Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics Flashcards
(317 cards)
1
Q
What class of drug is most commonly used to treat bronchospasms?
A
sympathomimetics
2
Q
What is the danger of pt taking over the counter antihistamines with a history of cardiovascular disease?
A
hypertension
3
Q
Patients taking ACE inhibitors medication may experience?
A
chronic, dry cough
4
Q
Most common side effect of sympathomimetics?
A
tachycardia
5
Q
stimulation of alpha-2 receptors suppresses the release of what?
A
norepinephrine
6
Q
Sublingual nitroglycerin has what type of onset and bioavailability?
A
sublingual route has a rapid onset but low bioavailability
7
Q
Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) causes bronchodilation antagonzing which receptors?
A
antagonizing muscarinic receptors
8
Q
ACE inhibitor medications lower the blood pressure by blocking?
A
Blocking the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
9
Q
What is the most commonly prescribed diuretic that inhibits sodium transport within the distal tubule of the kidney
A
Thiazide
10
Q
What does alpha 1 receptor do?
A
constrict blood vessels
11
Q
What does alpha 2 receptor do?
A
smooth muscle contraction, inhibit insulin, introduction of glucagon, suppresses norepinephrine
12
Q
What does beta I receptor do?
A
inotropy, chronotropy, dromotropy
13
Q
What does cholinergic mean?
A
Acetylcholine (neurotransmitter) meaning parasympathetic
14
Q
dromotropy
A
refers to the strength of conduction of electrical impulses
15
Q
chronotropy
A
heart rate
16
Q
Which catecholamine has less vasoconstriction than epinephrine or norepinephrine?
A
Dopamine
17
Q
What is the most common dose of dopamine used in the field?
A
5-10 mcg/kg/min
18
Q
Can dopamine and dobutamine treat hypovolemic shock?
A
NO
19
Q
What can you treat with dopamine and dobutamine?
A
hypotension or shock
20
Q
What is the agonist affect of nicotinic?
A
Allow acetylcholine to stimulate muscle contractions
21
Q
Which medication can not be given to pregnant women unless absolutely necessary?
A
hydralazine (vasodilator used to treat hypertension)
22
Q
Calcium increases what property of the heart?
A
The strength of the heart’s contraction = contractility
23
Q
Calcium ____ coronary arteries and peripheral arterioles.
A
vasoconstricts
24
Q
Which node fires first?
A
SA node
25
After the SA node fires, which node fires next?
AV node
26
What are abnormal pacemaker sites within the heart (outside the SA node)?
ectopic foci
27
What is a premature ventricular contraction?
A single impulse that originates at the right ventricle
28
To fix slower rhythms, you need?
calcium
29
How do you fix faster rhythms?
sodium and potassium
30
What is outside of the cell? Sodium or potassium?
Sodium
31
What is inside of the cell? Sodium or potassium?
Potassium
32
The Vagus nerve releases which neurotransmitter?
ACH
33
What is an indication for class I, sodium channel blockers?
ventricular dysrhythmias
34
What does Class IB agents do?
slow conductions through the ventricles, increase v-fib threshold, reduce automaticity/ectopic foci
35
What is needed to treat Torsades de Pointes?
Magnesium- bc a magnesium deficiency is what causes Torsades de Pointes.
36
What is one example of a Class IB Agent?
Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
37
Beta 1 receptors in the heart attach to which channels?
calcium
38
What is used to treat HTN, angina, supraventricular tachycardia?
beta blockers
39
Used to treat tachydysrhythmias brought on by the sympathetic nervous system
beta blockers
40
Class III
potassium channel blockers
41
Do potassium channel blockers shorten or extend the refractory period
Prolongs repolarization which extends refractory period
42
What can be used to treat all tachydysrhythmias?
potassium channel blockers
43
What is the most common potassium channel blocker?
