosol
e. injecting a small amount of penicillin intravenously
b.
123
which of the ff drugs is MOST likely to dry secretions in the oral cavity/
a. diazepam
b. promethazine
c. physostigmine
d. propantheline
e. diphenhydramine
d.
124
in providing the pregnant pateint ith denal treatment which of the ff principes should be followed?
a. no drugs, especially general anesthetics, should be administered during the first trimester
b. local anesthetics, as far as currently known may be safely admininstered dduring pregnancy
c. beyond the first rimester, all drugs maybe safely administered
d. all dental ttreatment should be postponed until the end of pregnancy
e. the patient should not be administered any analgesic during the entire pregnancy
a.
125
```
which of the ff clinical situations are proper indications for the prophylactic use of antibiotics?
I. history of rheumatic disease
II. prevention of localized osteitis (dry socket)
III. history of congenital heart disease
IV. prior to osseos bone grapts in peridontal therapy
V. history of intracardiac prosthesis
the CORRECT answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, V
c. I, V
d. II, III, IV
e. III, IV, V
```
b.
126
```
administration of which of the ff drugs would produce vasoconstriction of the gingival vessels?
I. levonordefrrin
II. phentolamiine
III. epinephrine
IV. propanolol
V. phenylephrine
the CORRECT answer is
a. I, II
b. I, III
c. I, III, V
d. II, IV, V
e. II, IV
```
c.
127
```
drugs which are commonly used used in the control of excessive salivation include
I. meprobamate
II. atropine
III. methantheline
IV. codeine
V. chlorpromazine
the CORRECT answer is
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. II, III
d. II, III, IV
e. IV, V
```
c
128
```
accrdg to federal law, a CORRECT prescription for a shedule II drug MUST contain the
I. adress of the patient
II. address of the dentist
III. state license number of the dentist
IV DEA number of the dentist
V. generic name of a drug
the CORRECT answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I,II, IV
c. I, II, IV, V
d. I, III, IV
e. II, IV, V
```
b.
129
in treating infections of the oral cavity, penicillin is usually the drug of choice because
I. penicillin is both bacteriostatic and bactericidal depending on dosage
II. gram positive organism are most susceptible to penicliin
III. penicilln is unlikely to cause superinfection
IV. penicillin is very effective ehrn used topically in the oral cavity
I. large doses of penicillin can be administered without toxic reactions
the CORRECT answer is
a. I, II, III, V
b. I, II, IV
c. II, IV, V
d. III, IV, V
e. all of the above
a.
130
which of the ff statements are TRUE regarding the fluoride ion?
I. calcium fluoride is poorly absorbed from the G.I. tract
II. only calcified tissue has a greater concentration of fluoride than plasma
III. mottling of dental enamel occurs only at concentrations greater than 4ppm
IV. acute fluoride intoxification is not possible due to rapid renal excretion
V. systemic ingestion protects from dental caries by formation of fluorohydroxyapatite
the CORRECT answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, V
c. I, V
d. II, III, IV
e. II, IV
b.
131
```
which of the ff statements describes the properties of nitrous oxide?
I. it has no analgesic properties
II. it has nauseating odor
III. it has a low blood/gas partition coefficient
IV. its potency as a general anesthetic is low
V.it is higly soluble in lipids
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b.I ,II, III
c. II, III, IV
d. III, IV
e. III, IV, V
```
d.
132
```
which of the ff drugs should be availabe for treatment ofemergencies in the dental office?
I. oxygen
II. epinephrine
III. ephedrine
IV. amyl nitrate
V. aromatic spirits of ammonia
VI. an ahitistamine
VII. norepinephrine
the correct answer is
a. I,II, III, V
b. I, II, III, VII
c. I, II, IV, V, VI
d. I, III, V, VII
e. II, IV, VI, VII
```
c.
133
enhancement of the specificity of drug action maybe achieved by
I. structural manipulation of the drug molecule
II. altering the dose of the drug
III. altering the route of administration of the drug
IV. administering the drug with another agent which secifically antagonzes certain of the drugs effects
the correct answer is
a. I, II,III
b. I, IV
c. II, IV
d. IV only
e.all of the above
b.
134
```
therapeutic doses of morphine administered intramuscularly may produce
I. constipation
II. euphoria
III. dysphoria
IV. metal louding
V. decreased response to pain
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, II, IV
c. I, IV, V
d. III, IV, V
e. all of the above
```
e.
135
```
important steps in the treatment of babiturate poisoning include
I. maintaining an open airway
II. increasing the input of afferent stimuli
III. maintaining respiration
IV. administering a narcotiv antagonist
V. administering the CNS stimulant
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, II, III, V
c. I, III
d. II, V
e. IV only
```
c
136
```
therapy with reserpine may result in
I. an increase in salivary secretion
II. a decrease heart rate
III. nasal congestion
IV. sedation
V. mental depression
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, III
c. II, IV, V
d. IV, V
e. all of the above
```
e.
137
```
blood alcohol level is determined primarily by
I. rate of metabolism
II. body weight
III. mindset
IV. presence of food in the stomach
V. rate of urinary excretion
the correct answer is
a. I, II,III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, IV, V
d. II, III, IV
e. III, IV, V
```
b.
