Pharmacokinetics Flashcards

(169 cards)

1
Q

Tetracyclines

A

Soluble at acid pH but insoluble at neutral pH. Any that enters the intestines precipitates and is lost in faeces
Majority of absorption in the stomach

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2
Q

Levodopa

A

Absorbed via phenylalanine transporter

Used in treating Parkinson’s disease

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3
Q

Heparin

A

Anti coagulant
Unfractionated is a carbohydrate polymer of variable chain length MW 3-30 kDa, so cannot permeate between endothelial cells, and isn’t specifically transported, so is restricted to the plasma compartment

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4
Q

Ivermectin

A

Toxicity in collie dogs associated with a frameshift mutation and premature stop codon in mdr1a gene which is the P-glycoprotein ABC transporter across the BBBo

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5
Q

Gentamicin

A

Aminoglycoside antibiotic
Hydrophilic but small enough to cross endothelium
Vd similar to plasma + interstitial

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6
Q

Ethanol

A

Vd similar to total body water 42-45l

Acts on GABAA receptors

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7
Q

Codeine/morphine

A

Morphine Vd 250l due to sequestration in fat

Opiate widely used for pain relief, also cough suppression, antidiarrheal
Side effects respiratory depression, constipation, sedation, addiction
Act via mu opioid receptor
Codeine ineffective at plasma conc - seen as a prodrug

Small amount of codeine metabolised to morphine in liver by CYP2D6
Most directly glucoronidate or converted to norcodeine
Morphine-6-glucuronide (morphine glucorinidated) is a high affinity agonist and may be responsible for some of the action and side effects of codeine and morphine

Morphine secreted in protonated cationic form (it is a base) by OBTs

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8
Q

Thiopental

A
General anaesthetic
Sequestered in fat as very lipophilic
Lipophilic also means crosses BBB
Binds to plasma proteins
Metabolised in liver - metabolism close to saturation, so can show zero order kinetics if maintained by infusion or repeated injection
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9
Q

Warfarin

A

Acidic

Binds to site on albumin

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10
Q

Salicylic acid

A

Acidic

Binds to site on albumin

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11
Q

Phenytoin

A

Acidic
Binds to site on albumin

Phase 1 hydroxylation by CYP2C9/19
Phase 2 glucuronidation by UDP-glucuronosyltransferases
Can inhibit both

Therapeutic doses close to saturation for hydroxylation by CYP2C9
Small increase in dose rate can lead to much greater plasma conc and toxicity

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12
Q

Sulfonamides

A

Bilirubin binds to plasma proteins, if displaced, eg by sulfonamides, C free will increase
Can lead to increased bilirubin in the brain and neurological damage

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13
Q

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

A

CYP2D6 especially, also CYP2C19 and CYP3A4 substrates
So can also inhibit these
Major source of adverse drug interactions
Reduces morphine formation from codeine and prevents its analgesic effect

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14
Q

Quinidine

A

Competitive inhibitor of CYP2D6 but not a substrate

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15
Q

Ketoconazole

A

Complexes with Fe3+ form of Haem in CYP3A4

Non competitive inhibitor

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16
Q

Grapefruit juice

A

Can inhibit CYP3A4
Affects DHPR calcium channel blockers, statins, anti cancer drugs, antibiotics like erythromycin and immunosuppressants like cyclosporine
Major site of action CYP3A4 in intestinal wall rather than the liver - mainly inhibits first pass metabolism

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17
Q

Phenobarbital

A

Can activate RXR (retinoid X receptor)

Inhiibts glucuronidation

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18
Q

Rifampicin

A

Antibiotic

Can activate RXR (retinoid X receptor)

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19
Q

Ritonavir

A

HIV protease inhibitor

Can activate RXR (retinoid X receptor)

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20
Q

St John’s Wort

A

Commonly used for mild and moderate depression

Can activate RXR (retinoid X receptor)

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21
Q

Amphetamines

A

Metabolised by FMO3

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22
Q

Clozapine

A

Anti psychotic

Metabolised by FMO3

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23
Q

Ranitidine

A

Histamine H2 receptor antagonist

Metabolised by FMO3

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24
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Anti epileptic drug
Prodrug activates by CYPs to generate a reactive and active epoxide
This is hydrolysed by microsomes EH, which also inactivates the drug