Amiodarone
44
Class IV
Calcium channel blockers
45
Prime side effects of calcium channel blockers
hypotension and bradycardia- slows does the heart because its decreasing the automaticity
46
Calcium channel blocker medications
Verapamil, Diltiazem, Nifedipine
47
Adenosine does what to the heart's conductivity?
Decreases conduction velocity through the AV junction
48
Adenosine is not effective on?
A-fib(above the ventricle), A-flutter or ventricular dysrthmias
49
Where does Adenosine work?
The AV junction
50
Can adenosine be used to treat SVT?
yes
51
How does Diogoxin work?
Increases intracellular calcium which increases cardiac output and contractility. It also decreases AV conduction velocity.
52
Common agents for sedative hypnotics
eptimodate, fentanyl, midazolam
53
What is an analgesic?
decrease in perception of pain (not sensation)
54
What two classes of analgestic?
Opioid and non-opioids
55
What is an agonist?
binds to the receptor site and causes the expected response
56
What is an antagonist
binds to the receptor site and does not initiate the expected response (blocks the site)
57
A generic reference to morphine-like drugs/actions?
Opiates
58
What do opiods do?
Acts on endorphin receptors to decrease the ability to propagate pain impulses (Mu, Kappa, Sigma)
59
What do Sigma receptors cause?
AMS, hallucinations and delium
60
Examples of agonist-antagonist
nalbuphine (Nubaine), butorphanol (Stadol)
61
Example of pure opioid antagonist
naloxone(Narcan)
62
What is the cardiac load on analgesias?
Lowers preload and afterload
63
Miosis
excessive pupil constriction
64
Examples of adjunct medications/drugs that potentiate with opioids
caffeine, antihistamines, benzos
65
Naloxone is used for what type of overdose?
Treat heroin and opioid overdoses
66
Indication for Narcan(Naloxone)
Respiratory rate less than 8
67
Examples of Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Acetaminophen (Tylenol), Ibuprofen, Naproxen, Toradol(ketorolac), Salicylates (Aspirin)
68
How does Tylenol work?
Inhibits the synthesis of CNS prostaglandins (inflammatory response) and inhibits leukocyes migration and release of lysosomes
69
What is Ketorolac (Tordol)?
Anti-inflammatory effects are caused by decreased prostaglandin. Pain management related to decreased inflammation. Antipyretic
70
How can Ketorolac be given for vomiting pt?
IM or IV
71
What does Asprin inhibit the synthesis of?
inhibits the synthesis of cyclooxygenase(COX)
72
Aspirin effects
Bad:GI ulceration, increase bleeding, decrease renal elimination, decrease uterine contractions during labor
Good: pain relief, fever, inflammation
73
What decreases the neural impulses and loss of sensation?
anesthetics
74
Conscious sedation is also known as?
neuroleptanesthesia
75
How do local anesthetics affect?
affect on area around injection like lidocaine accompanies by epinephrine
76
Three examples of gas anesthetics
nitrous oxide(Notronox), halothane, Ether
77
Barbiturates do what?
Produce anesthesia and hypnosis but no pain relief; used for RSI
78
Onset and duration of barbiturates?
20-60 seconds, duration if 5 minutes
79
What are the three classes of sedative-hypnotic drugs?
Alcohol, Benzos, Barbiturates
80
Benzos promote which receptors?
Promote the effectiveness of GABA receptors
81
What part of the brain has a high concentration of benzo receptors?
amygdala (emotion center)
82
Examples of non-benzo benzos?
Zolpidem
83
Do barbiturates have a higher or lower respiratory depression than benzos?
high
84
Is there an antagonist for barbiturates?
No
85
Which barbiturate can be used for anti-seizures?
Phenobarbital(Luminal)
86
Magnesium sulfate
Blocks neurotransmission by decreasing ACH at motor nerve terminals
87
100gm of Thorazine is equivalent to what amount of Haldol?
2mg of Haldol
88
What is a treatment for extrapyramidal symptom?