138
```
based on its known mechanism and sites of action, scopolamine should THEORETICALY be useful in
I. treatment of peptic ulcer
II.providing euphoria and amnesia prior to surgery
III. relieving bronchoconstriction
IV. relieving some of the symptoms of parkinsons disease
V. visualization of the retina
the correct answer is
a. I,II,IV,V
b.I, II, V
c. I, III
d. II, V
e. all of the abone
```
e.
139
```
drugs whic are addictive with or potentiate the effecta of acetylcholine include
I. methacholine
II. scopolamine
III. pralidoxime
IV. neostigmine
V. pilocarpine
the correct answer is
a. I,II,III
b. I,III, IV
c. I, IV, V
d. II, IV, V
e.III, IV, V
```
c.
140
```
after pretreatment with phentolamine, IV administration of epinephrine should result in
I. relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
II. positive chronotropic and inotrophic effects
III. splanchnic vasoconstrition
IV. dilation of skeletal muscle vascular beds
V. secretion of mucoid viscous saliva
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, II, IV
c. I, IV, V
d. III, IV
e. III, IV, V
```
b
141
the most anaphylactic reactions to penicillin occur
I. when the drug is administered orally
II. in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug
III. in patients with negative skin test to penicillin allergy
IV. when the drug is administered parentally
V. within minutes after drug administration
the corret answer is
a. I, II, IV
b. II, III, IV
c. II, IV, V
d. II, V
e. III, IV, V
C.
142
```
the benificial effects of digitalis in congestive heart failure result in part from the fact that digitalis causes an
I. decrease is end-diastolic volume
II. decrease is end-diastolic pressure
III. increase in stroke volume and cardiac outpu
IV. decrease incentral venous pressure
V. decrease in rate of the heart when tachycardia exist
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, III
c. III, IV
d. V only
e.all of the above
```
e.
143
```
therapeutic effects of aspirin include
I. analgesia
II. tranquilization
III. pyretic action
IV. anti- inflammatory action
V. antirheumatic action
the correct answer is
a.I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. I, IV, V
d. II, III, IV
e. II, IV, V
```
c.
144
the occupational theory of drug -receptor interaction states that
I. the magnitude of teh drug response is proportional to the number of receptors occupied
II. a partial agonist has intrinsic activity but no affinity on the receptr site
III. an antagonist drug has affinity but no intrinsic activity
IV. the rate at which the drug receptor complex associates and dissociates determines drug efficacy
V. the degree of drug action is dependent on the law of mass action
the correct answer is
a. I II, III
b. I, III, V
c. II, III, IV
d. II, V
e. III, IV, V
b.
145
the blockage produced by t-tubocurarine is characterized by an
a. defect in the conduction mechanism of the nerve
b. decrease of the end plate potential to 30% or less in its original value
c. failure of the axon potential to synthesize acetylcholine
d. failure of the axon potential to realease acetylcholine
e. initial stimulation, followed by stabilization of te postsynaptic membrane
b.
146
in a patient being treated with an oral anticoagulant , thrombin solution (applied topically) would be an effective accelerator of the bloo clotting process because
a. thombin promotes fibrinolysis
b. thrombin combines with the anticoagulant and prevents the local actions of the drug
c. thrombin antagonizes thos effects of the anticoagulant resulting in a decrease synthesia of plasma factor VII by the liver
d. the effect of thombin is independent of whenther thrombin exist in plams
e. thrombin acts drectly to ccelerate the formation of plasma thromboplastin
d.
147
the mechanism of antipyretic action of salicylates probably results from
a. inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis in the CNS affecting hypothalamic temperature regulation
b. inhibiton of bradikinin in the periphery leading to sweating
c. depression of oxidative enzymes leading to decreased heat production
d. suppression of cholinergic mediators in the hypothalamus
e. stimulation of norepinephrine in the hypothalamus
a.
148
```
drugs maybe excretd in uchanged form through the
I. lungs
II. skin
III.saliva
IV.kidneys
V.colon
the correect answer is
a. I,III, IV
b. I, IV, V
c. II, III, IV, V
d. III, V
e. all of the above
```
e.
149
```
cholinergic crisis maybe produced by
I. neostigmine
II. scopolamne
III. organophosphate insecticides
IV. pilocarpine
V.isoproterenol
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. I, IV
d. III, IV
e. III, IV, V
```
e.
150
```
administration of an ___ causes dry mouth, a decrease in secretory and motor activity of the gastrointestinal tract , mydriasis and difficulty in accomodation
I. antimuscarinic drug
II. ganglionic blocking agent
III. anticholinestherase
IV. b adrenergic antagonist
V. indirect acting adrenergic drug
the correct answer is
a. I, II,
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III
d. IV, V
e. any of the above
```
a.
151
```
which of the ff are characteristics of morphine , meperidine, methadone? they
I. depression and respiration
II. cause constipation
III. are effective in the relief of severe pain
IV. cause mydriasis
V. areantagonized by nalorphine
the correct nwer is
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, III, V
c. I, II, IV, V
d. I, III, IV, V
e. II, III, IV, V
```
b.
152
which of the ff determine the rate of passive diffusion of a drug across the intestinal wall membrane?
I. size of the drug molecule
II. degree of ionization of the drug
III. concentration of the drug in the intestine
IV. degree t owhich the drug is bound to plasma proteins
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b I, II, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III, IV
e. all of the above
e.
