Pharmacology Flashcards Preview

*Unit 6 ER > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Flashcards in Pharmacology Deck (177):
1

In the elderly, anticholinergics can exacerbate _____________, contributing to cognitive decline

Alzheimer's

2

Pathways that convert a drug to a metabolite of greater, lesser or the same metabolic activity are (Phase I/ Phase II)

Phase I

3

What is Beer's criteria?

A list of drugs and reasons not to prescribe them to old people

4

Which if the following is most likely to contribute to a fall in a geriatric pt?
(A) Acetaminophen.
(B) Hydrochlorothiazide.
(C) Amitriptyline.
(D) Calcium carbonate.
(E) Pravastatin.

Amitriptyline
Psychoactive medications such as amitriptyline are associated with a high risk of falls

5

Which one of the following medications can you give without adjusting for patient age?
(A) Metoprolol.
(B) Digoxin.
(C) Diazepam.
(D) Furosemide

Metoprolol
is metabolized in
the liver through phase II reactions

6

Which has the adverse side effect of anorexia, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain?
(A) Aspirin
(B) Furosemide
(C) Digoxin
(D) Lisinopril
(E) Acetaminophen

Digoxin

7

What are the 3 ways to stimulate a gastric parietal cell to produce acid?

1. gastrin
2. histamine
3. Acetylcholine

8

Where do
1. gastrin
2. histamine
3. Acetylcholine
come from?

gastin: g-cells
histamine: mast cells
Acetylcholine: vagal stim

9

What is the effect of atropine on the stomach?

reduce acid secretion, reduce spasm

10

What is propantheline used for?

reduce stomach acid secretion, reduce spasm

11

What are the antihistamines for acid reflux?

1. cimetidine
2. ranitidine
3. famotidine
4. nizatidie

12

How are H2 blockers eliminated?

CYP 450 in liver

13

What time of day should PPI's be taken?

before breakfast, parietal cells must be "turned-on" before PPI's can inhibit

14

What PPI can be given IV?

Pantoprazole

15

What are the H+/K+ ATPase inhibitors?

1. Omeprazole
2. Landsoprazole
3. Raberprazole
4. Esomeprazole
5. Pantoprazole

16

What are bismuth salts and sucralfate used for?

coat stomach ulcer craters, ulcer treatment esp. H. pylori

17

What drug should be give for NSAID induced gastric ulcers?

misoprostol

18

What is 'quadruple therapy'?

1. PPI 2x daily
2. tetracycline
3. bismuth
4. metronidazole

19

what is advantage of liquid prep antacids?

speed, they are faster

20

What are the 2 promotility agents for GERD?

1. Metochlopramide
2. Cisapride

21

What is the mechanism for Metochlopramide and Cisapride?

Dopamine agonist -> increase motor tone of LES and stomach

22

The trade name of British anti-Lewisite is ___________

Dimercaprol

23

The trade name for 2,3-dimercaptosuccinic acid is __________

Succimer

24

What do British anti-lewisite, BAL and 2,3-dimercaptosuccinic acid treat?

Arsenic, lead and mercury poisoning

25

'Mad as a hatter' could be poisoning with _________

Mercury

26

Poisoning with _______ causes 'rice water' diarrhea

Arsenic

27

Long QT interval and rice water diarrhea is __________ poisoning

Arsenic

28

Basophilic stippling of RBCs occurs with _________ poisoning

Lead

29

What do you give someone with lead encephalopathy?

BAL, British anti-lewisite

30

When pipercillin and tazobactam are combined, it is called _______

Zosyn

31

What commonly causes otitis media and sinusitis? How do you treat it?

1. strep pneumonia
2. haemophilus influenza
3. Moraxilla
treat w/ amoxicillin
ceftriaxone is also effective against h influenza systemic dz

32

Pneumonia with Strep pneumococcus and Haemophilus influenza can be treated with ________

Amoxicillin

33

Amoxicillin + Clavulanate is called ________

Augmentin

34

Which stomach acid reducing drugs are known for drug-drug interactions due to CYP450 interference?