Benadryl
89
TCAS block the reuptake of what?
Tricyclic antidepressants
Blocks the reuptake of NE and serotonin
90
What is the antidote for Tricyclic antidepressants
sodium bicarbonate
91
Most common side effects of SSRI's
nausea, insomnia, sexual dysfunction
92
Common MAO medications
Nardil, Parnate, Marplan
93
What is the Mechanism of action for amphetamines?
Promote the release of norepinephrine and dopamine
94
Indications for Amphetamines
diet suppresion, decrease in fatigue, increase concentraion
95
Side effects of amphetamines
psychosis, insomnia, convulsion, hypertension, tachycardia
96
Mimics the effect of ACH causing depolarization, then paralysis
succinylcholine
97
What do alpha agonists do?
increase BP and constrict blood vessels
98
Parasympatholytic/anti-cholinezgic effects include?
drying and bronchodilation
99
Muscarinic effects can be blocked with what?
Atropine
100
Anticholinergics black ACH at what receptor sites?
muscarinic receptors
101
How long does Atropine last?
3-5 minutes
102
What is Myasthenia gravis?
autoimmune disorder that destroys nicotinic fibers and causes muscle weakness
103
What is used to block adrenergics?
beta blockers and alpha blockers
104
What reacts directly on alpha and beta receptors?
catecholamines
105
What are the three naturally occurring catecholamines?
epi, norepinephrine, dopamine
106
Is dopamine is dose dependant?
yes
107
What are beta blockers used for?
HTN, SVT, Angina, tachy-dysrhythmias
108
Prolonged repolarization with potassium channel blockers extends what?
refractory period
109
What Class III dysrhythmic can be used on all tachydysrhythmias?
potassium channel blockers
110
What is one example of an off-label medication in EMS?
IV Tranexamic Acid
111
What is one controversial Schedule I controlled substance?
Marijuana
112
What classification of medication has a high abuse potential but has legitimate medical purposes?
Schedule II
113
What classification of medication is likely to be be carried and administered by medics?
Schedule II(Fentanyl and Morphine Sulfate) and Schedule 4 such as Midazolam(Versed), diazepam(Valium) and lorazepam(Ativan)
114
Which classification of medication requires locked storage, record keeping and waste protocols?
Schedule 2-5
115
Which classification of medication is not recognized for medical purposes?
Schedule 1
116
Which classification of medication is has high abuse potential?
Schedule 1
117
Heroin, Marijuana, LSD and Peyote are what type of classification?
Schedule 1
118
How does Amio work within the cardiac cycle?
Prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential cycle
119
What is the generic name for Atrovent?
Ipratropium Bromide
120
What is the effect of Adenosine?
Slows AV conduction time
121
What is the direct effect of glucagon?
mobilizes glycoygen storages
122
What is the effect of sodium bicarbonate on Ph blood level?
Increases blood Ph level
123
What is the effect of diphenhydramine?
Blocks histamine release by competing with H-1 receptors
124
How long should you administer Adenosine in duration?
1-3 seconds
125
What sign or symptom should you anticipate when administering magnesium sulfate?
hypercarbia
126
What is the effect of diltiazem(calcium channel blocker)?
Increases intracellular calcium
127
What is the mechanism of action for an analgestic?
increases the pain threshold in the CNS
128
What is the mechanism of action for an antipyretic?
blocks protaglandins in the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center of the brain
129
What produces endogenous pyrogens that increase prostalgandin in CSF?
leukocytes
130
What is the onset time for Acetaminophen?
30-60 minutes
131
What is the duration for Acetaminophen?
3-4hours
132
How do you treat for an acetaminophen overdose within 1 hour?
activated charcoal within 1 hour
133
How do you treat for an acetaminophen overdose over an hour?
Acetyllcysteine (Mucomyst)
134
Pediatric dose for Acetaminophen?
15mg/kg every 4-6 hours
135
Adult dose for Acetaminophen PR every 4-6 hours?