153
which of teh ff are TRUE regarding the cephalosphorin antibiotic? they
I. are chemically related to penicillin G
II. have a broad spectrum of activity
III. are effective against penicillinase producing microorganism
IV. are posibly cross allergenic with penicillin
V. are bacteriostatic
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. II, V
e. III, IV, V
b
154
```
which of the ff charactarterized nitrous oxide ?
I. slow recovery
II. good analgesia
III. respiratory rate stimulation
IV. poor muscle rate stimulation
V. rapid induction in concentration of 80%
the correrct answer is?
a. I, II, V
b.I, III, IV
c. II, IV, V
d. III, IV, V
e. all of the above
```
c.
155
```
which of the ff penicillins are readily INACTIVATED BY B-lactamase (penicillinase)
I. penicillin G
II. phenoxymethyl penicilln
III. methicillin
IV. ampicillin
V. cloxacillin
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b.I, II, IV
c. I, II, V
d. II, III, IV
e. II, IV, V
```
b.
156
which of the ff effects characterized drugs used for preanesthetic mediction?
I. morphine and other narcotics ted to prolong the anesthetic state.
II. th barbituates may contribute to postanesthetic excitement, particularly in the presence of pain.
III.atropine may cause crdiac acceleration
IV. scopolamine tend to obscure eye signs
V. the phenothiazines predispose to vomiting
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, III, IV, V
c. II, III, IV
d. II, V
e. III, IV, V
a.
157
```
which of the ff are IMPORTANT criteria for an adequate clinical evaluation of the efficacy of a new drug?
I. contol groups
II. placebo indication
III. double blind experimental design
IV. comparison with a standard drug
V. evaluation of toxicity
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. II, III, IV
c. III, IV, V
d. I, III
e. all of the above
```
e.
158
```
which of the ff clinically useful agents agents is active against fungi but NOT bacteria?
I. nystatin
II. neomycin
III. cephalothin
IV. griseofulvin
V. amphotericin B
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, V
c. I, IV, V
d. II, III, IV
e. II, III, V
```
C.
159
```
which of the ff agentd should be availble for treatment for emergencies in the dental office?
I. oxygen
II. ephinephrine
III. isoproterenol
IV. a long acting vasopressor
V. aromatic spirit of ammonia
VI. an injectable antihistamin
VII. hydrocortisone sodium succinate
the correct answer is
a. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. I, IV, V
d. II, III, IV
e. II, VI, VII
f. IV, VI, VII
g. V ,IV, VII
h. all of the above
```
h.
160
```
prolonged use which of the ff drugs may predispose to postoperative bleeding?
I. acetylsalicylic acid
II. diphenhydrantoin
III. chlorpromazine
IV. bishydroxycoumarin
V. phenobarbital
VI. tripelennamine
the correct answer is
a. I, IV
b. I, V
c. II, III
d. II, IV
e. III, VI
```
a.
161
```
both reserpine and chlorpromazine have which of the ff effects?
I. antiemetic
II. tranquilizing
III. muscle relaxation
IV. cause parkinson-like syndrome
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, III
c. I, IV
d. II, III
e. II, IV
```
E.
162
```
which of the ff clinical situations are indications for the use of the phenothiazines?
I. neuroses
II. LSD overdosage
III. nausea due to motion sickness
IV. psychoses
V. analgesic potentiation
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, V
c. II, III, IV
d. II, IV, V
e. II, III, V
```
d.
163
currently available local disinfectant act by
I. selective and specific metabolic interference in the growth of only gram positive organisms
II. precipitation of bacterial protein
III. oxidizing bacterial protoplasmic constituents
IV. increasing the membrane permeability of the bacterium
the correct naswer is
a. I, III
b. I, IV
c. II, IV
d. II, III, IV
e. all of the above
d.
164
```
the side effects asso. with the Rauwolfia derivatives (such as reserpine) are
I. tachycardia
II. nasal stuffiness
III. postural hypotension
IV. potentiation of barbitute and narcotic agents
the correct answer is
a. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. all of the above
```
c.
165
the concentration of a volatile anesthetic agent in the blood depends upon the
I. partial pressure of the anesthetic gent in alveolar space
II. permeability of the alveolar membrane
III. respiratory minute volume
IV. hemoglobin content of the blood
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, IV
c. I, II, III
d. II, III, IV
e. all of the above
c.
166
```
some general anesthetic agents predispose the patient to epinephrine indiced cardiac irregularitieseven when the patient receives adequate amount of oxygen. examples of such agents include
I. ethylene
II. chloroform
III. diehyl ether
IV. ethyl chloride
V. nitrous oxide
VI. tricloroethylene
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. I, V, VI
d. II, IV, V
e. II, IV, VI
f. III, V, IV
```
c.
167
which of the ff statements regarding a schedule 11 prescription are true?
I. cannot be prescribed by the telephone
II. must contain both the generic and brand name of the drug
III. in addition to federal statues, individual states may have additional requirements
IV. cannot be refilled even with the consent of the prescriber
V. only valid when accompanied by a narcotic registry number
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. II, III, IV
c. I, III, V
d. I, II, III, IV
e. I, III, IV, V
e.
168
```
which of the ff contribute to the analgesic effects of morphine?
I. sedation
II. euphoria
III. impairment of nerve conduction
IV. altered threshold of nerve endings
V. elevation of nerve threshold within the CNS
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, V
c. II, III, IV
d. II, I,V, V
e. II, IV, V
```
b.
