Pharmacology Flashcards
(80 cards)
1
Q
Excess accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space is called ______
A
Edema
2
Q
When cardiac end diastolic pressure increases, increasing capillary hydrostatic pressure it is called ____ _____ _____
A
Congestive Heart Failure
3
Q
sodium is eliminated by (secretion/ decreased reabsorption)
A
decreased reabsorption
4
Q
Elimination of excess water that is more dilute than plasma is known as ________
A
positive free water clearance (piss)
5
Q
which can be secreted? (sodium/ potassium)
A
potassium
6
Q
Acidosis will (increase/ decrease) potassium secretion
A
decrease
7
Q
Name the Loop Diuretics (4)
A
- Furosemide
- Bumetanide
- Torsemide
- Ethacrynic acid
8
Q
Loop diuretics inhibit Cl transport at the (Na-K-2Cl/ Na-Cl) transporter in the TAL
A
Na-K-2Cl
9
Q
Thiazide diuretics inhibit Cl transport at the (Na-K-2Cl/ Na-Cl) transporter in the early distal tubule
A
Na-Cl
10
Q
What are the two true thiazide diuretics? (2)
A
- chlorothiazide
2. hydrochlorothiazide
11
Q
What are the thiazide-like diuretics? (4)
A
- Chlorthalidone
- Quinethazone
- Metolazone
- Indapamide
12
Q
What are the Potassium sparing diuretics that block Na channels? (2)
A
- Amiloride
- Triamterene
Aldosterone independent
given with loop diuretics
13
Q
What drug is the Potassium sparing diuretic that is an aldosterone receptor antagonist?
A
Spironolactone
Aldosterone Dependent
14
Q
The osmotic diuretic is ______
A
Mannitol
15
Q
What are the 3 classes of diuretics?
A
- Aquaretics
- Saluretics
- Osmotic
16
Q
What are the 2 aquaretic ADH receptor antagonists?
A
- Conivaptan
2. Tolvaptan
17
Q
What are the carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretics?
A
- Acetazolamide
- Methazolamide
- Dichlorphenamide
18
Q
Which cause more hyponatremia (Thiazide/ Loop) diuretics
A
thiazide
19
Q
Hypokalemia has a net effect of (increased/decreased) cardiac excitability
A
increases
20
Q
What are the 7 steps of the cardiac cycle?
A
- atrial contraction
- isovolumetric contraction
- rapid ejection
- reduced ejection
- isovolumetric relaxation
- rapid filling
- reduced filling
21
Q
S3 is a sign of ventricular (dilation/ hypertrophy)
A
dilation
sloshing during re-filling
22
Q
S4 is a sign of ventricular (dilation/ hypertrophy)
A
hypertrophy
vibration of the ventricular wall during atrial contraction
23
Q
A diet with too little potassium leads to (increased/ decreased) B.P.
A
increased
can’t excrete Na with too little K, leads to Na retention, hypertension
24
Q
Loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics both cause (hyper/hypo) kalemia
A
hypokalemia
25
What are the ACE-inhibitors?