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25
Valproic acid
Anti convulsant Inhibits microsomal epoxide hydroxylases Increaes conc of active metabolite of carbamazepine and delaying its elimination
26
Ethanol
Ethanol oxidised to toxic acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase and this concerted to acetate by aldehyde dehydrogenase Metabolism saturated at a fairly low alcohol intake. Above this, zero order kinetics. Chronic alcohol intake can increase the rate of ethanol metabolism through induction of CYP2E1
27
Aspirin
Hydrolysed to salicylic acid by esterases
28
Heroin
Diacetylmorphine Also converted to morphine for action It’s acetyl groups increase lipophilicity so can cross BBB Conversion to morphine in the brain
29
N-acetyl cysteine
Exogenous GSH glutathione source | Can replenish during toxic doses of paracetamol
30
Paracetamol
Paracetamol hepatic injury - sulfonation phase 2 saturated so depletes GSH Inhibitors of glucuronidation like phenytoin or pentobarbital can trigger injury Induction of CYP2E1 by chronic alcohol consumption may also increase hepatotoxicity risk Secreted by OATs as glucuronide and sulfide conjugate
31
Aminoglycoside antibiotics
Polar Not heavily bound to plasma proteins readily cleared by glomerular filtration
32
Penicillin
Secretion in kidney by OATs Acidic Transported in negatively charged anionic form Competition with probenecid: prolongs action of penicillin by reducing its tubular secretion
33
Probenecid
Probenecid: prolongs action of penicillin by reducing its tubular secretion
34
Isoflurane
Stereospecific anaesthetic Activate K2P family Hyperpolarisation Reduced neuronal activity
35
Barbiturates
Act on GABAA receptors
36
Propofol
IV anaesthetic, acts on beta subunit of GABA a
37
Etomidate
IV anaesthetic, acts on beta subunit of GABA a
38
Halothane
Mutation in TASK3 abolishes effect
39
Xenon
And nos | Inhibit excitatory NMDA receptors
40
Thiopental
Barbiturate IV rapid onset Lipophilic Binds to plasma proteins Metabolised in liver, close to saturation Rapid return of consciousness due to redistribution not metabolism Slow metabolism means that sub-anaesthetic concs lead to side effect ‘anaesthetic hangover’
41
Propofol
IV rapid anaesthesia, faster than thiopentone More rapid metabolism May have an anti-emetic effect
42
Etomidate
IV Wider therapeutic window for anaesthesia over cardiovascular depression Higher rate of vomiting and nausea during recovery compared to propofol
43
Define pharmacodynamics
The interaction between a drug and its receptors (including affinity and efficacy, and tissue distribution of receptors(
44
What does the relationship between the administered dose and concentration at the target site depend on?
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
45
Define minimum therapeutic concentration
The level the plasma concentration must be higher than to see the desired therapeutic effect
46
What is the gap between the minimum toxic concentration and the minimum therapeutic concentration called?
Therapeutic window
47
What are the advantages and disadvantages of IV infusion?
Advantages: fastest, most certain Disadvantage: skilled practitioner, inconvenience to patient, if bolus initially very high concentration in right side of the heart and pulmonary circulation, infection risk
48
What does rate of diffusion across membranes depend on?
Concentration gradient Surface area How lipophilic the drug is
49
Which drugs absorb well in the stomach?
Weak acids - reassociate so uncharged form can diffuse across the membrane
50
Which drugs absorb well in the small intestine?
Weak bases - dissociate so can diffuse across the membrane
51
Which factors affect absorption of drugs in the gut?
``` Gastric motility Splanchnic blood flow Food Gastric emptying Diarrhoea and vomiting ```
52
What are enteric coatings?
Coatings of drugs that would break down in acid. Coating is stable at acid pH but break down at higher pH.
53
What is the name of the metabolism of drugs by enzymes in the small intestinal wall or the liver?
First-pass effect
54
Define bioavailability
Fraction of the delivered dose that reaches the systemic circulation
55
Which factors affect bioavailability?
Ability to cross gut epithelium Transport back into gut lumen Drug metabolism in first pass effect or by bacteria Patient-specific factors e.g. drug interactions, food, altered motility
56
What is the name of the compartments protected by specialised barriers?
Transcellular e.g. cerebrospinal compartment
57
What size molecules can pass freely through normal endothelia?
500-600 daltons
58
What are local anaesthetics chemically? Where do they act? What is the significance of this?
