Pharmacology Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

what is pharmacodynamics?

A

what a drug does to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is pharmacokinetics?

A

what the body does to a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do agonists do?

A

bind to a receptor to produce a cellular response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what do agonists possess?

A

affinity and efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what do antagonists do?

A

bind to receptors and block activation by agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what do antagonists possess?

A

affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

four processes that occur in drug disposition?

A

absorption
distribution
metabolism
excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what form of drug readily diffuses?

A

unionised forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is oral availability?

A

the fraction of drug that reaches the systemic circulation after oral ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is systemic availability?

A

this is the fraction that reaches the systemic circulation after absorption (IV drugs have 100% systemic availability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

factors affecting drug absorption?

A

solubility
chemical stability
lipid to water partition coefficient
degree of ionisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

factors affecting GI absorption?

A
GI motility 
pH
blood flow
physicochemical interactions 
transporters present in membranes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when is Css (steady state concentration) reached?

A

after 5 half lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is steady state?

A

when drug administration is equal to drug elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a loading dose and when is it given?

A

a loading dose is an initial higher dose of a drug, given at the start of treatment so it decreases the time taken to reach steady state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what three reaction types occur in Phase 1 drug metabolism?

A

oxidation
reduction
hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does Phase 1 drug metabolism aim to do?

A

make the drug more polar and add a chemically reactive group, so conjugation (phase 2) can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what family of proteins mediate Phase 1 drug metabolism?

A

cytochrome P450 Monooxygenases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what happens in the monooxygenase P450 cycle?

A

drug (RH) enters and joins with P450
drug combines with one O of Oxygen, to produce ROH
other oxygen combines with H+ to form H20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does Phase 2 drug metabolism aim to do ?

A

add an endogenous product, which is called conjugation, and inactivate the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is glucoronidation?

A

transfer of glucoronic acid to the substrate

22
Q

what drugs can be excreted by glomerular filtration?

A

unbound drugs

23
Q

what facilitates tubular secretion?

A

organic anion transporter (against electrochemical)

organic cation transporter (with electrochem)

24
Q

in tubular secretion, what influences drug excretion?

A

concentration (pH) of urine

25
what pH of urine favours excretion of acids/bases?
alkaline favours excretion of acids | acidic favours excretion of bases
26
direction of Na concentration and electrochemical gradient
IN | IN
27
direction of K concentration and electrochemical gradient
OUT | IN
28
what is the equilibrium potential for EK?
- 100mV
29
what is the equilibrium potential for ENa?
+60mV
30
positive feedback is shown by what channels?
sodium
31
negative feedback is shown by what channels?
potassium
32
what causes the refractory period?
Na+ channels enter a non conducting state when maintained depolarisation occurs
33
where is sympathetic outflow from and what is it called?
T1-L2, thoracolumbar
34
where is parasympathetic outflow from and what is it called?
CN 3, 7, 9 and 10 | craniosacral
35
in sympathetic, what are the two neurotransmitters and the receptors they work on?
acetylcholine (cholinergic) | Noradrenaline (adrenergic)
36
in parasympathetic, what is the neurotransmitters and the receptors it works on?
acetylcholine (cholinergic)
37
what type of channels are activated in effector cells, in the sympathetic? what activates them?
g protein coupled adrenoreceptors, noradrenaline
38
what type of channels are activated in effector cells, in the parasympathetic? what activates them?
g protein coupled muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, acetylcholine
39
in g protein coupled receptors, what does the receptor consist of?
7 transmembrane spans, joined by 3 extracellular and 3 intracellular loops
40
in g protein coupled receptors, what does the g protein consist of?
alpha, beta and gamma subunits | a guanine nucleotide binding site for GTP/GDP
41
how do g protein coupled receptors work?
- alpha subunit binds to GDP - agonist binds to the receptor, causing the g protein to also - GDP->GTP in the guanine nucleotide binding subunit - g protein dissociated to alpha and beta/gamma subunits, with the alpha combining to the effector (with GTP attached) - this modifies the effector TO INACTIVATE.. - alpha subunit catalyses GTP->GDP +Pi, so the signal is turned off - g protein detaches from the effector and reassembles
42
steps of cholinergic transmission and degradation
- choline is uptaken - ACh is synthesised, via CAT, which is then stored in vesicles - depolarisation via an AP occurs - Ca2+ influx, causing release of ACh - ACh acts on receptors to cause a cellular response degradation of ACh - ACh -> choline and acetate by AChE - choline is re uptaken and reused
43
what receptors does ACh act on?
nicotinic ACh receptors (ligand gated ion channels) | g protein couples muscarinic ACh receptors
44
3 types of g protein couples muscarinic ACh receptors and their effects
M1 Gq - stimulation of phospholipase C, causes increased acid secretion in the stomach M2 Gi - inhibits adenylyl cyclase, decreases HR M3 Gq - stimulation of phospholipase C, relaxes vascular smooth muscle and increases saliva production
45
steps of noradrenergic transmission and degradation
- synthesis of NA and storage in vesicles - depolarisation via an AP - Ca2+ influx, which causes release of NA - activation of G protein couples adrenoreceptors - reuptake of NA
46
in presynaptic, what happens to NA?
U1 uptakes it | metabolised to MAO
47
in postsynaptic, what happens to NA?
U2 uptakes it | metabolised to COMT
48
4 types of G protein coupled adrenoreceptors and their effects
beta 1 Gs - stimulates adenylyl cyclase, increases HR and force beta 2 Gs - stimulates adenylyl cyclase, relaxes bronchial and vascular smooth muscle alpha 1 Gq - stimulates phospholipase C, contracts vascular smooth muscle alpha 2 Gi - inhibits adenylyl cyclase, inhibits NA release
49
what do presynaptic autoreceptors do?
act as a negative feedback system increased neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft is sensed by autoreceptors they halt Ca2+ influx into the cell
50
effects of agonist and antagonist on function of presynaptic autoreceptors?
agonist decrease release by autoreceptor (more neurotransmitter) antagonist increase release by autoreceptor (less neurotransmitter)