6 total
1 short acting
1 pro-drug
1. Captopril - short acting
2. Lisinopril
3. Benazepril
4. Quinapril
5. Ramipril
6. Enalapril - converted to Enalaprilat
All the PRIL's
26
What are the Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers, ARBs? (3)
1. Losartan
2. Irbesartan
3. Valsartan
27
Which causes cough (ARB/ACE-I)
ACE inhibitors
| so just start with the ARB
28
The other aldosterone antagonist besides spironolactone that DOESN'T cause gynecomastia is _________
Eplerenone
| less potent than spironolactone
29
What are the non-dihydropryridine Ca2+ channel blockers? (2)
1. Diltiazem
| 2. Verapamil
30
What are the dihydropryridine Ca2+ channel blockers? (4)
1. Nifedepine, 1st gen
2. Amlodipine, 2nd gen
3. Felodipine, 2nd
4. Isradipine, 2nd
31
Which Ca2+ channel blockers cause reflex tachycardia? (dihydropryridines/ non-dihydropryridines)
dihydropryridines
| associated with angina
32
Which Ca2+ channel blockers are (-) chronotropes, improving cardiac oxygenation? (dihydropryridines/ non-dihydropryridines)
non-dihydropryridine
33
Which B-blocker can be given IV? (Propranolol/ Metoprolol/ Atenolol/ Bispropolol/ Nadolol/ Esmolol)
Esmolol
34
Which B-blocker is most prone to cause depression or bronchospasm? (Propranolol/ Metoprolol/ Atenolol/ Bispropolol/ Nadolol/ Esmolol)
Propranolol
35
Which is the most commonly used central α2 agonist for HTN? (Clonidine/ α-methyl dopa/ Hydralazine/ Minoxidil)
Clonidine
36
What is the direct vasodilators used for acute hypertensive emergency? (Clonidine/ α-methyl dopa/ Hydralazine/ Minoxidil)
Hydralazine
37
What is used for refractory HTN and topically for hair loss? (Clonidine/ α-methyl dopa/ Hydralazine/ Minoxidil)
Minoxidil
38
Which is a central α2 agonist for HTN that is safe in pregnancy? (Clonidine/ α-methyl dopa/ Hydralazine/ Minoxidil)
α-methyl dopa
39
what are the (2) α1 blockers used to reduce vascular resistance by acting on sm. muscle
1. terazosin
| 2. doxazosin
40
Inhibits phosphodiesterase increasing cAMP for the treatment of asthma (Ipratropium/ Tiotropium/ Theophylline)
Theophylline
41
Best asthma drug for people on beta blockers (Ipratropium/ Tiotropium/ Theophylline/ Cromolyn/ Nedocromil)
1. Ipratropium
2. Tiotropium
M blockers
42
Prevent degranulation of mast cells for treatment of asthma (Ipratropium/ Tiotropium/ Theophylline/ Cromolyn/ Nedocromil)
Cromolyn Nedocromil
43
This is a monoclonal antibody, anti IgE for treatment of severe asthma _______
Omalizumab
44
These are corticosteroids used to prevent the desensitization of B2 receptors for asthma treatment (3)
1. Budesonide
2. Fluticasone
3. Beclomethasone
45
Which is an LTD inhibitor for asthma? (Zileuton/ Zafinleukast/ Monteleukast/ Pranlukast)
1. Zafinleukast
2. Monteleukast
3. Pranlukast
46
Which is a Lipoxygenase inhibitor, prevents formation of leukotrienes for treatment of asthma? (Zileuton/ Zafinleukast/ Monteleukast/ Pranlukast)
Zileuton
47
'injury currents' seen on EKG are due to a rise in level of the extracellular _________ ions due to increased membrane permeability and damage
potassium
48
Anti-Anginal: blocks ADP activation of the GP IIb/IIIa receptor, anti-thrombotic for stents (Ticlopidine/ Clopidogrel/ Prasugrel/ Ticagrelor)
Clopidogrel
49
Anti-Anginal: ADP receptor inhibitor, also decreases plasma fibrinogen and increases red cell deformability (Ticlopidine/ Clopidogrel/ Prasugrel/ Ticagrelor)
Ticlopidine
50
Anti-Anginal: Irreversibly binds P2Y12 receptor to reduce thrombotic events esp. with coronary intervention (Ticlopidine/ Clopidogrel/ Prasugrel/ Ticagrelor)
Prasugrel
51
Anti-Anginal: increased risk of serious/ fatal bleed events, for patients who failed with clopidogel (Ticlopidine/ Prasugrel/ Ticagrelor)
Prasugrel
52
Anti-Anginal: reversibly blocks ADP receptors at site different from the ADP (Ticlopidine/ Clopidogrel/ Prasugrel/ Ticagrelor)
Ticagrelor
53
Anti-platelet: inhibits PDE5, activates adenylate cyclase increasing platelet cAMP, causes vasodilation of coronary arteries (Cilostazol/ Dipyrimadole)
Dipyrimadole
54
Anti-platelet: inhibits PDE, raises platelet cAMP, is a quinolone analog, treates peripheral vascular Dz (Cilostazol/ Dipyrimadole)
Cilostazol
55
Angiotensin II causes (vasodilation/ vasoconstriction)
vasoconstriction
56
Angiotensin II causes more vasoconstriction at the (afferent/ efferent) arteriole
efferent, increases glomerular pressure
57
ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin leading to vasodilation and the side effect of ______
cough
58
What are the nitrates used for angina?