Weak bases Act on intracellular side of NaV Enter cells in their unionised form Local inflammation decreases tissue pH, shifting eq to favour ionised form, so local anaesthesia is delayed or even prevented
59
Give examples of SLCs
Solute carrier superfamily OAT organic anion transporter OCT organic cation transporters SERT
60
Give examples of ABCs
ATP-binding cassette | MDR-1
61
Describe the blood brain barrier
Capillaries supplying the brain have very tight junctions between endothelial cells and are further surrounded by astrocytes So impermeable to drugs that are not sufficiently lipophilic to cross plasma membranes, be taken up by transporters or through transcytosis Can be disrupted by inflammation
62
Why can ion trapping occur in the fetal-maternal circulations?
Fetal pH is usually slightly lower than maternal pH
63
Define volume of distribution
The volume that would contain the total amount of drug in the body at a concentration equal to the plasma concentration
64
List the reference values for Vd for a 70kg human
Plasma: 3L ECF: 12L Body water: 42L Fat, or bound to protein in tissues: >42L up to 20000:
65
How does tissue sequestration affect Vd?
Increases apparent Vd As more drug binds to tissues, the concentration of free drug there falls. More drug will leave the plasma, and the plasma concentration falls, so a larger amount of drug is accommodated with a lower plasma concentration.
66
How can heavy metals be sequestered?
Bind to bone
67
How does binding to plasma proteins affect Vd?
Increases apparent Vd Plasma conc measured reflects total amount in the plasma C = Cfree + Cbound. As more drug binds to plasma proteins, the free plasma conc drops, so more drug remains in the plasma, increasing total plasma conc.
68
What is the major binding protein in plasma and what is its concentration? Describe it
Albumin 0.6mmol/l 2 binding sites for acidic drugs, binds many neutral drugs and some basic drugs Acidic: warfarin, salicylic acid, phenytoin Can become saturated
69
When can albumin conc fall?
Liver disease, old age, nephrotic disease or major burns
70
Which plasma protein do basic drugs bind to?
Alpha1 glycoprotein Acute phase reactant increased during inflammation or stress Binds betablockers and antidepressants
71
Define xenobiotics
Foreign chemical substances that are not formed by the normal metabolism of the organism
72
What type of xenobiotics need to be metabolised? What is the general pathway?
Hydrophobic/lipophilic | Convert it to a more water soluble molecule
73
Describe the stages of hepatic drug metabolism
Phase 1: functionalization. Catabolic. Makes a more reactive metabolite by unmasking a reactive chemical group. Often drug is inactivated but not always. Sometimes this activates the drug (if the drug is a 'pro-drug') Phase 2: conjugation. Anabolic. Adds a molecule to the reactive functional group to make a less reactive metabolite that is usually more hydrophilic and higher molecular weight. Sometimes inactivates the drug.
74
Give an example of a drug that doesn't require phase I metabolism
Paracetamol, already has an appropriate functional group.
75
List the categories of phase I membranes
1. Cytochrome P450 2. FMO 3. EH 4. ADH 5. Esterases
76
What does CYP mean and how many of them are there?
Cytochrome P450 superfamily 18 families 57 genes
77
What percentage of drugs are metabolised by CYP2D6? Give examples
25% Tamoxifen Beta blockers
78
How many copies of CYP2D6 do we carry?
1 copy | Dysfunctional in 7-8% Caucasian americans
79
What percentage of drugs are metabolised by CYP3A4?
50% | Liver
80
Where are CYPs located?
ER membrane
81
What do CYPs use?
O2 and haem: Haem binds O2 into the CYP active site. | NADPH-cytochrome P450 oxidoreductase supplies H+ via NADPH
82
Why is superoxide dismutase needed alongside CYPs?
CYPs often consume more O2 than is needed, so superoxide is produced. Superoxide dismutase converts this safely into water
83
Define suicide inhibition
Product of oxidation binds covalently to the CYP, irreversibly blocking the enzyme
84
How can xenobiotics increase the expression of genes encoding cytochromes?
Bind to flexible ligand binding site of nuclear receptors PXR (pregnane X receptor) and CAR (constitutive androstane receptor) heterodimerise with RXR Allows them to bind to XRE (xenobiotic response elements) in upstream promoter regions Upreg CYP3A4
85
Give examples of drugs that can activate PXR
Phenobarbital Rifampicin Ritonavir St John's Wort
86
What are FMOs?
Flavin monooxygenases Catalyse oxidation reactions using FAD FMO3 most abundant Can metabolise amphetamines, clozapine, ranitidine