650mg
136
ADult dose for Acetaminophen PO every 4-6 hours?
325-650mg
137
What is the class for Acetazolamide?
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
138
What is the indication for Acetazolamide?
prevention and treatment of acute mountain sickness
139
What does Acetazolamide cause the kidneys to secrete when the person is hyperventilating?
bicarbonate (alkaline)
140
What is tinnitus? (*side effect of Acetazolamide)
ringing, humming or buzzing in both ears
141
What is the adult dose for Acetazolamide?
500mg - 1g per day in divided dose
142
What is the pediatric dose for Acetazolamide?
500mg per day in divide dose
143
What form of medication is wax like that dissolves in the rectum or other body cavity
suppository
144
What form of medication is a sterile solution for direct injection into a body cavity, tissue or organ?
Parenteral solution
145
What are two examples of parenteral solution?
Fentanyl(Sublimaze) and Epinephrine
146
The stem "pril" signifies
ACE Inhibitor Medication Class
147
Cardiac medication digoxin is given based on the pt's _______ body weight?
ideal body weight
148
Antidysrhythmic, Lidocaine, is administered based on the pt's ______ body weight?
actual body weight
149
Which patients are disproportionately susceptible to paradoxical medication reactions- opposite to the intended effects of the medication?
Pt's at extreme ages- infants and pt's older that 65yr
150
Barbiturates can cause unexpected _____ in older patients.
excitement or agitation
151
Barbiturates can cause unexpected ___________ in children?
excitement or agitation
152
Fever suppresses the function of the ____________ in the liver
Cytochrome P-450
153
______________impairs effectiveness of medications used in traditional cardiac ALS.
hypotension
154
Patients with primary pulmonary hypertension experience acute decompensation when they receive _______ ___________.
vasopressors
155
-azole
antifungals
156
-ane
general anesthetics
157
-ase
thrombolytics(clot-blusters)
158
-azosin
alpha blockers (adrenergic antagonist)
159
-barbital
barbiturates
160
-caine
local anesthetics
161
-ciclovir
anti-virals
162
-curonium
neuromuscular blocker
163
-dipine
calcium channel blockers
164
-ine
stimulants
165
-lam/ -pam
benzodiazepines
166
-lol
beta blockers (adrenergic antagonists)
167
-lone
corticosteroids
168
-micin/-mycin
antibiotics
169
-prazole
proton pump inhibitors (anti-ulcers)
170
-pril
ACE inhibitor (antihypertensives)
171
-profen
NSAID (antiinflammatory)
172
-setron
5-HT3 Receptor Antagonists (antiemetics)
173
-sone
corticosteriods
174
-stigmine
Cholinergics
175
-stine
Anti-tumor
176
-terol
Bronchodilators
177
-thiazide
Potassium-losing diuretics
178
-tidine
H2 receptor antagonists (anit-ulcers)
179
-triptan
anti-migraines
180
-triptline
(anti-depressants) tricyclics
181
-vastatin
antilipemics (anti-cholesterol)
182
-zine
phenothiazines (antipsychotics, antiemetics)
183
-zoine
nasal decongestants
184
A non proprietary name of abbreviation of the chemical name
GEneric name
185
Name given to the drug by the pharmaceuticals companies that make the drug
Tradename/brand name
186
What are the 6 rights of medication administration?
Right drug
Right dose
Right time
Right route
Right patient
Right documentation
187
What describes the attraction between a drug and a receptor?
Affinity
188
Do drugs with a low affinity require a higher or lower concentration of the drug to get a response?
Higher
189
What is the amount of drug that is required to produce a therapeutic response?
Drug potency
190
What is the amount of drug that produces a response in 50% of people taking it?
Effective Dose
191
What is the amount of the drug that produces adverse effects in 50% if the people taking it?
Toxic dose
192
What is the ratio between in the Margin of safety?