169
which of the ff statements regarding the occupation theory of drug receptor interaction are TRUE?
I. the affinity of a drug is dependent on its inherent intrinsic activity
II. the maximum effect of the drug occurs when all receptors are occupied
III. an antagonist has affinity for the receptors but less intrinsic activity than an agonist
IV. the effect of the drug is proportionaly to the number of receptors occupied
V. It does not follow the law of mass action
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. II, III, V
c. III, IV, V
d. II, IV
e. II, III
d.
170
which of the ffntibiotics is LEAST toxic?
a. vancomycin
b. streptomycin
c. erythromycin
d. chloramphericol
e. oxytetracycline
c
171
which of the ff anticoagulants is NOT therapeuticaly effective when administered orally
a. bishyhydroxycoumarin
b. warfarin soduim
c. heparin sodium
d. anisindione
e. none of the above
c.
172
which of the ff regarding propoxyphene is NOT true?
a. a schedule IV drugs
b. often formulated with aspirin or APC
c. prepared as hydrochloride and napsylate salts
d. analgesic efficacy comparale to morphine
e. side effcts include drowsiness and disorientation
d.
173
which of the ff is NOT characteristic of the henothiazine group compounds?
a. antiemetic
b. antipsychotic
c. anticonvulsant
d. antiadrenergic
e. anticholinergic
c
174
which of the ff drugs and adverse effects is INCORRECTLY paired?
a,. phenylbutazone - gastric bleeding
b. halothane - hepatic necrosis
c. streptomuycin - 8th cranal nerve damage
d. penicillin G- blood dyscrasias
e. clindamycin- pseudomembranous colitis
d.
175
the use of ganglionoc blocking agents in the treatment of hypertension has DECREASED because of the occurence of disturbing side effects which include all of the ff EXCEPT?
a. constipation
b. blurred vision
c. urinary retention
d. excessive sweating
e. postural hypotension
d.
176
excessive dose of acetylsalicylic acid can produce each of the following EXCEPT?
a. tinnitus
b. hypothermia
c. hyperventilation
d. metabolic acidosis
e. gastrointestinal irritation
b.
177
any of the ff drugs can be used in the treatment of cardiac arrythmia EXCEPT?
a. phenytoin
b. lidocaine
c. quinidine
d. propanolol
e. epinephrine
e.
178
each of the ff antihypertensive drugs is a neuronal blocking agent except?
a. reserpine
b. . hydralazine
c. guanethidine
d. alpha methyl-dopa
e. monoamine oxidase
b.
179
each of thr ff exerts its MAJOR pharmacologic effect by some action on prostaglandins EXCEPT?
a. aspirin
b. probenecid
c. indomethacin
d. phenylbutzone
e. none of the above
b
180
by law, a prescription for meperidine must contain all of the ff information EXCEPT?
a. patients age
b. patients name
c. paients address
d. prescribers address
e. DEA number of prescriber
a.
181
ganglonic blocking drugs produce all of the ff effects EXCEPT?
a. diuresis
b. xerostmia
c. constipation
d. blurred vision
e. postural hypotension
a.
182
use of ethyl alcohol is characterized by all of the ff EXCEPT?
a. development of fatty liver
b. continous depression of CNS
c. developement of limited tolerance
d. occurence of peripheral neuropathies
e. cutaneous vasoconstriction following ingestion
a.
183
all of the ff actions are asso. with the use of chlorpromazine EXCEPT?
a. jaundice
b. photosensitivity
c. excessive salivaton
d. anticholinergic effects
e. antiadrenergic effects
e.
184
the dosage of a given drug is determined by all of the following EXCEPT?
a. its ED50
b. its potency
c. its half life
d. its allerginicity
e. the rate of its biotransformation
d.
185
each of the ff agents has been asso. with gastric irritation except?
a. aspirin
b. alcohol
c. ibuprofen
d. indomethacin
e. acetaminophen
e.
186
each of the ff is an undesirable effect asso. with phenytoin EXCEPT?
a. ataxia
b. nystagmus
c. photophobia
d. blood dyscrasias
e. gingival hyperplasia
c.
187
each of the ff is a predictavle adverse effect of drugs that block the sympathetic nervous system EXCEPT?
a. gastrointestinal disturbance
b. postural hypotension
c. nasal congestion
d. urinary retention
e. miosis
d
188
symptoms of poisoning by an organophosphate insecticide include all of the following EXCEPT?
a. skeletal muscle fasciculitions
b. excessive salivation
c. bronchoconstriction
d. hot, dry skin
e. diarrhea
d
189
levodopatherapy for parkinson disease ay result in each of the ff effects EXCEPT?
a. development of abnormal ,involuntry movements especially in the face
b. extreme sensitivity to sympathomimetic drugs
c. exacerbations of an acut psychosis
d. nausea and vomiting
e. extreme sedation
e.
