Pharmacology Flashcards
(237 cards)
1
Q
How does Km relate to affinity?
A
they are inversely related
2
Q
A sigmoidal Michaelis-Menten curve is indicative of what receptor characteristic?
A
cooperative binding
3
Q
How are Km and Vmax derived from a Lineweaver-Burk plot?
A
- the y-intercept equals 1/Vmax
- the x-intercept equals 1/-Km
- the slope = Km/Vmax
4
Q
How do competitive and non-competitive inhibitors affect the Lineweaver-Burk plot for w given ligand-receptor relationship?
A
- a competitive inhibitor affects Km only, so the x-intercept shifts more positive
- a noncompetitive inhibitor affects Vmax without affecting Km, so the y-intercept shifts more positive
5
Q
How does a competitive inhibitor impact Km and Vmax? Potency and efficacy?
A
it will increase Km (lower affinity) without affecting Vmax, as such it has lowered the potency without lower the efficacy
6
Q
How does a noncompetitive inhibitor impact Km and Vmax? Potency and efficacy?
A
it will lower Vmax without affecting Km, as such it lowers efficacy without affecting potency
7
Q
How is bioavailability calculated?
A
F = AUC(oral)/AUC(iv)
8
Q
How is Vd calculated and interpreted?
A
- Vd = (total amount of drug in body)/(plasma drug concentration)
- when Vd = 0.45 it has been distributed in plasma
- when Vd = 0.2 it has been distributed in ECF
- when Vd = 0.6 it has been distributed in TBW
- when Vd > 0.7 it has been distributed in tissue
9
Q
How does liver disease affect Vd?
A
it often increases Vd because it lowers the amount of protein-bound drug, increasing the free fraction
10
Q
How do we define clearance?
A
the volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit time
11
Q
How is clearance calculated?
A
CL = (rate of elimination)/(plasma drug concentration) = Vd x K(el)
12
Q
Give two equations for calculating K(el).
A
K(el) = CL/Vd = 0.7/(half life)
13
Q
How long does it take for a drug to reach a new steady state?
A
roughly 4-5 half lives
14
Q
How is a loading dose calculated?
A
LD = (desired plasma concentration)(Vd)/(F)
15
Q
How is a maintenance dose calculated?
A
MD = (desired plasma concentration x CL x dosing interval)/F
16
Q
How do liver and kidney disease affect the required maintenance and loading dose?
A
- they often decrease the maintenance dose (because CL is reduced)
- the loading dose is usually unchanged
17
Q
What is a permissive drug interaction?
A
one in which the presence of drug A is required for the full effects of substance B
18
Q
What is a tachyphylactic drug interaction? Give an example.
A
one in which there is an acute decrease in response to a drug after initial/repeated administration (e.g. MDMA depletes NT stores and so there is an acute decrease in response)
19
Q
How does zero-order kinetics compare to first-order kinetics?
A
drugs that experience zero-order kinetics are cleared at a constant amount per time (independent of drug concentration) while drugs that experience first-order kinetics are cleared at a constant fraction per time (dependent of drug concentration)
20
Q
What three drugs classically experience zero-order kinetics?
A
- ethanol
- phenytoin (at high concentrations)
- aspirin (at high concentrations)
21
Q
How can you treat an overdose of a drug that is a weak acid?
A
you can alkalinize the urine with bicarbonate to trap the drug in urine and promote elimination of the drug
22
Q
Drugs that are weak bases become trapped in what environment?
A
a pH more acidic than their pKa, under which circumstance they become deprotonate and trapped in their ionized form
23
Q
What reactions constitute phase I and phase II drug metabolism?
A
- phase I: oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis
- phase II: methylation, glucuronidation, acetylation, sulfation, glutathione conjugation
24
Q
What changes in phase I and II drug metabolism pathways do geriatric patients experience?
A
they typically lose phase I reactions first
25
What are the efficacy and potency of a drug?
- potency: amount of drug needed for a given effect (i.e. ability to bind the receptor), defined by EC50
- efficacy: maximal effect a drug can produce (i.e. ability to active the receptor once bound), defined by Vmax
- e.g. a HTN med that reduces BP by only 5 mmHg but at a very low dose has high potency but low efficacy
26
How are therapeutic index and margin of safety calculated?
- TI = LD50/ED50
| - MoS = LD1/ED99
27
Where are most nicotinic receptors found in the PNS?
