Pharmacology Flashcards
(177 cards)
1
Q
In the elderly, anticholinergics can exacerbate _____________, contributing to cognitive decline
A
Alzheimer’s
2
Q
Pathways that convert a drug to a metabolite of greater, lesser or the same metabolic activity are (Phase I/ Phase II)
A
Phase I
3
Q
What is Beer’s criteria?
A
A list of drugs and reasons not to prescribe them to old people
4
Q
Which if the following is most likely to contribute to a fall in a geriatric pt? (A) Acetaminophen. (B) Hydrochlorothiazide. (C) Amitriptyline. (D) Calcium carbonate. (E) Pravastatin.
A
Amitriptyline
Psychoactive medications such as amitriptyline are associated with a high risk of falls
5
Q
Which one of the following medications can you give without adjusting for patient age? (A) Metoprolol. (B) Digoxin. (C) Diazepam. (D) Furosemide
A
Metoprolol
is metabolized in
the liver through phase II reactions
6
Q
Which has the adverse side effect of anorexia, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain? (A) Aspirin (B) Furosemide (C) Digoxin (D) Lisinopril (E) Acetaminophen
A
Digoxin
7
Q
What are the 3 ways to stimulate a gastric parietal cell to produce acid?
A
- gastrin
- histamine
- Acetylcholine
8
Q
Where do 1. gastrin 2. histamine 3. Acetylcholine come from?
A
gastin: g-cells
histamine: mast cells
Acetylcholine: vagal stim
9
Q
What is the effect of atropine on the stomach?
A
reduce acid secretion, reduce spasm
10
Q
What is propantheline used for?
A
reduce stomach acid secretion, reduce spasm
11
Q
What are the antihistamines for acid reflux?
A
- cimetidine
- ranitidine
- famotidine
- nizatidie
12
Q
How are H2 blockers eliminated?
A
CYP 450 in liver
13
Q
What time of day should PPI’s be taken?
A
before breakfast, parietal cells must be “turned-on” before PPI’s can inhibit
14
Q
What PPI can be given IV?
A
Pantoprazole
15
Q
What are the H+/K+ ATPase inhibitors?
A
- Omeprazole
- Landsoprazole
- Raberprazole
- Esomeprazole
- Pantoprazole
16
Q
What are bismuth salts and sucralfate used for?
A
coat stomach ulcer craters, ulcer treatment esp. H. pylori
17
Q
What drug should be give for NSAID induced gastric ulcers?
A
misoprostol
18
Q
What is ‘quadruple therapy’?
A
- PPI 2x daily
- tetracycline
- bismuth
- metronidazole
19
Q
what is advantage of liquid prep antacids?
A
speed, they are faster
20
Q
What are the 2 promotility agents for GERD?
A
- Metochlopramide
2. Cisapride
21
Q
What is the mechanism for Metochlopramide and Cisapride?
A
Dopamine agonist -> increase motor tone of LES and stomach
22
Q
The trade name of British anti-Lewisite is ___________
A
Dimercaprol
23
Q
The trade name for 2,3-dimercaptosuccinic acid is __________
A
Succimer
24
Q
What do British anti-lewisite, BAL and 2,3-dimercaptosuccinic acid treat?
A
Arsenic, lead and mercury poisoning
25
'Mad as a hatter' could be poisoning with _________
Mercury
26
Poisoning with _______ causes 'rice water' diarrhea
Arsenic
27
Long QT interval and rice water diarrhea is __________ poisoning
Arsenic
28
Basophilic stippling of RBCs occurs with _________ poisoning
Lead
29
What do you give someone with lead encephalopathy?
BAL, British anti-lewisite
30
When pipercillin and tazobactam are combined, it is called _______
Zosyn
31
What commonly causes otitis media and sinusitis? How do you treat it?
1. strep pneumonia
2. haemophilus influenza
3. Moraxilla
treat w/ amoxicillin
ceftriaxone is also effective against h influenza systemic dz
32
Pneumonia with Strep pneumococcus and Haemophilus influenza can be treated with ________
Amoxicillin
33
Amoxicillin + Clavulanate is called ________
Augmentin
34
Which stomach acid reducing drugs are known for drug-drug interactions due to CYP450 interference?