Histamine receptor blockers:
1. Cimetidine
2. Ranitidine

35

Toxin mediated diarrhea causes increased _______ in enterocytes

cAMP

36

How can anticholinergics like atropine reduce diarrhea?
How do opioids like loperamide reduce diarrhea?

anticholinergics -> relax sm. muscle -> decrease gastric motility
Opioids -> constrict muscle -> decrease gastric motility

37

Diphenoxylate, Codine sulfate, Lopermide
uses?

mu receptor interaction
decrease gastric motility

38

What is metamucil?

a COLLOID that absorbs water, reduces diarrhea but does not prevent dehydration

39

What is bismuth subsalicylate = kaopectate?

a PECTIN that absorbs water, reduces diarrhea but does not prevent dehydration
AKA pepto bismol

40

What are 3 anti-inflammatory drugs for acute IBD?

1. Sulfasalazine
2. Olsalazine
3. Mesalamine

41

What are 3 Immunosuppressants that can be used for chronic IBD?

1. Azithioprine
2. Cyclosporine
3. Infliximab

42

How do Dolasetron, Granesitron and Ondansetron work?

Antagonists (block) 5HT3 receptors, anti-emetic effect

43

How does promethazine work?

Antihistamine, H1 receptor antagonist, anticholinergic and anti-emetic

44

What is prochlorperazine?

An anti-emetic that reduces CRTZ stimulation

45

What is the CRTZ?

the chemoreceptor trigger zone: an area of the medulla that checks blood and mediates vomiting

46

What drug is used to increase the fecal elimination of thallium?

prussian blue

47

The antidote for Iron toxicity is _________

Deferoxamine

48

Which chelating agent is solvated in peanut oil?

BAL, British anti-lewisite

49

What is Deferoxamine? What is it's side effect if treated for >24hrs?

Deferoxamine is the antidote for Iron poisoning, If treated for more than 24 hour, can cause Acute Lung Injury

50

Sodium nitroprusside is used as a _________

vasodilator, releases NO

51

If blood lead levels are greater than 50 µg/dl,
calcium disodium edetate (Ca Na2 EDTA) is administered. If the blood levels exceed 70 µg/dl,
dimercaprol (British-Anti-Lewisite [BAL]) is added. Why?

Dimercaprol (i.e., BAL) has a larger VD and hence will penetrate to sites inaccessible to Ca
Na2 EDTA

52

Which has a thick cell wall and which has an outer membrane, gram +/-?
As cephalosporins increase in generation, which do they cover better?

Thick cell wall: gram +
Outer membrane protiens: gram - w/ LPS
Cephalosporins have more gram - coverage with each generation

53

Which generation cephalosporin?
Cefazolin

Gen 1

54

Which generation cephalosporin?
cephalexin

Gen 1

55

Which generation cephalosporin?
Cefuroxime

Gen 2
fur fox in the grand tetons

56

Which generation cephalosporin?
Cefoxitin

Gen 2
fur fox tetons

57

Which generation cephalosporin?
Cefotetan

Gen 2
fur fox tetons

58

Which generation cephalosporin?
Cefepime

Gen 4

59

Which generation cephalosporin?
Ceftazadime

Gen 3

60

Which generation cephalosporin?
Cepodoxime

Gen 3

61

Which generation cephalosporin?
Ceftriaxone

Gen 3

62

Which generation cephalosporin?
Ceftaroline

Gen 5

63

How does castor oil relive constipation?

irritates GI, causes peristalsis

64

How does MRSA evade beta-lactam Abx?

Alteration of PBP, specifically PBP2a

65

Which cephalosporin has activity against MRSA?

ceftaroline, Gen 5

66

How is Ceftriaxone excreted?
What are Ceftriaxone side effects?