- at the ganglionic synapse of both the SNS and PNS
- at the adrenal medulla
- at the neuromuscular junction
28
Describe the basic anatomy of the SNS and PNS.
- the PNS has craniosacral outputs with long pre-ganglionic fibers and short post-synaptic fibers
- the SNS has thoracolumbar outputs with short pre-ganglionic fibers synapsing on long post-synaptic fibers in paravertebral chain ganglia
29
How are the two types of sweat glands innervated?
- eccrine (thermoregulatory) receive input from the SNS but express muscarinic receptors
- apocrine receive input from the SNS and express a1 receptors
30
What is the basic structure of nicotinic and muscarinic receptors?
- nicotinic are ligand-gated Na/K channels
| - muscarinic are GPCRs
31
a1, a2, and B receptors are linked to what second messenger cascades?
- a1: Gq
- a2: Gi
- B: Gs
32
M1, M2, and M3 receptors are linked to what second messenger cascades?
- M1: Gq
- M2: Gi
- M3: Gq
33
D1 and D2 receptors are linked to what second messenger cascades?
- D1: Gs
| - D2: Gi
34
H1 and H2 receptors are linked to what second messenger cascades?
H1: q
H2: s
35
V1 and V2 receptors are linked to what second messenger cascades?
V1: Gq
V2: Gs
36
Describe the Gq signal cascade.
- Gq activates PLC, which then cleaves PIP2, forming IP3 and DAG
- DAG activates PKC
- IP3 serves to increase intracellular calcium
37
a1 receptors are tied to which second messenger system and mediate what effects?
- tied to Gq
- promote vascular smooth muscle contraction (increase TPR) , contraction of the pupillary dilator muscle (mydriasis), and contraction of intestinal as well as bladder sphincter muscles to inhibit evacuation
38
a2 receptors are tied to which second messenger system and mediate what effects?
- tied to Gi
| - expressed on the presynaptic terminal and mediate auto-inhibition to reduce the release of NT
39
B1 receptors are tied to which second messenger system and mediate what effects?
- tied to Gs
| - mediate an increase in HR, inotropy, renin release, and lipolysis
40
B2 receptors are tied to which second messenger system and mediate what effects?
- tied to Gs
- stimulation vasodilation in the lungs and skeletal muscle, bronchodilation, lipolysis, insulin release, uterine relaxation, bladder relaxation, ciliary muscle relaxation, and aqueous humor production
41
Describe the ANS innervation of the eye.
- a receptors are expressed by the pupillary dilator muscle and mediate mydriasis
- B receptors are expressed by the secretory epithelium and activation promotes production of aqueous humor
- muscarinic receptors are expressed by the ciliary muscle and pupillary sphincter muscle; activation promotes accommodation of the lens for near vision, drainage of aqueous humor through the canal of Schlemm, and constriction of the pupil (miosis)
42
M1 receptors are tied to which second messenger system and mediate what effects?
- tied to Gq
| - function in the CNS and enteric nervous system
43
M2 receptors are tied to which second messenger system and mediate what effects?
- tied to Gi
| - decreases heart rate and contractility of the atria
44
How does activation of B1 receptors affect ion currents in the heart?
- increases funny sodium current
- increases L-type calcium current
- increases potassium current
- no effect on sodium current (QRS complex unchanged)
45
How does activation of muscarinic receptors affect ion currents in the heart?
- decreases funny sodium current
| - decreases L-type calcium current
46
M3 receptors are tied to which second messenger system and mediate what effects?
- tied to Gq
- promote glandular secretions, gut peristalsis, bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, mitosis, and lens accommodation
47
H1 and H2 histamine receptors mediate what effects?
- H1 mediates mucus production, urticaria, pruritis, pain, bronchoconstriction, and an increase in vascular permeability
- H2 is primarily responsible for increasing gastric acid secretion
48
Describe monoamine biosynthesis.
- tyrosine is converted to DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase
- DOPA is converted to DA by DOPA decarboxylase
- DA is packaged into vesicles by VMAT
- in the vesicle, DA is converted to NE by DA-B-hydroxylase
49
How are monoamines cleared from the synaptic cleft?
reuptake
50
How is acetylcholine cleared from the synaptic cleft?
AChE
51
Describe acetylcholine biosynthesis.
- acetyl-CoA from the mitochondria is combined with choline recycled from the synaptic cleft in a reaction catalyzed by ChAT
- acetylcholine is then packaged into vesicles by VAT
- in the synaptic cleft, it is degraded by AChE and choline is recycled
52
What is tyramine?