Histamine receptor blockers:
1. Cimetidine
2. Ranitidine
35
Toxin mediated diarrhea causes increased _______ in enterocytes
cAMP
36
How can anticholinergics like atropine reduce diarrhea?
| How do opioids like loperamide reduce diarrhea?
anticholinergics -> relax sm. muscle -> decrease gastric motility
Opioids -> constrict muscle -> decrease gastric motility
37
Diphenoxylate, Codine sulfate, Lopermide
| uses?
mu receptor interaction
| decrease gastric motility
38
What is metamucil?
a COLLOID that absorbs water, reduces diarrhea but does not prevent dehydration
39
What is bismuth subsalicylate = kaopectate?
a PECTIN that absorbs water, reduces diarrhea but does not prevent dehydration
AKA pepto bismol
40
What are 3 anti-inflammatory drugs for acute IBD?
1. Sulfasalazine
2. Olsalazine
3. Mesalamine
41
What are 3 Immunosuppressants that can be used for chronic IBD?
1. Azithioprine
2. Cyclosporine
3. Infliximab
42
How do Dolasetron, Granesitron and Ondansetron work?
Antagonists (block) 5HT3 receptors, anti-emetic effect
43
How does promethazine work?
Antihistamine, H1 receptor antagonist, anticholinergic and anti-emetic
44
What is prochlorperazine?
An anti-emetic that reduces CRTZ stimulation
45
What is the CRTZ?
the chemoreceptor trigger zone: an area of the medulla that checks blood and mediates vomiting
46
What drug is used to increase the fecal elimination of thallium?
prussian blue
47
The antidote for Iron toxicity is _________
Deferoxamine
48
Which chelating agent is solvated in peanut oil?
BAL, British anti-lewisite
49
What is Deferoxamine? What is it's side effect if treated for >24hrs?
Deferoxamine is the antidote for Iron poisoning, If treated for more than 24 hour, can cause Acute Lung Injury
50
Sodium nitroprusside is used as a _________
vasodilator, releases NO
51
If blood lead levels are greater than 50 µg/dl,
calcium disodium edetate (Ca Na2 EDTA) is administered. If the blood levels exceed 70 µg/dl,
dimercaprol (British-Anti-Lewisite [BAL]) is added. Why?
Dimercaprol (i.e., BAL) has a larger VD and hence will penetrate to sites inaccessible to Ca
Na2 EDTA
52
Which has a thick cell wall and which has an outer membrane, gram +/-?
As cephalosporins increase in generation, which do they cover better?
Thick cell wall: gram +
Outer membrane protiens: gram - w/ LPS
Cephalosporins have more gram - coverage with each generation
53
Which generation cephalosporin?
| Cefazolin
Gen 1
54
Which generation cephalosporin?
| cephalexin
Gen 1
55
Which generation cephalosporin?
| Cefuroxime
Gen 2
| fur fox in the grand tetons
56
Which generation cephalosporin?
| Cefoxitin
Gen 2
| fur fox tetons
57
Which generation cephalosporin?
| Cefotetan
Gen 2
| fur fox tetons
58
Which generation cephalosporin?
| Cefepime
Gen 4
59
Which generation cephalosporin?
| Ceftazadime
Gen 3
60
Which generation cephalosporin?
| Cepodoxime
Gen 3
61
Which generation cephalosporin?
| Ceftriaxone
Gen 3
62
Which generation cephalosporin?
| Ceftaroline
Gen 5
63
How does castor oil relive constipation?
irritates GI, causes peristalsis
64
How does MRSA evade beta-lactam Abx?
Alteration of PBP, specifically PBP2a
65
Which cephalosporin has activity against MRSA?
ceftaroline, Gen 5
66
How is Ceftriaxone excreted?
| What are Ceftriaxone side effects?