Toxic Dose and the Effective Dose
193
What is it called when a reaction to a drug has significantly different response that what was expected?
Idiosyncrasy
194
What is the enhancement of one's drug's effect by another drug?
Potentiation
195
Opium, Morphine and Methadone are examples of what type of drug schedule?
Schedule II
196
Codeine, amphetamines, phenobarbital are examples of what type of drug schedule?
Schedule III
197
What is the study of metabolism and action of drugs?
Pharmacokinetics
198
What are the key organs in biotransformation, process of drugs being inactivated and eliminated from the body?
LIver, lungs, kidneys, intestines
199
When medication is administered through IV, what percentage of bioavailability does it have?
100%
200
Drug induced movement disorders caused by antipsychotics, which include side effects like uncontrollable movements, tremors, muscle contractions are called what?
Extrapyramidal Symptoms
201
List the most effective routes of administration to the least effect route:
IV - INH- Intraperitoneal - IM - PO - Topical
202
What type of medication is mixed with a liquid, usually water, cannot dissolve and requires to be shaken for even distribution?
Suspension
203
What type of medication is a mixture of two liquid components?
Emulsion
204
Nerve fibers that secrete norepinephrine are called what?
adrenergic nerve
205
Nerve fibers that secrete acetylcholine are called?
cholinergic nerve fibers
206
Which drugs mimic catecholamines or the release of norepinephrine causing a sympathetic response are called what?
Adrenergics
207
What do adrenergics cause in the lungs?
bronchial dilation
208
What do adrenergics cause in the pupils?
Pupils will dilate
209
What do adrenergics cause to the rate of the heart?
Increase the contractile force and heart rate
210
Which type of drugs inhibit the activity of the sympathetic nervous system?
Sympatholytics
211
What schedule of medication is Xanax, Valium, Ativan under?
Schedule IV
212
What is another word for mechanism of action?
pharmacodynamics
213
What level of evidence does Class I indicate?
Strong evidence supporting the use of medication for the condition
214
What level of evidence does Class IIb indicate?
Weak evidence
215
What level of evidence does Class IIa indicate?
moderate evidence
216
What level of evidence does Class III no benefit indicate?
the benefit equals the risk and intervention should not be performed
217
What level of evidence does Class III harm indicate?
strong evidence that the risk is greater than the benefit, intervention should not be performed
218
What class of drug is hydrocodone?
Schedule III
219
What kind of antagonist temporarily bind with cellular receptor sites to displace agonist chemicals?
competitive antagonists
220
What type of antagonist permanently binds with receptor sites and prevent the activation by agonist chemicals?
Noncompetative antagonists
221
What are two examples of a noncompetitive antagonists?
Ketamine and Aspirin
222
Which partial agonist binds to mu opioid receptors which minimizes opioid physical dependence but still produces analgesia; used to treat addiction.
Buprenorphine( Buprenex, Subutex)
223
What kind of agents bind with heavy metals in the body to create a compound that can be eliminated?
chelating agent
224
When bicarbonate ions bind with excess hydrogen ions from sodium bicarbonate, does it increase or decrease the blood ph?
Increase pH
225
A chemical that increases urinary output?
diuretic
226
What is the effect of diltiazem?
(Calcium channel blocker) Decreases intracellular calcium which leads to reduction in muscle contractions.
227
What is the Brand name for Sildenafil?
Viagra
228
What is the first line drug for a pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Epinephrine
229
What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?
Flumazenil
230
What is the primary neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system?
Acetlycholine
231
What is the primary effect of Adenosine?
Slows AV node conduction time
232
Muscarinic effects can be blocked with what medication?
Atropine
233
Which sympatholytics block adrenergic effects?
Beta blocker and Alpha blockers
234
Which medication is similar to Dopamine but it doesn't increase HR as much and better for pt's who are already tachycardic?
Dobutamine
235
What is the indication for sodium channel blockers?