- an indirect sympathomimetic
- enters presynaptic vesicles and displaces monoamines, which subsequently diffuse freely into the synaptic cleft, stimulating post-synaptic receptors
53
What is hemicholinium?
an indirect ACh antagonist that inhibits reuptake of choline by the presynaptic terminal, thereby reducing it's release
54
What is vesamicol?
an indirect ACh antagonist that inhibits VAT, so ACh stays in the intracellular space where it is degraded rather than released
55
How does botulinum toxin affect autonomics?
it inhibits the release of ACh
56
What is metyrosine?
an indirect sympatholytic drug that inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase and monoamine synthesis
57
What is reserpine?
an indirect sympatholytic drug that inhibits VMAT and packaging of monoamines
58
What is bethanechol? What are it's uses?
- a choline ester and muscarinic agonist resistant to AChE
| - used to activate the bowel and bladder in those with post-op ileum, neurogenic ileum, or urinary retention
59
What is carbachol?
a choline ester and muscarinic agonist
60
What is pilocarpine? What are it's primary uses?
- a muscarinic alkaloid that is a potent stimulator of sweat, tears, and saliva
- used to treat glaucoma and xerostomia (Sjogren syndrome)
61
What is donepezil? What are it's uses?
it inhibits AChE and is an indirect cholinomimetic used in the treatment of Alzheimer's
62
What is galantamine? What are it's uses?
it inhibits AChE and is an indirect cholinomimetic used in the treatment of Alzheimer's
63
What is tacrine?
it inhibits AChE and is an indirect cholinomimetic
64
What is edrophoium? What are it's uses?
it is an AChE inhibitor with a very short half life, primarily used to diagnose myasthenia gravis
65
What is neostigmine?
it is an AChE inhibitor without any CNS activity
66
What is physostigmine and what are it's uses?
- it is an AChE inhibitor
- crosses the BBB
- used to treat anticholinergic toxicity (atropine poisoning)
67
What is pyridostigmine and what are it's uses?
- it is an AChE inhibitor
- does not penetrate the BBB
- used to treat myasthenia gravis
68
Cholinomimetics are likely to exacerbate what three conditions?
COPD, asthma, and peptic ulcers
69
Organophosphate Poisoning
- organophosphates are AChE inhibitors that experience an "aging" effect and are essentially irreversible inhibitors
- presents with diarrhea, urination, mitosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation of skeletal muscle, lacrimation, eccrine sweating, and salivation
- primary risk is that it creates a depolarizing blockade at the NMJ of the diaphragm and leads to respiratory failure
- treat with atropine and pralidoxime
70
What is pralidoxime?
- a partial AChE inhibitor with very strong affinity
| - used to treat organophosphate poisoning if caught early enough
71
What is atropine?
a tertiary amine (crosses BBB) muscarinic antagonist
72
What is homatropine?
a tertiary amine (crosses BBB) muscarinic antagonist
73
What is tropicamide?
a tertiary amine (crosses BBB) muscarinic antagonist
74
What is benzotropine? What is it's primary clinical use?
- a tertiary amine (crosses BBB) muscarinic antagonist
| - used to treat Parkinson disease ("park my benz") and acute dystonia
75
What is glycopyrrolate? What are it's primary clinical uses?
- a tertiary amine (crosses BBB) muscarinic antagonist
| - used parenterally to reduce airway secretions preoperatively and orally to prevent drooling and peptic ulcers
76
What is hyoscyamine and what is it's primary clinical use?
- a muscarinic antagonist
| - used as an antispasmodic to treat IBS
77
What is dicyclomine and what is it's primary clinical use?
- a tertiary amine muscarinic antagonist
| - used as an antispasmodic to treat IBS
78
What is ipratropium and what is it's primary clinical use?
- a quaternary amine muscarinic antagonist
| - used to treat COPD and asthma
79
What is tiotropium and what is it's primary clinical use?
- a quaternary amine muscarinic antagonist
| - used to treat COPD and asthma
80
What is oxybutynin?
a tertiary amine muscarinic antagonist
81
What is solifenacin?
a tertiary amine muscarinic antagonist
82
What is tolterodine? What is it's primary clinical use?
- a tertiary amine muscarinic antagonist with specificity for M3 receptors in the GU system
- used to reduce bladder spasms and urge incontinence
83
What is scopolamine? What is it's primary clinical use?
a tertiary amine muscarinic antagonist used to treat motion sickness
84
Describe the effects of atropine poisoning.