Ceftriaxone is excreted 30% renal, 70% hepatobiliary
Other cephalosporins excreted renaly
Ceftriaxone Side effects: biliary sludge, gallstones
bilirubin encephalopathy in new borns

67

which has better oral bio availability? (ampicillin/ amoxicillin)

amoxicillin

68

What is the #1 cause of pneumonia in CF patients?
Also common in burn victims + nosocomial infections

pseudomonas

69

Which penicillins are used for pseudomonas?
Which cephalosporin can be used for pseudomonas?

penicillins: Piperacillin, Ticarcillin
cephalosporin: cefepime, gen 4

70

What two Abx are combined to make zosyn?

pipercillin and tazobactam

71

What two drugs are combined to make augmentin?

amoxacillin and clavulanate

72

64 y. o. with a total knee replacement that is now infected with MSSA. What Abx should you use?
a. penicilin G IV
b. Ampicillin IV
c. oxacillin IV
d. dicloxacillin PO

oxacillin IV, is penecillinase reistant and antistaphylococcal.
has better bioavailability than dicloxacillin

73

What 2 Abx are best know for disulfram like rxn w/ alcohol?

Metronidazole and cefalosporins
(specifically with cefamandole 2nd gen, cefotetan 2nd gen, and cefoperazone 3rd gen)

74

What are the PEcK bugs?
Which generation of cephalosporins has activity against the PEcK bugs?

Proteus, E coli, Klebsiella
Gen 1: Cefazolin, Cephalexin, Cephadroxil

75

What cephalosporin is used for surgical prophylaxis?

Cefazolin, 1st generation

76

What class of drug is Aztreonam?
What is the coverage of Aztreonam?

Monobactam
aerobic gram (-) only, good for serious systemic infections
(B pertussis
F tularemia
Listeria
B henslae
pseudomonas
Brucells)

77

What are the Carbapenams?

1. Doripenem
2. Ertapenem
3. Meropenem
4. Imipenem

78

What must be given with imipenem to prevent degradation with renal enzyme dehydropeptidase 1?

Cilastin

79

What is the empiric treatment of endocarditis?

Vancomycin
(covers staph and strep families)

80

Vancomycin is poorly absorbed. It is only used orally for treatment of _________

C difficile

81

Red man syndrome with vancomycin is due to release of __________

histamine
(vanco can also cause ototox and nephrotox)

82

What microbes does Daptomycin cover?

Gram (+), staph, Strep, Enterococcus works on VRE

83

How do tetracyclines work?

bind 30s subunit, Inhibit Ribosomal translation by stopping tRNA docking

84

What 2 bacteriostatic drug classes bind the 30s ribosomal subunit?

1. tetracyclines
2. aminoglycosides

85

What drug works on infections acquired in the great outdoors including rickettsia, ehrlichia, borellia, francisella, coxiella, brucella

Doxycycline
(or minocycline, but worse side effects)

86

where does vancomycin work?
(cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)

cell wall, inhibits transglycosylation

87

Where do sulfanamide Abx work?

(cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)

Dihydropteroate synthase

88

where do aminoglycosides work?
(cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)

30s
A and T

89

where do tetracyclines work? (cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)

30s
A and T

90

where does clindamycin work?
(cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)

50s
macrolides and singles

91

where does macrolides work?
(cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)

50s, block ribosomal AA translocation
macrolides and singles work at 50s

92

where does rifampin work? (cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)

dna directed rna polymerase
esp TB

93

where do fluoroquinolones work?
(cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)

DNA gyrase

94

Where does trimethoprim work?
(cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)

DHF reductase

95

Where do cephalosporins work? (cell wall/ DNA gyrase/ DNA dir RNA pol/ 50S/ 30S/ DHF red/ DHPT synth)

cell wall

96

What are the uses of chloremphenicol?

meningitis outbreaks in third world, pregnant women with rickestial Dz where tetracyclines are contraindicated

97

What are the uses of linezolid?

binds 50S, serious gram + infections, MRSA, VRE

98

What are the side effects of linezolid?

thrombocytopenia, anemia, neutropenia, optic neuropathy

99

What is first line treatment for acute prostatis in men?

Bactram, TMP-SMX

100

What are the 'big guns' for MRSA?

Vancomycin, daptomycin, linezolid
second line:
bactram, ceftaroline

101

what is the treatment for toxoplasmosis?

Pyrimethamine/ Sulfadiazine

102

What are 2 major side effects of inhibiting folate synthesis?