Ventricular dysrhythmias
236
What is the MOA for Class IA agents?
slow conduction through the ventricles (widens QT intervals)
237
What does Class Ib Agents do the v-fib threshold?
Increase
238
Where do Beta1 receptors in the heart attach to?
Calcium channels
239
What is the indication for Class II Beta Blockers?
tachydysrhythmias caused by sympathetic stimulation, HTV, SVT, angina
240
These blockers prolong repolarization which extend refractory periods...
Potassium channel blockers
241
These blockers are similar as Beta Blockers but are useful in breaking slow SVT, A-fib, and A-flutter
Calcium Channel Blockers
242
Verapamil, Diltiazem and Nifedipine are what type of medication?
Calcium Channel Blockers
243
Which medication can be used for CHF, A-fib and A-flutter?
Cardiac Glycocides
244
What can be used for stable A-fib as a diagnostic to rule out PSVT?
Adenosine
245
What medication can be used to treat for A-fib, chest pain and high blood pressure?
Cardizem (Diltiazem) - Calcium Channel Blocker
246
What is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent used for RSI?
Succinylcholine (Anectine)
247
How much is in a micro-drip tubing set?
60 gtts/mL
248
How much is in a macro-drip tubing set?
10 gtts/mL
249
For refractory V-fib or pulseless v-tach, how much Amiodarone is given?
300mg rapid IV/IO push
250
Are antidysrhythmics indicated for hemodynamic stable patients?
No
251
What is the correct dose and concentration of epi for a non-traumatic cardiac arrest?
0.1mg/mL or 10ML(1mg) every 3-5min
252
What are side effects of Atropine Sulfate?
thirst, dry mouth, pupil dilation, urinary retention (think anticholinergic)
253
What is the initial dose of Diltiazem to treat rapid ventricular rates with A-fib and A-Tach?
0.25mg/kg for IV
254
Does Nitro increase or decrease preload and afterload?
decrease
255
Are PVC's routinely treated with antidysrhythmics?
No
256
What is the life saving drug for hyperkalemia?
Calcium
257
Peaked T waves, absent P waves and widened QRS complexes are signs of?
hyperkalemia
258
Inward sodium channels close the cell begins to repolarize during what phase?
Phase 1
259
-tan
ARBs (antihypertensive)
260
What is used to increase the heart rate by opposing the vagus nerve when it causes bradycardia?
Atropine Sulfate
261
What medication increases myocardial oxygen demand?
Atropine
262
What is the state of being insensible to pain while still conscious?
analgesia
263
A medication that causes the inability to feel sensation
anesthetic
264
The percentage of the unchanged medication that reaches systemic circulation.
bioavailability
265
Medications that bind with heavy metals in the body and create a compound that can be eliminated; used incases of ingestion or poisoning
chelating agents
266
Paralytic agents that act at the neuromuscular junction by binding with nicotinic receptors on muscles, causing fasciculations and preventing activation by acetylcholine
competitive depolarizing
267
Drugs used in the treatment of heart failure and certain atrial dysrhythmias
digitalis preparations
268
Aspirin blocks the formations of ....?
Thromboxane A2
269
Can Aspirin be used to dissolve existing thrombuses?
No, it can only be used to prevent existing throbuses from
270
What is an inotropic medication that increases cardiac contractility to improve perfusion?
Dopamine
271
Can PVC's be treated with antidysrhythmics?
No
272
Digoxin is prescribed for patients with...?
heart failure, Afib, A-flutter
273
The mu opioid receptor complicates therapy for pain because it can cause....?
respiratory depression, dependence and constipation
274
What are three reasons to consider IO route?
Shock, seizures, cardiac arrest
275
What might happen if fluid leaks from an IO infusion outside the bone?
compartment syndrome
276
Where does medication undergo first-pass metabolism?
the liver
277
Where is the buccal region located?
between the gum and cheeks
278
Intranasal medication require how much more times the dose of IV medication?