190
```
cardiovascular collapse elicited by a high plasma level of a local anesthetic is MOST likely to be caused by
. syncope
b. vagal stimulation
c. histamine release
d. myocardial depression
e. medullary stimulation
```
-
191
gastrointestinal upset and pseudomembranous colitis have been prominently asso. with the use of which of the ff anti-infective agents/
a. nystatin (mycostatin)
b. cephalexin ( keflex)
c. clindamycin ( cleocin)
d. polymyxin B ( aerosporin)
e. erythromycin ( erythrocin)
-
192
the HIGHEST risk asso. with the use of oral contraceptives is
a. hepatic necrosis
b. permanent sterility
c. cancer of the breast
d. cancer of the uterus
e. thromboembolic disorders
-
193
lidocaine produces its antiarrythmic effects by
a. increasing AV conduction
b. decresing cardiac excitability
c. increasing cardiac conduction velocity
d. increasing spontaneous pacemaker activity
e. decreasing spontaneous pacemaker activity
-
194
at pH of 7.8, lidocaine (pk= 7.8) will exist is
a. the ionized form
b. the nonionized form
c. an equal mixture of ionized and nonionized form
d. a mixture 10 times more ionized than nonionized forms
e. a mixture 12 times more ionized than nonionized forms
-
195
the use of epinephrine for local hemostasis during surgery might result in
a. hypoglycemia
b. cardiac arrythmia
c. an acute asthmatic attack
d. a drastic drop in blood pressure
e. all of he above
-
196
in accordance with the latest recommendatons of the american heart associtions and the american dental asso., a dental patient with a prosthetic heart valve with no drug allergies should receive prophylactically which of the ff antibiotic combinations?
a. ampicillin and cephalexin
b. ampicillin and gentaycin
c. gentamycin and erythromycin
d. erythromycin and tetracyclin
e. penicillin G potassium and vancomycin
b
197
alcoholic euphoria results from ____ activity of ____.
a. increased: the cerebellum
b. increased : cerebral areas
c. increased: spinal synapses
d. decreased : medulalry centers
e. removal of inhibitory : the cortex
e
198
sulfonylureas cause insulin secretion by
a. adrenergic stimulation
b. cholinergic stimulaion
c. direct stimulation of pancreatic B cells
d. adrenergic blocking
e. anticholinergic effects
c
199
atropine and prpanthelin exert their effects on pheripheral structures by ____ acetylcholine.
a. preventing release of
b. preventing synthesis of
c. enhancing destruction ogf
d. competing for receptor sites with
e. producing physiologic effects opposite to those of
d
200
use of diphenhydramine (benadryl) in controlling the symptoms of parkinsonism is based upon which of the ff effects?
a. anticholinergic
b. local anesthetic
c. adrenergic-blocking
d. CNS depressant on the midbrain
e. stimulant to dopaminergic nerves in the basal ganglia
a
201
which of the ff factors contribute to the short duration of anesthe actionof a single dose of thiopental?
a. rapid biotransformation
b. rapid accumulation in body fat
c. high liped solubility of the undissociated form
d. ability to nter and leave brain tissue very rapidly
e. viral infection
d
202
which of the ff conbination of agents wold be necessary to block the cardiovascular effects produces by the injecttion of a sypathomimetic drug?
a. atropin and prazosin
b. atrophine and propanolol
c. prazosin and propanolol
d. phenoxybenzamine and curare
e. amphetamine and prpanolol
c
203
which of the ff is anopiod tha has both agoisttic and antagonistic activities?
a. codeine
b. methadone
c. naloxone
d. meperidine
d. pentazocine
e
204
glucocoticoids are useful as secondary treatment of an aphylaxis because they
a. inhibit the productin of antibodies
b preen the union of angtigen with atibody
c. prevent the release of histamine from sensitized cells
d. supress the inflammatory response to cell injury
e. inhibit the release o serotonin from vascular storage sites
d
205
the locus action of aspiris central antipyretic effect is the
a. brainstem
b. hypothalamus
c. basal ganglia
d. limbic system
e. cerebral cortex
b
206
benzodiazepines exert their MAIN effect on
a. neuromuscular junctions
b. peripheral reflex synapses
c. central GABAergic neurons
d. cental serotonergic neurons
e. central adrenergic nerve endings
c
207
if a patient requiring an extraction reorts that he is on dicumarol therapy, the lboratory test MOST valuable in evaluating the surgical risk is?
a. clotting time
b. bleeding time
c. sedimentation rate
d. complete blood cell count
e. plasma prothrombin time
e
208
injection of a pressor dose of norepinephrine may result in a decreased heart rate because of the
a. activation of baroreceptor reflex
b. direct stimulation of a-receptors
c. direct stimulation of B1 receptors
d. direct stimulation of B2 receptors
e. direct stimulation of muscarinic receptors
a
209
a denist administers 1.8mL of a 2% solution of lidocaine. how many mg of lidocaine did the pateint receive?
a. 3.6
b. 9
c. 18
d. 36
e. 180
d
210
of the ff sympathomimetic agents , the MOST potent bronchodilator is?
a. amphetamine
b. norepinephrine
c. phenylephrine
d. isoproterenol
e. methoxamine
d
211
the mechanism of action of H1 antihistamines is
a. MAO enzyme inhibitions
b. competitive antagonism
c. physiologic ntagonism
d. noncometitive antgonis,
e. inhibition of release of bond histamine
b
212
a drug has a half life of 4 hours. if 2 grams of the drug are given every 4hours, what will be the amont in grams in the body immediately after the third dose?
a. 1.5
b. 2.0
c. 3.5
d. 4.0
e. 6.0
c
213
which of the ff combinations represents accetable agonist- antagonist pair in antidontal therapy?