"hot as a hare, dry as a bone, red as a beet, blind as a bat, and mad as a hatter"
- reduces sweating so temp rises and skin is dry and flush
- cycloplegia and acute angle-closure glaucoma
- constipation and urinary retention
- disorientation
85
What is jimson weed?
a herb/plant that causes mydriasis (known as "gardener's pupil") because it contains an alkaloid that is a muscarinic antagonist
86
What is albuterol?
an inhaled B2 agonist used to treat asthma
87
What is salmeterol?
a long-acting oral B2 agonist used to control asthma
88
What is formoterol?
a long-acting oral B2 agonist used to control asthma
89
What is terbutaline?
a B2 agonist
90
What is dobutamine?
a selective B1 agonist
91
Dopamine will activate what adrenergic receptors?
it has a greater affinity for B1 receptors than a1, but at high doses will activate both
92
What is the selectivity of epinephrine?
it activates all adrenergic receptors
93
What is the selectivity of norepinephrine?
it activates a1, a2, and B1
94
What is the selectivity of isoproterenol?
B1 and B2
95
What is midodrine?
an a1 agonist
96
What effect does D1 receptor activation have in the ANS?
it relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle
97
What is fenoldopam? Explain it's ANS effects and uses.
- it is a D1 agonist
- D1 receptors mediate relaxation of renal vascular smooth muscle
- therefore, it is used to treat post-op hypertension and hypertensive crisis and is used to promote natriuresis
98
What is the selectivity of phenylephrine?
a1 receptors
99
How do amphetamines elicit a sympathomimetic activity?
- they use the NET to enter the presynaptic terminal where they are packaged into the secretory vesicles by VMAT
- this displaces NE from the vesicles and concentrations build in the presynaptic terminal
- eventually the concentration rises significantly to reverse the action of NET and NE is expelled into the synaptic cleft
100
Amphetamines are used to treat what medical conditions?
- narcolepsy
- obesity
- ADHD
101
What ANS drug class is contraindicated when you suspect cocaine use?
never give a beta blocker because this can lead to unopposed a1 vasoconstriction and extreme hypertension
102
What is ephedrine? What are it's primary uses?
it is an indirect sympathomimetic that releases stored catecholamines and serves as a nasal decongestant, treatment for urinary incontinence, and hypotensive therapy
103
How does NE affect TPR, blood pressure, and HR?
- unopposed a1 activity increases TPR, which increases diastolic pressure
- B1 activity increases inotropy and pulse pressure, raising systolic pressure
- the net effect is an increase in MAP, which is met by a reflex bradycardia
104
How does epinephrine affect TPR, blood pressure, and HR?
- B2 vasodilation outweighs a1 vasoconstriction and there is a net decrease in TPR, which decreases diastolic pressure
- B1 activity increases inotropy and pulse pressure, raising systolic pressure
- the net effect is a slight increase in MAP that isn't sufficient to induce a reflex bradycardia; instead B1 activity produces a chronotropic effect
105
How does isoproterenol affect TPR, blood pressure, and HR?
- B2 vasodilation creates a significant drop in TPR and diastolic pressure
- B1 activity increases inotropy and pulse pressure
- the net effect is a drop in MAP, which induces a reflex tachycardia
- this tachycardia is also exacerbated by the chronotropic effects of B1
106
List three a2 agonists?
- clonidine
- guanfacine
- a-methyldopa
107
What is a-methyldopa? What is it's primary clinical use? What are it's major adverse effects?
- it is an a2 agonist (sympatholytic)
- it is used to treat hypertension during pregnancy
- it may produce a hemolysis and an SLE-like syndrome
108
What are the primary clinical uses of clonidine and guanfacine? What are their major adverse effects?
- ADHD, Tourette syndrome, hypertensive urgency
| - may leads to CNS depression, bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression, and miosis
109
What is phenoxybenzamine? What is it's primary clinical use? What are it's likely side effects?
- it is an irreversible, non-selective a-adrenergic receptor blocker
- it is used in the preoperative treatment of pheochromocytomas
- it may produce orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia
110
What is phentolamine? What is it's primary clinical use? What are it's likely side effects?
- it is a reversible, non-selective a-adrenergic receptor blocker
- it is administered to those on MAO inhibitors who eat tyramine-containing foods
- it may produce orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia
111
List four a1-selective antagonists? What are their primary clinical uses? What are their likely side effects?
- prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin
- used to treat the urinary retention of BPH plus prazosin is used to treat PTSD and all are used to treat hypertension except tamsulosin
- often cause orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, and headache with the first dose
112
What is mirtazapine? What is it's primary clinical use and it's most likely side effects?
- it is an a2-selective antagonist
- used to treat depression
- may produce sedation, hypercholesteremia, and an increase in appetite
113
What is yohimbe?
an a2-selective antagonist
114
Which beta blockers are also used as class II anti-arrhythmics?
metoprolol and esmolol
115
Which beta blocker is typically used to treat glaucoma?
timolol
116
Which group of ANS drugs are used to treat variceal bleeding? How?
- beta blockers, specifically nadolol and propanolol
| - they decrease the hepatic venous pressure and portal hypertension
117
Name 7 applications for beta blockers.
- angina pectoris
- reduce the mortality of MI
- anti-arrhythmics
- hypertension
- heart failure
- glaucoma
- vatical bleeding
118
Beta-blockers have what side effects?
- erectile dysfunction
- bradycardia, AV block, exacerbation of HF
- seizures, sedation, sleep alterations
- dyslipidemia
- exacerbation of asthma or COPD
119
What role do beta-blockers play in the treatment of heart failure?
they are only used to treat acute heart failure because in the long-term they exacerbate the HF and increase mortality
120
Which beta-blockers are B1 selective?
mostly those in the first half of the alphabet
- acebutolol
- atenolol
- betaxolol
- bisprolol
- esmolol
- metoprolol
121
What is labetalol?
an a1, B1, B2 antagonist
122
Wha tis carvedilol?
an a1, B1, B2 antagonsit
123
How are antagonists of a1, B1, and B2 named?
they have the a modified beta-blocker suffix (e.g. labetalol, carvedilol)
124
Which beta-blockers also have partial agonist activity?
acebutolol, pindolol, carteolol, penbutolol
125
What is unique about nebivolol compared to other beta blockers?
it blocks B1 and B2 activity to reduce cardiac work load but also activates B3 receptors to activate NOS and improve coronary blood flow (i.e. it is a beta blocker with vasodilative effects)
126
Tetrodotoxin Poisoning
- a toxin from pufferfish
- binds fast voltage-gated sodium channels in cardiac and nerve tissue, preventing depolarization
- presents with nausea, diarrhea, paresthesia, weakness, dizziness, and loss of reflexes
- treatment is supportive
127
Ciguatoxin Poisoning
- a toxin from reef fish (e.g. barracuda, snapper, and moray eel)
- opens sodium channels and causes depolarization
- mimics cholinergic poisoning
- treatment is supportive
128
Scombroid Poisoning
- a result of eating spoiled dark-meat fish such as tuna, mahi-mahi, mackerel, or bonito
- bacterial histidine decarboxylase converts histidine to histamine, which is the mediator of this effect
- mimics anaphylaxis and is frequently misdiagnosed as a fish allergy
- treat with anti-histamines, albuterol, and epinephrine as severity dictates
129
How is acetaminophen toxicity treated?
N-acetylcysteine to replenish glutathione
130
How is amphetamine toxicity treated?
NH4Cl to acidify urine
131
How is antimuscarinic toxicity treated?
Physostigmine and control of hyperthermia
132
How is arsenic toxicity treated?
Dimercaprol, succimer
133
How is benzodiazepine toxicity treated?
flumazenil
134
How is beta-blocker toxicity treated?
saline, atropine, and glucagon
135
How is copper toxicity treated?
penicillamine, trientine
136
How is cyanide toxicity treated?
nitrite + thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin
137
How is digitalis toxicity treated?
anti-dig antibodies
138
How is gold toxicity treated?
penicillamine, dimercaprol, succimer
139
How is iron toxicity treated?
deferoxamine, deferasirox, deferiprone
140
How is lead toxicity treated?
EDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine
141
How is mercury toxicity treated?
dimercaprol, succimer
142
How is methanol toxicity treated?
femepizole is preferred to ethanol and dialysis
143
How is opioids toxicity treated?
naloxone
144
How is salicylate toxicity treated?
sodium bicarb to alkalinize urine
145
How is TCA toxicity treated?
sodium bicarb to alkalinize urine
146
What is succimer?
a drug used to treat heavy metal poisoning
147
What is dimercaprol?
a drug used to treat heavy metal poisoning
148
Which drug ends in the suffix "-azole"?
ergosterol synthesis inhibitor (e.g. ketoconazole)
149
Which drug ends in the suffix "-bendazole"?
anti-parasitics/anti-helminthics
150
Which drug ends in the suffix "-cillin"?
peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitors
151
Which drug ends in the suffix "-cycline"?
protein synthesis inhibitors (e.g. tetracycline)
152
Which drug ends in the suffix "-ivir"?
neuraminidase inhibitors
153
Which drug ends in the suffix "-navir"?
protease inhibitors (e.g. ritonavir)
154
Which drug ends in the suffix "-ovir"?