Ceftriaxone is excreted 30% renal, 70% hepatobiliary
Other cephalosporins excreted renaly
Ceftriaxone Side effects: biliary sludge, gallstones
bilirubin encephalopathy in new borns
67
which has better oral bio availability? (ampicillin/ amoxicillin)
amoxicillin
68
What is the #1 cause of pneumonia in CF patients?
| Also common in burn victims + nosocomial infections
pseudomonas
69
Which penicillins are used for pseudomonas?
| Which cephalosporin can be used for pseudomonas?
penicillins: Piperacillin, Ticarcillin
cephalosporin: cefepime, gen 4
70
What two Abx are combined to make zosyn?
pipercillin and tazobactam
71
What two drugs are combined to make augmentin?
amoxacillin and clavulanate
72
64 y. o. with a total knee replacement that is now infected with MSSA. What Abx should you use?
a. penicilin G IV
b. Ampicillin IV
c. oxacillin IV
d. dicloxacillin PO
oxacillin IV, is penecillinase reistant and antistaphylococcal.
has better bioavailability than dicloxacillin
73
What 2 Abx are best know for disulfram like rxn w/ alcohol?
Metronidazole and cefalosporins
| specifically with cefamandole 2nd gen, cefotetan 2nd gen, and cefoperazone 3rd gen
74
What are the PEcK bugs?
| Which generation of cephalosporins has activity against the PEcK bugs?
Proteus, E coli, Klebsiella
| Gen 1: Cefazolin, Cephalexin, Cephadroxil
75
What cephalosporin is used for surgical prophylaxis?
Cefazolin, 1st generation
76
```
What class of drug is Aztreonam?
What is the coverage of Aztreonam?
```
```
Monobactam
aerobic gram (-) only, good for serious systemic infections
(B pertussis
F tularemia
Listeria
B henslae
pseudomonas
Brucells)
```
77
What are the Carbapenams?
1. Doripenem
2. Ertapenem
3. Meropenem
4. Imipenem
78
What must be given with imipenem to prevent degradation with renal enzyme dehydropeptidase 1?
Cilastin
79
What is the empiric treatment of endocarditis?
Vancomycin
| covers staph and strep families
80
Vancomycin is poorly absorbed. It is only used orally for treatment of _________
C difficile
81
Red man syndrome with vancomycin is due to release of __________
histamine
| vanco can also cause ototox and nephrotox
82
What microbes does Daptomycin cover?
Gram (+), staph, Strep, Enterococcus works on VRE
83
How do tetracyclines work?
bind 30s subunit, Inhibit Ribosomal translation by stopping tRNA docking
84
What 2 bacteriostatic drug classes bind the 30s ribosomal subunit?
1. tetracyclines
| 2. aminoglycosides
85
What drug works on infections acquired in the great outdoors including rickettsia, ehrlichia, borellia, francisella, coxiella, brucella
Doxycycline
| or minocycline, but worse side effects
86
where does vancomycin work?
| cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth
cell wall, inhibits transglycosylation
87
Where do sulfanamide Abx work?
| cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth
Dihydropteroate synthase
88
where do aminoglycosides work?
| cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth
30s
| A and T
89
where do tetracyclines work? (cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)
30s
| A and T
90
where does clindamycin work?
| (cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)
50s
| macrolides and singles
91
where does macrolides work?
| (cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)
50s, block ribosomal AA translocation
| macrolides and singles work at 50s
92
where does rifampin work? (cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)
dna directed rna polymerase
| esp TB
93
where do fluoroquinolones work?
| (cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)
DNA gyrase
94
Where does trimethoprim work?
| (cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)
DHF reductase
95
Where do cephalosporins work? (cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)
cell wall
96
What are the uses of chloremphenicol?
meningitis outbreaks in third world, pregnant women with rickestial Dz where tetracyclines are contraindicated
97
What are the uses of linezolid?
binds 50S, serious gram + infections, MRSA, VRE
98
What are the side effects of linezolid?
thrombocytopenia, anemia, neutropenia, optic neuropathy
99
What is first line treatment for acute prostatis in men?
Bactram, TMP-SMX
100
What are the 'big guns' for MRSA?
Vancomycin, daptomycin, linezolid
second line:
bactram, ceftaroline
101
what is the treatment for toxoplasmosis?
Pyrimethamine/ Sulfadiazine
102
What are 2 major side effects of inhibiting folate synthesis?