87
What can FMO3 mutation cause?
Fish odour syndrome
88
What are EHs?
Epoxide hydroxylases Detoxify the highly reactive epoxides generated by CYPs CYP convers carbamazepine to generate a reactive and active epoxide Hydrolysed and inactivated by microsomal EH
89
What can inhibit microsomal EH? What is the effect?
Valproic acid - reduces carbamazepine reaction and delay its elimination Relevant as carbamazepine is an anti-epileptic and valproic acid is an anti-convulsant
90
What do ADH and ALDH do?
ADH = alcohol dehydrogenase ethanol --> ethanal ALDH = aldehyde dehydrogenase ethanol --> acetate
91
What do esterases hydrolyse? Where are they found?
Intestinal wall and plasma + liver | Aspirin
92
Give some examples of phase 2 reactions and the enzymes that do them (5 examples)
Add: 1. Sulfate = sulfotransferases SULT 2. Glucuronic acid = UDP-glucuronosyltransferases UGT 3. Glutathione = Glutathione-S-Transferases GST 4. Acetyl = N-acetyltransferases NAT 5. Methyl = methyltransferases MT
93
What is the pKa of glucuronic acid? Why does this help in conjugation?
pKa = 3-3.5 Mostly ionised at physiological pH So hydrophilic lipophobic Can be excreted
94
Describe phenytoin metabolism
1. CYP-dependent hydroxylation by CYP2C19/CYP2C9 to hydroxyl-phenytoin 2. Glucuronic acid conjugation UGT1 3. Forms very water soluble phenytoin-glucuronic acid conjugate
95
What is the difficulty with phenytoin metabolism?
Exists close to saturation so at a certain point a very small increase in dose increases plasma concentration a lot
96
Draw codeine metabolism
5-15% Codeine - CYP2D6 - morphine - UGTs - either inactive morphine-3-glucuronide or active morphine-6-glucuronide 10-20% - CYP3A4 - inactive norcodeine - UGT - norcodeine-6-glucuronide 50-70% UGTs - inactive codeine-6-glucuronide
97
How much higher is morphine's affinity for the mu opioid receptor than codeine's?
200-300x
98
What else apart from codeine is converted to morphine for its action?
Heroin - diacetylmorphine
99
What is the difference between heroin and morphine?
Heroin = prodrug Acetyl groups increase lipophilicity Can cross BBB and be converted to morphine in the brain
100
What effect does fluoxetine have on codeine metabolism?
Inhibit CYP2D6 Reduce morphine formation Prevent analgesic effect
101
What is the effect of CYP3A4 inhibition and induction on morphine production from codeine?
Inhibition, little effect as minor pathway | Induction, could reduce formation
102
Describe paracetamol metabolism
Glucuronidation (55%) and sulfonation (35%) (both phase 2) Minor fraction oxidised by CYP2E1 (phase I) to NAPQI, which is detoxified by conjugation to glutathione (GSH) At supratherapeutic doses, the sulfonation pathway is saturated At higher toxic doses, glucuronidation is also saturated, and a higher proportion is oxidised to NAPQI, leading to depletion of GSH and hepatic cell injury or cell death
103
How do you replace depleted glutathione?
N-acetyl cysteine NAC
104
What can increase paracetamol hepatotoxicity risk?
Inhibitors of UGT glucuronidation e.g. phenytoin or pentobarbital Induction of CYP2E1 by chronic alcohol consuption
105
What is renal plasma flow?
625ml/min
106
What is glomerular filtration rate?
125 ml/min
107
What is normal urine flow rate?
1 ml/min
108
Why does glomerular filtration not change either the concentration or amount of drug bound?
1. Filters water and drug in proportion | 2. Number of binding sites for drugs and bound drugs themselves 20% higher in efferent arterioles than afferent
109
What is the effect of increasing plasma protein binding for freely filtered drugs?
Decreases clearance of the drug
110
Which transporters carry out active secretion? Give examples
OAT: acidic drugs in negatively charged anionic form e.g. penicillin, probenecid, uric acid, glucuronide and sulphide conjugates OCT: organic bases in their protonated cationic form e.g. morphine
111
How does secretion change the proportion of drug bound?
Secretion lowers free conc in plasma as water doesn't accompany the movement Shifts equilibrium between bound and free drug. More drug released from plasma proteins. If secretion is fast enough, newly released drug is also secreted.
112
What is the effect of increasing plasma protein binding for secreted drugs?
None. Clearance can be greater than GFR and can approach RPF
113
Where are drugs reabsorbed?
Renal tubules
114
How does ion trapping work in urine?
Urine pH lower than plasma | Excretion of basic drugs in cation form, favours reabsorption of acidic drugs
115
How can ion trapping be clinically used?