a. morphine- naloxone
b. dicumarol - protamine
c. warfarin - phenylbutazone
d. carbon monoxide - carbon dioxide
e. all of the above
a
214
the decrease in ventilation caused by morphine ,mepiridine and some of the related opiods depends CHIEFLY upon
a. depression of cortical activity
b. peripheral blockage of chemoreceptors impulses
c. an increase in carbon dioxide concentration in the blod
d. blockage of afferent autonomic impulses from the lungs
e. loss o sensitivity of the medullary respiratory center to carbon dioxide
e
215
if diazepam (valium ) is to be given intravenously, it is recommended that a large vein be used in order to
a. hasten the onset of action
b. decrease the risk of thromboplebitis
c. offset the vasoconstrictor qualities of diazepam
d. prevent relese of acetylcholine
e. none of the above
b
216
the varius insuin preparation useful in the treatmentof diabetes mellitus differ PRIMARILY in
a. locus of action
b. mechanism of actin
c. mode of biotransformation
d. onset and duration of action
e. none of the above
d
217
ototoxicity with deafness maybe encountered occasionally in patient taking which of the ff diuretic agents?
a. osmotic
b. thiazide
c. mercurial
d. high-ceiling
e. low-ceiling
d
218
```
displacement of a drug from protein binding sites is
is expected to increase
a. drug effect observed
b. duration of drug effect
c. dose required for a given effect
d. activity of medullary centers
e. none of the above
```
a
219
general anesthesia with halothane is commonly preceded by adminstration of atropine to
a. inhibit vagal overactivity commonly caused by halothane
b. induce mascular relaxation by blocking cholinergic receptors
c. reduce salivation and bronchial secretions caused by haothane
d. block the cardiovascular effects produced by the injection of a sympathomimetic drug
e. all of the above
c
220
which of the ff drugs is useful in treating dermatologicc anifestations of an allergic response?
a. diazepam
b. atropine
c. cimetidine
d. chlorhexidine
e. chlorpheniramine
e
221
which of teh ff antibiotics is MOST likely to cause liver damage?
a. streptomycin
b. penicillin G
c. tetracycline
d. cephalosphorins
e. amphotericin B
c
222
which of the ff penicillins is administered ONLY by deep intramuscular injection?
a. ampicillin
b. dicloxacillin soduium
c. penicillin G procaine
d. peicillin V potassium
e. erythromycin
c
223
tachycardia in a atient administered with a atropine or scopolamine results from
a. realese of adrenal catecholamines
b. blockage of avgs nerve activity
c. blockage of the nicotinic cholinergic receptor
d. stimulation of the alpha adrenergic receptor
e. stimulation of the beta adrenergic receptor
b
224
digitoxin exerts its positive inotropic effect by
. activation of adenylcyclase
b. inhibition of phosphodiesterase
c. an agonist effect of B-receptors
d. inhibition of Na+ , K+ ATPase ti nincrease calcium influx
e. decreasing the amount of calcium available for excitation contraction coupling
d.
225
in addisonian crisis ( hypoaldosteronism) resulting from stree from a minor dental oricedure, the patient should be treated immediately with
a. 0.5mL norepinephrine
b. 5mg predinisolone acetate
c. 1% triamcinolone acetonide
d. 0.5mL, 1 :1,000 epinephrine
e. 2mL (100mg) hydrocortisone hemisuccinate
e.
226
use of prilocaine carries the risk of which of the ff adverse effects?
a. porphyria
b. renal toxicity
c. gastric bleeding
d. methemoglobinemia
e. hyopoglycemia
d.
227
drug A inhibiits biotransformation of drug B. the duration of action of drug B in the presence of drug will usually be
a. shotened
b. prolonged
c. unchanged
d. directly proportionate to the rate injecting drug A
e. inversely proportionate to the rate injecting drug A
b.
228
which of the ff has the BRADEST antimicrobial spectrum?
a. vancomycin (vancocin)
b. clindamycin (cleocin)
c. erythromycin (erythrocin)
d. chlortetracycline (aureomycine)
e. a third generation cephalosporin
d
229
a recently introduced local anesthetic agent is claimed by the manufacurer to be several times as potent as procaine. the product is available in 0.5% buffered aquaeous solution in 1.8mL cartridge. the maximum amount recommended for dental anesthesia over a 4hour period is 30mg. this amont is contanied in approximately _____catridgs.
a. 1-9
b. 10-18
c. 19-27
d. 23-36
e. 36-44
d.
230
which of the ff grous of drugs displays the MOST consistency i chemica structure?
a. diuretics
b. antiepileptics
c. local anesthetics
d. general anesthesia
e. nonbarbiturate sedtives
c.
231
the immediate cause of death from irreversibe cholinesterase inhibitos is
a. shock
b. convulsion
c. cardiac arrythmia
d. respiratory paralysis
e. dehydration from vomiting and diarhhea
d.
232
cometidine is administered to
a. aid in sleeping
b. relieve asthma
c. inhivbit gastric secretion
d. relieve cold and flu symptoms
e. inhibit renal toxicity
c.
233
which of the ff anticancer drugs can be classified as antimetabolite?
a. cisplatin
b. lomustine
c. vincristine
d. methotrexate
e. taxxol
d.
234
which of the ff hormones acts as to elevated blood concentration of ionic calcium?
a. glucagon
b. parathyroid
c. aldosterone
d. thyrotropin
e. thyrocalcitonin
b.