1 megalolastic anemia
| 2. neural tube defects in first trimester
103
Which can treat MRSA and anaerobes like clostridium perfringins? (clarithromycin/ clindamycin)
clindamycin
104
Which is a macrolide? (clarithromycin/ clindamycin)
clarithromycin and azithromycin are macrolides
105
First line treatment for an uncomplicated UTI is ________
| For complicated UTI with diabetes, _______
uncomplicated: Bactram, TMP-SMX
complicated: fluoroquinolones: Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin
106
What is the cardiac side effect of fluoroquinolines, Moxifloxacin, Levofloxacin, Ciprofloxacin
QT prolongation
| both macrolides and fluoroquinolones
107
Which Abx are known for causing tendon and cartilage damage?
fluoroquinolines: Moxifloxacin, Levofloxacin, Ciprofloxacin
108
metals like Ca2+, Fe2+ and Mg2+ decrease absorption of what Abx?
fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines
109
Which component of RIPE therapy inhibits mycolic acid synthesis?
Isoniazid
110
Isoniazid is abreviated INH. What are the side effects of isoniazid?
Injury to Nerves and Hepatocytes (INH)
111
Which componenet of RIPE therapy inhibits DNA synthesis?
Rifampin, inhibits DNA dependant RNA polymerase
112
What vitamin MUST isoniazide be administered with to prevent peripheral neuropathy?
B6
113
Isoniazid inhibits CYP 450, what anti-epiliptic is implicated?
phenytoin can be raised to toxic levels
114
Which part of RIPE therapy is a CYP inhibitor? Inducer?
Isoniazid is inhibitor
| Rifampin is inducer
115
Which part of RIPE therapy inhibits arabinosyl transferase involved in cell wall synthesis?
Ethambutol
116
What is the side effect of ethambutol?
red/green color blindness
117
What is the DOC for MSSA?
Oxacillin, Nafcillin
118
Which generation of Cephalosporins is best for meningitis? what is the empiric treatment for post-surgical meningitis?
gen 3 crosses BBB best,
| Ceftazidime best for post surg meningitis
119
Which cephalosporin can cause akinetic seizures?
cefepime, gen 4
120
When would you combine Daptomycin w/ ceftaroline, gen 5?
For complicated bacteremia. MRSA. VRE
121
Dalbavancin and Oritivancin work similar to vancomycin, but what is special about thier pharmokinetics?
Dalbavancin and Oritivancin, long half life 200 hours
122
```
Which of the following is an appropriate empiric regimen for a hospital-acquired intraabdominal
infection?
A. Gentamicin plus vancomycin
B. Clindamycin plus vancomycin
C. Meropenem
D. Ciprofloxacin
```
Meropenam
123
```
Which one of the following agents is an ORAL option to treat Pseudomonas infection?
A. Levofloxacin
B. Doxycycline
C. Moxifloxacin
D. Cefotetan
```
Levofloxacin
124
```
Which one of the following agents is the most acceptable for the treatment of MSSA
bacteremia?
A. Daptomycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Cefazolin
D. Piperacillin-tazobactam
```
cefazolin
125
Which of the following antibiotics can cause nephrotoxicity?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
B. Amikacin (aminoglycoside)
C. Vancomycin
D. Piperacillin-tazobactam
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
126
```
Which of the following antibiotics inhibits the last step in cell wall synthesis
(transpeptidation)?
A. Tigecycline
B. Cephalexin
C. Daptomycin
D. Levofloxacin
```
B. Cephalexin
tigecycline: 30S
Daptomycin: depolarizes
Levofloxacin: DNA gyrase and topoisomerase
127
```
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate choice for treatment of MRSA pneumonia?
A. Daptomycin
B. Linezolid
C. Vancomycin
D. Meropenem
E. A & D
```
A & D
Daptmycin, Linezolid and Vancomycin all cover MRSA
Daptomycin is inactivated by pulmonary surfactant
128
What are the fluoroquinolines?
1. Ciprofloxacin, gen 1
2. Levofloxacin, Gen 2
3. Moxicloxacin, Gen 2
129
A 56-year-old male is receiving ciprofloxacin and linezolid for a 6 week course of
prosthetic knee infection. After 4 weeks, the patient calls his doctor’s office and
complains of gum bleeding after brushing his teeth. What is the most likely explanation?