1. Isosorbide Dinitrate
| 2. Isosorbide Mononitrate
59
What are the 3 Beta blockers indicated in CHF
1. Bisprolo
2. Carvedilol
3. Metoprolol
60
Positive Inotropes: This cardiac drug inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase, causing intracellular Ca2+ to rise, increasing contractility of the heart (Digoxin/ Dobutamine/ Milrinone)
Digoxin
61
Positive Inotropes: Beta-1 receptor agonist, vasodilation at low dose, vasoconstriction at high dose (Digoxin/ Dobutamine/ Milrinone)
Dobutamine
62
Positive Inotropes: PDE IIIa inhibitor, increase the heart's contractility and decrease pulmonary vascular resistance (Digoxin/ Dobutamine/ Milrinone)
Milrinone
63
Inhibits enterocyte absorption of cholesterol (Alirocumab/ Evolucumab/ Ezetimbe)
Ezetimbe
64
Inhibit enteropeptidase ESK9 preventing LDL-R degradation (Alirocumab/ Evolucumab/ Ezetimbe)
Alirocumab and
| Evolucumab
65
Works well as a complementary therapy to statins (Alirocumab/ Evolucumab/ Ezetimbe)
Ezetimbe
66
Which are the 3 newer statins with longer half lives? (Lovastatin/ Simvastatin/ Pravastatin/ Fluvastatin/ Atorvastatin/ Rosuvastatin/ Pitastatin)
Atorvastatin,
Rosuvastatin and,
Pitastatin
67
A U-wave on EKG may be seen if the electrolyte ________ is low
potassium
68
A transmural infarct typically has ST (elevation/ depression)
elevation
69
Subendocardial ischemia typically has ST (elevation/ depression)
depression
70
The two broad categories of cardiac arrhythmias are
1. automaticity
| 2. conduction
71
Anti-Arrhythmics: Class II are (Na channel block/ B-Block/ Phase 3 Prolong/ Ca2+ channel block)
Beta-Blockers
72
Anti-Arrhythmicss: Class I are (Na channel block/ B-Block/ Phase 3 Prolong/ Ca2+ channel block)
Na+ channel blockers
73
Anti-Arrhythmics: Class IV are (Na channel block/ B-Block/ Phase 3 Prolong/ Ca2+ channel block)
Ca2+ channel blockers
74
Anti-Arrhythmics: Class III are (Na channel block/ B-Block/ Phase 3 Prolong/ Ca2+ channel block)
Prolong phase 3
75
Quinidine
Procainamide
Disopyramide
Anti-Arrhythmics class (1A/ 1B/ 1C/ 2/ 3/ 4)
1A
| Blocks open Na+ channels
76
Mexiletine
Lidocaine
Anti-Arrhythmics class (1A/ 1B/ 1C/ 2/ 3/ 4)
1B
| Blocks depolarized/ inactivated/ ischemic Na+ channel
77
Flecainide
Propafenone
Morcizine
Anti-Arrhythmics class (1A/ 1B/ 1C/ 2/ 3/ 4)
1C
Prolong I na+ recovery, negative inotrope
can cause bradycardia
78
```
Sotalol
Amiodarone
Dofetilide
Ibutelide
Dronedarone
Anti-Arrhythmics class (1A/ 1B/ 1C/ 2/ 3/ 4)
```
```
class 3
K+ channel blocker, prolong phase 3
```
79
```
Verapamil
Diltiazam
Nifedipine
Amlodipine
Anti-Arrhythmics class (1A/ 1B/ 1C/ 2/ 3/ 4)
```
```
class 4
Ca2+ channel blockers
```
80
an abnormal accessory electrical conduction pathway between the atria and the ventricles is called __________
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