235
disorientation ,confusion, and halucinationa resulting from an overdose of scopolamine are MOST efficaciously treated by administering
a. atropine
b. levodop
c. acetylcholine
d. physostigmine
e. norepinephrine
d.
236
which of the ff is a local anethetic subject to be inactivation by plasma esterases?
a. lidocaine
b. prilocaine
c. tetracaine
d. mepivacaine
e. bupivacaine
c.
237
developed hyporeactivity to a drug is
a. tolerance
b. antagonism
c. detoxification
d. desensitization
e. dehydration
a.
238
local anesthetic agents prevent the generation of nerve impulses by
a. decreasing threshold for stimulation
b. decreasing resting membrane potential
c. decreasing inward movement of sodium ion
d. increasing inward movement of potassium ion
e. decreasing inward movement of potassium ion
c.
239
interaction between penicillin and probenecid is BEST decribed by which of the ff mechanisms?
a. competiton at the receptor site
b. acceleration of drug biotransformation
c alteration in the acid base balance
d. alteration in the rate of renal clearance
e. depressio of cortocla activity
d.
240
interaction between nitroglycerin and epinephrine is what type of antagonism?
a. allosteric
b. physiologic
c. biochemical
d. competitive
e. phamacologic
b.
241
small doses of barbiturates and morphine depress respiration PRIMRILY by
a. a parasympathomimetic action
b. inhibiting the herring-Bruer reflex
c. rendering the aortic chemoreceptor system insensitive to O2
d. rendering the respiratory center less sensitive to changes in CO2.
e. a specific effect at myoneural junctions of phrenic and incostal nerves
d.
242
chlorpromazine and related drugs are thought to act by blocking which of the ff receptos?
a. adrenergic
b. muscarinic
c. dopaminergic
d. central serotonin
e. cholinergic
c.
243
```
which of th ff conditions containdicate use of corticosteroids in a dental patient?
I. AIDS
II. candidiasis
III. tuberculosis
IV. peptic ulcers
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. III, IV
e. I, II, III, IV
```
e.
244
each of the ff agent has a long duration of action due to presence of liver generated active mtabolites EXCEPT?
a. diazepam
b. oxazeoam
c. flurazepam
d. chlordiazeperoxide
e. none of the above
b.
245
of the ff, aspirin does NOT cause
a. occult bleeding
b. nasea and vomiting
c. acid base disturbance
d. suppression of the cough reflex
e. decreased tubular reabsorption of uric acid
d.
246
each of the ff statements relates to the general aspets of toxicology EXCEPT?
a. most drugs exert a single actions
b. toxicity is both time and dose dependent
c. toxicity can be due to overdosage of a drug
d. symptoms of toxicity can be anything ranging from nausea to death
e. for some drugs, even very minimal concentrations can be harmful
a.
247
phenothiazine derivatives do NOT produce
a. jaundice
b. xerostomia
c. gingivl hyperplasia
d. postural hypotension
e. symptoms of parkinsonism
c
248
all of the ff are responsible effects of cholinomimetic drugs EXCEPT?
a. mydriasis
b. bradycardia
c. increased peristalsis
d. stimulation of sweat glands
e. increased secretion by bronchial glands
a.
249
which of the ff is NOT characteristic of tetracycline antibiotics?
a. absorption is impaired when taken with antacids
b. they predispose to monilial superinfection
c. they form a stable complex with the developing tooth matrix/
d. they have a low tendency for sensitization , but a high therapeutic index
e. they are effective substitutes for penicillin in prophylais against infective endocarditis
e.
250
of the ff drugs, severe liver disease LEAST affects the biotransformation of
a. lidocaine
b. procaine
c. prilocaine
d. mepivacaine
e. tetracaine
b.
251
which of the ff anti- inflammatory agents does NOT act primarily by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase?
a. ibuprofen
b. diflunisal
c. prednisone
d. indomethacine
e. phenylbutazone
c.
252
the cental actions of ethyl alcohol areNOT synergistic with which ofthe ff?
a. diazepam (valium)
b. meperidine (demerol)
c. pentobarbital (nembutal)
d. chlorpromazine (thorazine)
e. methyphenidate (ritalin)
e.
253
of the ff drugs, prolonged use of ____ does NOT cause a predisposition to gastric irritation and bleeding.
a. henytoin
b. ibuprofen
c. indomethacin
d. phenylbuutazone
e. acetylsalicylic cid
a.
254
which of the ff responses is LEAST predictable in occurence?
a. toxicity
b. side effects
c. idiosyncrasy
d. tachyphylaxis
e. therapeutic effects
c.
255
occurence of which of the ff is LEAST characteristic of narcotiv ingestion?
a. vomiting
b. diarrhea
c. urinary retention
d. brochiolar constriction
e. increase in intracranial pressure
b.
256
bupivacaine (marcaine) has all of the ff properties relative to lidocaine (xylocaine) EXCEPT bupivacaine
a. is more toxic
b. is an ester type local anesthetic
c. has a slower onset of action
d. has a longer duration of action
e. has a shorter duratio of action
b.
257
a heroin independent patient should NOT be given nalbuphine (nubaine) for pain ecause
a. it has no analgesic properties
b. it ay produce respiratory depression
c. as a mixed agonist -antagonist, it can elicit withdrawal symptoms
d. a high abuse potential of nalbupine may add to the ptients prblems
e. it stimulates myocardial contraction
c.