1 megalolastic anemia
2. neural tube defects in first trimester

103

Which can treat MRSA and anaerobes like clostridium perfringins? (clarithromycin/ clindamycin)

clindamycin

104

Which is a macrolide? (clarithromycin/ clindamycin)

clarithromycin and azithromycin are macrolides

105

First line treatment for an uncomplicated UTI is ________
For complicated UTI with diabetes, _______

uncomplicated: Bactram, TMP-SMX
complicated: fluoroquinolones: Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin

106

What is the cardiac side effect of fluoroquinolines, Moxifloxacin, Levofloxacin, Ciprofloxacin

QT prolongation
both macrolides and fluoroquinolones

107

Which Abx are known for causing tendon and cartilage damage?

fluoroquinolines: Moxifloxacin, Levofloxacin, Ciprofloxacin

108

metals like Ca2+, Fe2+ and Mg2+ decrease absorption of what Abx?

fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines

109

Which component of RIPE therapy inhibits mycolic acid synthesis?

Isoniazid

110

Isoniazid is abreviated INH. What are the side effects of isoniazid?

Injury to Nerves and Hepatocytes (INH)

111

Which componenet of RIPE therapy inhibits DNA synthesis?

Rifampin, inhibits DNA dependant RNA polymerase

112

What vitamin MUST isoniazide be administered with to prevent peripheral neuropathy?

B6

113

Isoniazid inhibits CYP 450, what anti-epiliptic is implicated?

phenytoin can be raised to toxic levels

114

Which part of RIPE therapy is a CYP inhibitor? Inducer?

Isoniazid is inhibitor
Rifampin is inducer

115

Which part of RIPE therapy inhibits arabinosyl transferase involved in cell wall synthesis?

Ethambutol

116

What is the side effect of ethambutol?

red/green color blindness

117

What is the DOC for MSSA?

Oxacillin, Nafcillin

118

Which generation of Cephalosporins is best for meningitis? what is the empiric treatment for post-surgical meningitis?

gen 3 crosses BBB best,
Ceftazidime best for post surg meningitis

119

Which cephalosporin can cause akinetic seizures?

cefepime, gen 4

120

When would you combine Daptomycin w/ ceftaroline, gen 5?

For complicated bacteremia. MRSA. VRE

121

Dalbavancin and Oritivancin work similar to vancomycin, but what is special about thier pharmokinetics?

Dalbavancin and Oritivancin, long half life 200 hours

122

Which of the following is an appropriate empiric regimen for a hospital-acquired intraabdominal
infection?
A. Gentamicin plus vancomycin
B. Clindamycin plus vancomycin
C. Meropenem
D. Ciprofloxacin

Meropenam

123

Which one of the following agents is an ORAL option to treat Pseudomonas infection?
A. Levofloxacin
B. Doxycycline
C. Moxifloxacin
D. Cefotetan

Levofloxacin

124

Which one of the following agents is the most acceptable for the treatment of MSSA
bacteremia?
A. Daptomycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Cefazolin
D. Piperacillin-tazobactam

cefazolin

125

Which of the following antibiotics can cause nephrotoxicity?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
B. Amikacin (aminoglycoside)
C. Vancomycin
D. Piperacillin-tazobactam
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

126

Which of the following antibiotics inhibits the last step in cell wall synthesis
(transpeptidation)?
A. Tigecycline
B. Cephalexin
C. Daptomycin
D. Levofloxacin

B. Cephalexin
tigecycline: 30S
Daptomycin: depolarizes
Levofloxacin: DNA gyrase and topoisomerase

127

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate choice for treatment of MRSA pneumonia?
A. Daptomycin
B. Linezolid
C. Vancomycin
D. Meropenem
E. A & D

A & D
Daptmycin, Linezolid and Vancomycin all cover MRSA
Daptomycin is inactivated by pulmonary surfactant

128

What are the fluoroquinolines?