A. Hemolytic anemia from ciprofloxacin
B. Thrombocytopenia from ciprofloxacin
C. Hemolytic anemia from linezolid
D. Thrombocytopenia from linezolid
Thrombocytopenia from linezolid
130
```
A 56-year-old female with CAP presents with cough and increased sputum production. CXR is consistent with pneumonia. Which of the following is an appropriate empiric antibiotic
regimen?
A. Aztreonam
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Levofloxacin
D. Ceftriaxone
```
Levofloxacin, cipro does not cover pneumococcus, levo does
131
This PGE1 analog can increase mucous production and bicabonate secretion in the stomach
Misoprostol
| also induces labor-> abortion
132
What is the DOC for syphilis?
Benzapine-penicillin G
133
What is the DOC for Clostridium difficile?
Metronidazole, oral vancomycin is a back-up
134
What is the coverage of Vancomycin?
MRSA, entercocci, back up drug for Clostridium difficile
135
```
A patient diagnosed with an intraabdominal Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection would be most effectively treated with which of the following?
A.Amoxicillin
B.Cefuroxime
C.Meropenem
D.Methicillin
E.Vancomycin
```
Meropenam
136
```
A patient who had an anaphylactic allergic reaction to ceftriaxone is least likely to experience an allergic reaction if administered which of the following?
A.Aztreonam
B.Cefuroxime
C.Imipenem
D.Loracarbef
```
Aztreonam
137
Which bacteria are no covered by cephalosporins?
```
LAME
Listeria monocytogenes
Atypicals
MRSA (covered by Ceftaroline)
Enterococci
```
138
What is the DOC for yersinia and tularemia?
Streptomycin
139
Which Abx can cause phototoxicity, a rash when exposed to sunlight?
FoToS
| Fluoroquinolones, Tetracyclines, Sulfonamides,
140
What is the DOC for chlamydia infection
Tetracycline,r 7 days or azithromycin, single dose
141
What do you use for lyme Dz in an adult? a child?
adult: tetracycline, doxycycline
child: amoxacillin
142
What tetracycline can be used for both MRSA and VRE?
tigecycline
143
What is the DOC for nocardia?
Bactram
144
A patient with a deficiency of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is at a significantly higher risk for developing hemolytic anemia if he receives which of the following antibiotics?
```
A.Ampicillin
B.Cefaclor
C.Ciprofloxacin
D.Tetracycline
E.Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
```
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
145
A pregnant woman gives birth to an infant who has abnormally high levels of unconjugated bilirubin. Which of the following antibiotics was most likely administered to the mother?
```
A.Ampicillin
B.Ciprofloxacin
C.Metronidazole
D.Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
E.Vancomycin
```
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
146
A 65-year-old man is diagnosed with acute bacterial prostatitis and is prescribed ciprofloxacin for 6 weeks. This agent exerts its therapeutic effect through which of the following mechanisms?
A.Competitive inhibition of para-aminobenzoic acid
B.Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
C.Inhibition of DNA gyrase
D.Inhibition of viral replication, decreased viral shedding, and reduced time for healing of lesions
E.Reversible binding to the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes
Inhibition of DNA gyrase
147
Vestibular dysfunction and nephrotoxicity are most commonly seen with which of the following?
```
A.Ethambutol
B.Isoniazid
C.Pyrazinamide
D.Rifampin
E.Streptomycin
```
Streptomycin
148
After consuming alcohol, a patient who is currently taking an antibiotic experiences severe nausea, vomiting, sweating, and tachycardia. Based on this information, the patient is most likely receiving which of the following?
```
A.Acyclovir
B.Cefaclor
C.Metronidazole
D.Tetracycline
E.Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
```
Metronidazole
149
What is the treamtnet for Mycobacterium Avium complex, MAC?
MAC, Macrolides, Azithromycin, clarithromycin
150
What is the dose limiting toxicity of zidovudine, AZT?
bone marrow suppression
151
Why cant you use both Lamivudine and Emtricitabine in combination to treat HIV?