2-2.5 times
279
Which 5 medications can be given IN?
Narcan, Versed, GlucaGen, Tordol (Ketorolac), Romazicon (Flumazenil), Fentanyl(Sublimaze)
280
What are the sites for IO medications?
proximal tibia, femur, distal tibia(medial malleolus), proximal humerus, sternum
281
Which opioid analgesic can cause hypotension?
Morphine
282
Which prehospital medications are known to cause fetal harm?
Aspirin and Benzos (diazepam, midazolam)
283
Is Lidocaine administered based on pt's ideal weight or actual?
Actual weight
284
A fever is known to suppress the function of the _______ system in the liver, which decreases the rate of metabolism of certain medications.
cytochrome P-450
285
hypotension may occur with a dobutamine infusion because?
it decreases afterload
286
As a medication undergoes biotransformation, it becomes?
metabolite
287
What is a another name for adverse effects, clinical changes not desired and cause some degree of harm?
untoward effects
288
Promethazine(Phenergan) is an antiemetic that may cause?
hemodynamic and ECG changes
289
In first order elimination, where the plasma levels directly influence the rate of elimination, the more substance in the plasma, the more _______exists.
elimination
290
What is the time needed in an average person for the metabolism or elimination of 50% of the substance in the plasma?
half-life
291
What is the half-life of Aspirin?
15-20 minutes
292
What is the half-life of Klonopin (Clonazepam)?
19-50hrs
293
Dopamine is commonly used for?
non hypovolemic hypotension
294
first-pass metabolism of a medication occurs when?
bioavailability of a medication is reduced before it reaches the circulation
295
Antibiotics and antiseizure medications can cause Stevens-Johnsons syndrome which causes?
fatal reactions that mimics a burn
296
What is an example of summation/addition medication interactions where two medications with similar effects combine to produce an effect equal to the sum?
Tylenol and Advil which are both antipyretics.
297
What medication can be used to treat tricyclic antidepressant overdose with widening QRS interval, hypotension and arrhythmias?
sodium bicarbonate
298
When promethazine(Phenergan) is used with codeine to increase effects over one medication alone; this is an example of?
potentiation - one medication enhancing the presence of another, which does not produce the same effect
299
Which cardiac glycoside decreases heart rate and improves contractility?
Digoxin (Lanoxin)
300
Calcium Channel blockers common indication includes?
reduction of heart rate and BP
301
which alpha receptor inhibits insulin release and suppresses norepinephrine release?
Alpha 2
302
Glucagon is used in the treatment of beta-blocker overdose because it?
produces positive inotropic and chronotropic effects
303
IV calcium can be used as an antidote to treat?
Magnesium Sulfate overdose
304
What do alpha adrenergic receptors do?
lower blood pressure
305
Which medication can be used to reduce cerebral edema?
Mannitol
306
Which catecholamine stimulates the alpha receptors?
Norepinephrine
307
Which medication is needed when acetylcholinesterase is inhibited and acetylcholine increases?
Atropine
308
In up to 60% of all patients, morphine sulfate have the side effect of?
nausea and vomiting, fentanyl is referred
309
an example of a nondepolarizing paralytic is?
Rocuronium - fast onset, longer duration and less side effects than Succ
310
what is an example of a competitive depolarizing paralytic is?
Succinylcholine - binds with nicotinic receptors to prevent additional activation of ACh
311
What is a life-threatening side effect of Succ?
Hyperthermia with metabolic acidosis and muscle rigidity
312
What is the main effect of dobutamine?
increases inotropy
313
What is the effect of Nitroglycerin in cardiac related chest pain?
decreases preload and coronary vasodilation
314
What medication is used to decrease gastric acid secretion?
histamine-2 receptor antagonist
315
The renin-angiotensin system functions by?
vasoconstriction, fluid retention for hypotension or hypoperfusion
316
The vagus nerve releases _______, which acts on the ____________receptors.
ACh, muscarinic
317