1. Ciprofloxacin, gen 1
2. Levofloxacin, Gen 2
3. Moxicloxacin, Gen 2

129

A 56-year-old male is receiving ciprofloxacin and linezolid for a 6 week course of
prosthetic knee infection. After 4 weeks, the patient calls his doctor’s office and
complains of gum bleeding after brushing his teeth. What is the most likely explanation?
A. Hemolytic anemia from ciprofloxacin
B. Thrombocytopenia from ciprofloxacin
C. Hemolytic anemia from linezolid
D. Thrombocytopenia from linezolid

Thrombocytopenia from linezolid

130

A 56-year-old female with CAP presents with cough and increased sputum production. CXR is consistent with pneumonia. Which of the following is an appropriate empiric antibiotic
regimen?
A. Aztreonam
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Levofloxacin
D. Ceftriaxone

Levofloxacin, cipro does not cover pneumococcus, levo does

131

This PGE1 analog can increase mucous production and bicabonate secretion in the stomach

Misoprostol
also induces labor-> abortion

132

What is the DOC for syphilis?

Benzapine-penicillin G

133

What is the DOC for Clostridium difficile?

Metronidazole, oral vancomycin is a back-up

134

What is the coverage of Vancomycin?

MRSA, entercocci, back up drug for Clostridium difficile

135

A patient diagnosed with an intraabdominal Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection would be most effectively treated with which of the following?
A.Amoxicillin
B.Cefuroxime
C.Meropenem
D.Methicillin
E.Vancomycin

Meropenam

136

A patient who had an anaphylactic allergic reaction to ceftriaxone is least likely to experience an allergic reaction if administered which of the following?
A.Aztreonam
B.Cefuroxime
C.Imipenem
D.Loracarbef

Aztreonam

137

Which bacteria are no covered by cephalosporins?

LAME
Listeria monocytogenes
Atypicals
MRSA (covered by Ceftaroline)
Enterococci

138

What is the DOC for yersinia and tularemia?

Streptomycin

139

Which Abx can cause phototoxicity, a rash when exposed to sunlight?

FoToS
Fluoroquinolones, Tetracyclines, Sulfonamides,

140

What is the DOC for chlamydia infection

Tetracycline,r 7 days or azithromycin, single dose

141

What do you use for lyme Dz in an adult? a child?

adult: tetracycline, doxycycline
child: amoxacillin

142

What tetracycline can be used for both MRSA and VRE?

tigecycline

143

What is the DOC for nocardia?

Bactram

144

A patient with a deficiency of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is at a significantly higher risk for developing hemolytic anemia if he receives which of the following antibiotics?

A.Ampicillin
B.Cefaclor
C.Ciprofloxacin
D.Tetracycline
E.Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

145

A pregnant woman gives birth to an infant who has abnormally high levels of unconjugated bilirubin. Which of the following antibiotics was most likely administered to the mother?

A.Ampicillin
B.Ciprofloxacin
C.Metronidazole
D.Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
E.Vancomycin

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

146

A 65-year-old man is diagnosed with acute bacterial prostatitis and is prescribed ciprofloxacin for 6 weeks. This agent exerts its therapeutic effect through which of the following mechanisms?

A.Competitive inhibition of para-aminobenzoic acid
B.Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
C.Inhibition of DNA gyrase
D.Inhibition of viral replication, decreased viral shedding, and reduced time for healing of lesions
E.Reversible binding to the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes

Inhibition of DNA gyrase

147

Vestibular dysfunction and nephrotoxicity are most commonly seen with which of the following?

A.Ethambutol
B.Isoniazid
C.Pyrazinamide
D.Rifampin
E.Streptomycin

Streptomycin

148

After consuming alcohol, a patient who is currently taking an antibiotic experiences severe nausea, vomiting, sweating, and tachycardia. Based on this information, the patient is most likely receiving which of the following?

A.Acyclovir
B.Cefaclor
C.Metronidazole
D.Tetracycline
E.Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

Metronidazole

149

What is the treamtnet for Mycobacterium Avium complex, MAC?

MAC, Macrolides, Azithromycin, clarithromycin

150

What is the dose limiting toxicity of zidovudine, AZT?

bone marrow suppression

151

Why cant you use both Lamivudine and Emtricitabine in combination to treat HIV?