258
hypotensive shock may result from excessive blood levels of each of the ff local anesthetics EXCEPT
a. cocaine
b. procaine
c. lidocaine
d. tetracaine
e. mepivacaine
a.
259
_____ is dereived from quinolone
a. quinine
b. pyridine
c. phenanthrene
d. tropine
e. theobromine
a.
260
all of teh ff methods of drug biotransformation are classified as synthetic EXCEPT?
a. N- alkylation
b. O- dealkylation
c. sulfate conjugation
d. glucoronide conjugation
e. none of the above
b.
261
```
barbiturates are contraindicted in a patient
I. emphysema
II. hypertension
III. undiagnosed sever pain
IV. acute intermitent euphoria
the correct answer is
a. I, III, IV
b. I, IV
c. II, III
d. II, IV
e. I, II, III, IV
```
A.
262
absorption of a drug from the intramuscular site of administration maybe slowed by
I. exercise
II. vasoconstriction
III. the presence of congestive heart failure
IV. administering the drug as an insoluble complex
the correct answer is
a. I, IV
b. II only
c. II, III, IV
d. II, IV
e I, II, III, IV
C.
263
```
adverse effects of levodopa include
I. arrythmias
II. psychotic disturbaces
III. nausea nad vomiting
IV. abnormal involuntary movements
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III, IV
e. I, II, III, IV
```
e.
264
```
salicylism includes which of the ff?
I. nausea
II. tinnitus
III. vomiting
IV. gastrointestinal bleeding
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III
d. II, III, IV
e. I, II, III, IV
```
E.
265
alpha-adrenergic agonists are used in combination with local anesthetics
I. stimulate myocardial contraction
II. reduce vascular absorption of the local anesthetic
III. increase the rate of live metabolism of the local anesthetic
IV. increase the concentration of the local anesthetic and its receptor site
V. antagonizes the vasodilationg effects of the local anesthetic
the CORRECT answer is
a. I, II, III
b. II, III, IV
c. II, IV, V
d. III, IV, V
e. IV, V
c
266
```
which of the ff characterize barbiturates?
I. significally elevates pain threshold
II.are metabolized by the liver
III. are classified accrdg to duration of action
IV. depress all levels of the CNS
V. cause deth by cardiovascular depression
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. II, V
e. III, IV, V
```
c.
267
```
which of the ff are important criteria for the adequate clinical evaluation of a new drug?
I. comparison eith placebo
II. evaluation of side effects
III. utilization of control groups
IV. comparison with a standarddrug
V. double blind expirementl design
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, IV, V
c. I, III, IV, V
d. II, III, V
e. I, II, III, IV, V
```
e.
268
propanolol ( inderal ) can be usel in the treatent of hypertension because it blocks
I. alpha 1 adrenergic receptors
II. sodium reabsorption in the kidney
III. the release from juxtaglomerular cells
IV. the release of norepinhrine from nerve terminals
V.the reflex tachycardis seen with the use of other antihypertensives
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. III, IV ,V
e. III,V
E
269
a patient who has been taking large quantities of aspirin might shoew increased posoperative bleeding because aspirin inhibits?
a. synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents plateletsaggregation
b. synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelets aggregation
c. synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets
d. thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network
e. G. I. absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors
a.
270
which of the ff statements are TRUE regarding the adrenergic receptors?
I. activaton of the B- receptor rresults in cardiac stimulation
II. activation of the a-receptor results in vasoconstriction
III. a number of effects of the catecholamines are mediated by ltering tissue levels of cAMP
IV. the enzyme adenylcyclase maybe a receptor for certain adrenergic stimulation
V. increased tissue levels of cAMP occur invariably with B-adrenergic stimulation
the correct answer is
a. I, II, III
b. I, III
c. II, III, IV
d. II, IV, V
e. all of the above
e.
271
which of the ff statements decribe thee pharmacologic and toxicologic properties of ethyl alcohol?
I. its effects on behavior are the result of depression of higher cortical centers
II. it aids in the consevation of heart , which explains the feeling of warmth that attends its use
III. blood levels of 100mg or higher are generally taken as medicolegal evidence of drunkeness
IV. delirium tremens are regardedby some investigators as a physiologically disruptive withdrawal syndrome
V. chronic gastritis and cirrhosis of the liver are common in the alcoholic, possibly bacause of nutritional deficiencies
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, II, V
c. I, III, IV
d. I, III, IV, V
e. IV, V
d.
272
which of the ff statements regarding drugs is TRUE?
I. drugs usually have more than one generic name
II.prescibing a drug by its geerc name allows the phamacist to dispense any brandname preparations
III. brand name preparations are usually more expensive than the comparable generic preapration
IV. all narcotics by law must be prescribed by their brand names
the correct answer is
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. II, III
d. II, III, IV
e. III, IV
C
273
a 19 year old , well develope , well nourised young man reports to a dental office for the extraction of a tooth. normal body temperature and a number of scars on the tongue are noted. shortly after making an injection of 2 percent carbocaine, with levonordefrin (neo-cobefrin) 1:20,000, using an aspirating syringe through which no blood was withdrawn , the patient has a convulsion. these facts are CONSISTENT ith a diagnosis of
a. benign syncopy
b. epileptic seizure
c. febrile convulsions
d. toxic overdose of the anesthetic
b.