If you infuse sodium bicarbonate, more weak acid is found in the charged, anion form, so less likely to be reabsorbed Do this following OD of acidic drugs (Aspirin, barbiturates) Will increase reabsorption of basic drugs
116
Define enterohepatic circulation
When liver cells secrete drugs and their metabolites into bile. Delivered to small intestine. Conjugates (Especially glucuronides) hydrolysed, and reabsorbed.
117
What is the effect of enterohepatic circulation?
Slows rate of elimination, and prolongs the effect of the drug
118
What is coprophagy? What is its effect?
Eating shit | Can lead to complex dosing patterns if drug excreted in bile or if it is poorly absorbed in the first place
119
Define first order kinetics
Assume that drug elimination follows linear kinetics, so that the rate of elimination is directly proportional to the plasma concentration When Km>>C
120
What type of kinetics does elimination by metabolism and carrier-mediated drug transport follow and why?
They're enzymes so Michaelis-Menten Means that rate of elimination is directly proportional to the plasma concentration if C<>Km then rate of reaction = Vmax.
121
Why is filtration always first order?
Renal filtration is not enzyme dependent
122
What is a zero order reaction?
When a reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant, e.g. when elimination has been saturated and has reached the fixed, maximum rate
123
Define the single compartment model
Assumes body behaves as a single, well mixed container, into which a dose of drug is rapidly added by IV injection Ignores absorption, ignores distribution, Assumes first order kinetics
124
Define half life
Time taken for the plasma concentration to decrease by 1/2
125
Describe the two-compartment model of single IV dose
Drug doesn't appear to distribute instantaneously Appears to distribute to some parts of the body more rapidly than others Drug is injected into a central compartment and immediately distributes through this compartment(Blood. and other well perfused tissues like liver/kidney/heart/brain/lungs). Drug is eliminated from this compartment by metabolism/excretion. The drug can also slowly distribute into a peripheral compartment, representing poorly perfused tissues like skin/fat/skeletal muscle
126
How does apparent Vd change with time for the two compartment model? What else changes?
Initially low, later high | Affects plasma conc and hence rate of elimination
127
What is rate of absorption affected by?
Proportional to amount of dose remaining, so rate of absorption decreases with time Also formulation of the drug
128
Why can you use comparisons of a single iv dose and a single oral dose to determine fractional bioavailability?
Clearance is independent of route of administration | And F = 1 for an iv dose
129
During a constant IV infusion what determines the Css?
Just rate of infusion and clearance, not Vd
130
What is the problem with using a loading dose?
Can give very high peak concentrations in the brain and heart
131
In a multiple dosing regimen, when is steady state achieved?
When the amount of drug eliminated in each dose interval is equal to the amount of the dose
132
What is the principle of superposition?
When looking at multiple oral doses, if you know what the concentration was during the first dose, you can work out what the total conc is now by adding conc at time t, t-T, t-2T etc.
133
Give an example of a drug that has zero order kinetics
Ethanol - ethanol metabolism saturates at fairly low alcohol intake. Chronic alcohol intake can increase the rate of ethanol metabolism through induction of CYP2E1
134
Name 3 inhalation anaesthetics
Ether Nitrous oxide Chloroform
135
What is the shape of the curve between log conc anaesthetic and unconsciousness?
V steep
136
What is the Meyer-Overton correlation?
Correlation between anaesthetic potency and its solubility in olive oil (oil:gas partition coefficient)
137
What did the Meyer-Overton correlation lead to?
Theory that general anaesthetics act through accumulating in lipid bilayers and altering membrane function WRONG
138
Which properties of general anaesthetics do not fit the Meyer-Overton correlation?
Maximum molecule size cut off (anaesthetic potency increases with size to a point) Discovery of some lipid soluble molecules that don't cause anaesthesia Stereo-specificity of some anaesthetics (the most major problem with the theory) e.g. isoflurane
139
What is the Franks Lieb correlation?
Anaesthetic potency correlates with ability to inhibit a lipid-free protein luciferase
140
What did the Franks-Lieb correlation show?
General anaesthetics bind to a hydrophobic pocket in one or more target proteins Explains the stereo/size/some molecules not working problems