Both are cytosine analogs, compete against each other

152

Why do we use Ritonavir with other protease inhibitors? what are the other protease inhibitors?

Ritonavir is a p450 inhibitor, raises drug conc of others:
Fosamprenavir
Atazanavir
Darunavir
Lopinavir

153

Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of cytomegalovirus retinitis and is associated with the development of interstitial nephritis, severe hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypokalemia?

A.Acyclovir
B.Cidofovir
C.Foscarnet
D.Nevirapine
E.Zidovudine

Foscarnet

154

The dose-limiting side effect of ganciclovir is which of the following?

A.Agranulocytosis
B.Azotemia
C.Cataracts
D.Neutropenia
E.Pulmonary fibrosis

Neutropenia

155

Which of the following is contraindicated for use with furosemide?

A.Amantadine
B.Efavirenz
C.Foscarnet
D.Indinavir

Foscarnet

156

A patient who is being treated for an influenza A infection complains of increased nervousness and insomnia. The patient is most likely being treated with which of the following agents?

A.Amantadine
B.Ganciclovir
C.Oseltamivir
D.Ribavirin

Amantadine

157

The mechanism of action of which of the following involves the blocking of viral penetration and UNCOATING?

A.Acyclovir
B.Amantadine
C.Efavirenz
D.Indinavir

Amantadine

158

Which of the following agents is classified as a protease inhibitor?

A.Didanosine
B.Nevirapine
C.Ritonavir
D.Zalcitabine

Ritonavir, saquinavir, and indinavir are classified as protease inhibitors

159

Which of the following agents is most likely to increase the INR of a patient receiving warfarin?

A.Didanosine
B.Nevirapine
C.Ritonavir
D.Stavudine

Ritonavir

160

What are the components of HIV post-exposure prophylaxis? PrEP?

PrEP: tenofovir+emtricitabine
Post exposure: tenofovir+emtricitabine+raltegravir

161

What are the HIV integrase inhibitors?

-tegravir
Raltegravir, Elvitegravir, Dolutegravir

162

What are the fusion inhibitors for HIV?

1. Enfuviritide, binds gp41
2. Maraviroc, binds CCR5 on macrophages

163

What can be administered with amphotericin B to reduce infusion reactions like fever chills and rigor?

antihistamine

164

What is the DOC for aspergillus?

Vorconazole

165

Which antifungals penetrates the CSF?

Fluconazole, Flucytosine

166

Which anti-fungal can lead to gynecomastia, menstrual irregularities, and decreased libido? Why?

Ketoconazole -> inhibits p450's -> decreased sex steroid synthesis

167

Which anti-fungal has this Mech of action: converted by fungal cytosine deaminase to 5-FU, a toxic chemotherapeutic

Flucytosine

168

Which anti-fungals are given IV and inhibit the cell wall?

Echinocandins:
Caspofungin, Anidulafungin, Micafungin

169

Amphotericin B is the drug of choice as a single agent for treatment of which of the following?

A. Clostridium difficile
B. Cryptococcus
C.Herpes simplex
D. Histoplasma

Cryptococcus

170

The most common side effect of amphotericin B is most appropriately treated with which of the following?

A.Diltiazem
B.Folic acid
C.Gabapentin
D.Meperidine

Meperidine, an opioid

171

Which of the following is most likely to result in an oral Candida infection?

A.Aerosolized albuterol
B.Aerosolized beclomethasone
C.Aerosolized ipratropium
D.Oral fluconazole

Aerosolized beclomethasone

172

What is the significance of Linezolid inhibiting MAO?

can result in serotonin syndrome if given with serotonergic agents

173

Which 2 antibiotic classes can result in long QT or torsades?

Fluoroquinolones esp moxifloxacin
AND macrolides

174

What drug is used as prophylaxis for nisseria meningitidis?

Rifampin

175

What supplement must be given with Isoniazid?

B6, prevent neuropathy

176

What type of pneumonia are AIDS patients especially at risk for? What is the prophylaxis?

Pneumocystis jirovecci
Rx: Bactram

177

What type of rash can be cause by TMP-SMX?

SJS or TEN