Both are cytosine analogs, compete against each other
152
Why do we use Ritonavir with other protease inhibitors? what are the other protease inhibitors?
```
Ritonavir is a p450 inhibitor, raises drug conc of others:
Fosamprenavir
Atazanavir
Darunavir
Lopinavir
```
153
Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of cytomegalovirus retinitis and is associated with the development of interstitial nephritis, severe hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypokalemia?
```
A.Acyclovir
B.Cidofovir
C.Foscarnet
D.Nevirapine
E.Zidovudine
```
Foscarnet
154
The dose-limiting side effect of ganciclovir is which of the following?
```
A.Agranulocytosis
B.Azotemia
C.Cataracts
D.Neutropenia
E.Pulmonary fibrosis
```
Neutropenia
155
Which of the following is contraindicated for use with furosemide?
A.Amantadine
B.Efavirenz
C.Foscarnet
D.Indinavir
Foscarnet
156
A patient who is being treated for an influenza A infection complains of increased nervousness and insomnia. The patient is most likely being treated with which of the following agents?
A.Amantadine
B.Ganciclovir
C.Oseltamivir
D.Ribavirin
Amantadine
157
The mechanism of action of which of the following involves the blocking of viral penetration and UNCOATING?
A.Acyclovir
B.Amantadine
C.Efavirenz
D.Indinavir
Amantadine
158
Which of the following agents is classified as a protease inhibitor?
A.Didanosine
B.Nevirapine
C.Ritonavir
D.Zalcitabine
Ritonavir, saquinavir, and indinavir are classified as protease inhibitors
159
Which of the following agents is most likely to increase the INR of a patient receiving warfarin?
A.Didanosine
B.Nevirapine
C.Ritonavir
D.Stavudine
Ritonavir
160
What are the components of HIV post-exposure prophylaxis? PrEP?
PrEP: tenofovir+emtricitabine
| Post exposure: tenofovir+emtricitabine+raltegravir
161
What are the HIV integrase inhibitors?
-tegravir
| Raltegravir, Elvitegravir, Dolutegravir
162
What are the fusion inhibitors for HIV?
1. Enfuviritide, binds gp41
| 2. Maraviroc, binds CCR5 on macrophages
163
What can be administered with amphotericin B to reduce infusion reactions like fever chills and rigor?
antihistamine
164
What is the DOC for aspergillus?
Vorconazole
165
Which antifungals penetrates the CSF?
Fluconazole, Flucytosine
166
Which anti-fungal can lead to gynecomastia, menstrual irregularities, and decreased libido? Why?
Ketoconazole -> inhibits p450's -> decreased sex steroid synthesis
167
Which anti-fungal has this Mech of action: converted by fungal cytosine deaminase to 5-FU, a toxic chemotherapeutic
Flucytosine
168
Which anti-fungals are given IV and inhibit the cell wall?
Echinocandins:
| Caspofungin, Anidulafungin, Micafungin
169
Amphotericin B is the drug of choice as a single agent for treatment of which of the following?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Cryptococcus
C.Herpes simplex
D. Histoplasma
Cryptococcus
170
The most common side effect of amphotericin B is most appropriately treated with which of the following?
A.Diltiazem
B.Folic acid
C.Gabapentin
D.Meperidine
Meperidine, an opioid
171
Which of the following is most likely to result in an oral Candida infection?
A.Aerosolized albuterol
B.Aerosolized beclomethasone
C.Aerosolized ipratropium
D.Oral fluconazole
Aerosolized beclomethasone
172
What is the significance of Linezolid inhibiting MAO?
can result in serotonin syndrome if given with serotonergic agents
173
Which 2 antibiotic classes can result in long QT or torsades?
Fluoroquinolones esp moxifloxacin
| AND macrolides
174
What drug is used as prophylaxis for nisseria meningitidis?
Rifampin
175
What supplement must be given with Isoniazid?
B6, prevent neuropathy
176
What type of pneumonia are AIDS patients especially at risk for? What is the prophylaxis?
Pneumocystis jirovecci
| Rx: Bactram
177
What type of rash can be cause by TMP-SMX?
SJS or TEN