141
What are the protein targets of general anaesthetics?
1. GABAA 2. K2P two pore K+ channel family 3. NMDA Potential targets 4. Glycine receptors 5. HCN channels 6. NaV
142
What is the structure of the GABAA recepot?
Pentameric | Usually 2alpha 2beta gamma
143
Explain how general anaesthetics act on GABAA receptors
1. Potentiate Cl- currents through GABAA receptors 2. Hyperpolarises postsynaptic membrane 3. Reduces neuronal activity Propofol and etomidate act on beta subunits at distinct sites Volatile anaesthetics act on alpha and beta subunits
144
What is the evidence that general anaesthetics act on GABAA receptors?
Point mutations in the GABAA alpha and beta subunits reduce anaesthetic potency. Alpha = abolish volatile with no effect on propofol or etomidate Beta = affect both
145
Give examples of anaesthetics that activate the K2P family
Isoflurane and NO | Volatile
146
What is the mechanism of anaesthetics that act on the K2P family
Activate K+ channel Hyperpolarisation Reduced neuronal activity
147
What is the evidence that a specific amino acid is involved in binding of anaesthetics to K2P family receptors?
Point mutation in TASK3 abolished the effect of halothane and isoflurane
148
How do NO and Xenon inhibit NMDA receptors?
Maybe compete with glycine, an essential cofactor for NMDA receptor activation (both need to bind Glu and Gly)
149
What is the problem with using high concentrations of general anaesthetics?
Can lead to respiratory failure and death
150
Name 3 injectable anaesthetics
Thiopental Propofol Etomide
151
What are IV anaesthetics useful for?
Rapid induction
152
Name 2 drugs close to saturation of their metabolism
Thiopental | Phenytoin
153
Why is consciousness rapidly recovered after a single IV injection?
Initial fall in plasma concentration due to redistribution (into lower blood flow tissues, over the course of minutes)
154
What causes the very slow reduction in plasma concentration slightly delayed from injection of thiopental?
Thiopental metabolised by liver | As metabolised, slowly equilibrates back from the low blood flow tissues and the fat
155
What can the sub-anaesthetic concentrations of general anaesthetics lead to?
Side effect of anaesthetic hangover
156
Why would you use propofol rather than thiopental?
More rapid redistribution More rapid metabolism May have an anti-emetic effect
157
Why are the benefits and disadvantages of etomidate?
Higher therapeutic window over cardiovascular depression | Higher rate of vomiting and nausea during recovery than propofol
158
What is the key determinant of rate of induction of gaseous anaesthetics?
Blood:gas partition co-efficient (solubility) - affects how quickly the alveolar air comes into equilibrium with inspired air
159
Why is alveolar air not the same partial pressure as inspired air?
Diluted with residual air in the lungs
160
What happens if the blood:gas partition coefficient is high?
Gas in alveoli rapidly crosses and is removed by blood flow Alveolar partial pressure stays low Takes longer for equilibrium between inspired air and alveoli to be achieved Induction is relatively slow
161
What happens if the blood:gas partition coefficient is low?
Less gas crosses in each breath Partial pressure of anaesthetic in the alveoli rapidly increases Equilibrium between inspired air and alveoli is rapidly achieved Induction is rapid
162
What is the effect of cardiac output on induction rate?
High cardiac output slows induction rate | More gas is removed during each breath
163
What is the effect of alveolar ventilation rate on induction rate?
Low alveolar ventilation slows induction rate | Less anaesthetic delivered to alveoli in a given timq
164
So which conditions optimise induction?
1. Low blood:gas partition coefficient 2. Low CO 3. High ventilation rate
165
Define induction
The induction of anaesthesia refers to the transition from an awake to an anaesthetized state.
166
How are gaseous and volatile anaesthetics mainly removed?
Lungs unchanged (excretion by ventilation)
167
What affects rate of excretion of volatile anaesthetics?
If blood:gas partition coefficient is low, anaesthetic rapidly crosses into alveoli and is removed. Arterial plasma conc falls quickly and recovery is rapid. If high, anaesthetic crosses slowly and recovery is slow So recovery faster with low blood gas partition coefficient
168
Define potency
Measure of drug activity expressed in terms of amount required to produce an effect of given intensity
169
What affects potency of a volatile anaesthetic?
Blood gas partition coefficient - potency higher with higher blood gas partition coefficient