DNA polymerase inhibitor (e.g. acyclovir)
155
Which drug ends in the suffix "-thromycin"?
macrolide antibiotics
156
Which drug ends in the suffix "-ane"?
inhalation general anesthetic
157
Which drug ends in the suffix "-azine"?
typical antipsychotic
158
Which drug ends in the suffix "-barbital"?
barbiturate
159
Which drug ends in the suffix "-caine"?
local anesthetic
160
Which drug ends in the suffix "-etine"?
SSRI
161
Which drug ends in the suffix "-ipramine"?
TCA
162
Which drug ends in the suffix "-triptyline"?
TCA
163
Which drug ends in the suffix "-triptan"?
5-HT(1B/1D) agonists
164
Which drug ends in the suffix "-zepam"?
benzodiazepines
165
Which drug ends in the suffix "-zolam"?
benzodiazepines
166
Which drug ends in the suffix "-chol"?
cholinergic agonist
167
Which drug ends in the suffix "-curium"?
non-depolarizing paralytic
168
Which drug ends in the suffix "-curonium"?
non-depolarizing paralytic
169
Which drug ends in the suffix "-olol"?
beta-blocker
170
Which drug ends in the suffix "-stigmine"?
AChE inhibitors
171
Which drug ends in the suffix "-terol"?
beta2-agonist
172
Which drug ends in the suffix "-zosin"?
alpha1-antagonist
173
Which drug ends in the suffix "-afil"?
PDE-5 inhibitors (e.g. sildenafil)
174
Which drug ends in the suffix "-dipine"?
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
175
Which drug ends in the suffix "-pril"?
ACE inhibitor
176
Which drug ends in the suffix "-sartan"?
angiotensin II receptor antagonist
177
Which drug ends in the suffix "-statin"?
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
178
Which drug ends in the suffix "-xaban"?
direct factor Xa inhibitors
179
Which drug ends in the suffix "-dronate"?
bisphosphonate
180
Which drug ends in the suffix "-glitazone"?
PPARy activator (e.g. rosiglitazone)
181
Which drug ends in the suffix "-prazole"?
proton pump inhibitor
182
Which drug ends in the suffix "-prost"?
prostaglandin analog
183
Which drug ends in the suffix "-tidine"?
H2-antagonist
184
Which drug ends in the suffix "-tropin"?
pituitary hormone (e.g. somatotropin)
185
Which drug ends in the suffix "-ximab"?
chimeric monoclonal antibody
186
Which drug ends in the suffix "-zumab"?
humanized monoclonal antibody
187
Which drugs are known to cause coronary vasospasm?
- cocaine
- sumatriptan
- ergot alkaloids
188
Which drugs are known to cause cutaneous flushing?
VANCE
- vancomycin
- adenosine
- niacin
- calcium channel blockers
- echinocandins
189
Which drugs are known to cause dilated cardiomyopathy?
anthracyclines (doxorubicin, daunoribicin)
190
Which drugs are known to cause torsades de pointes?
ABCDE
- anti-Arrhythmics (IA and III)
- anti-Biotics
- anti-Cycotics
- anti-Depressants
- anti-Emetics
191
What can be used to prevent dilated cardiomyopathy in those taking an anthracycline like doxorubicin?
dexrazoxane
192
Which drugs are known to cause hot flashes?
tamoxifen and clomiphene
193
Which drugs are known to cause hyperglycemia?
Taking Pills Necessitates Having blood Checked
- tacrolimus
- protease inhibitors
- niacin
- HCTZ
- corticosteroids
194
Which drugs are known to cause hypothyroidism?
lithium, amiodarone, sulfonamides
195
Which drugs are known to cause acute cholestatic hepatitis and jaundice?
erythromycin
196
Which drugs are known to cause hepatic necrosis?
HAVAc
- Halothane
- Amanita phalloides (death cap mushroom)
- Valproic acid
- Acetaminophen
197
Which drugs are known to cause hepatitis?
rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, statins, fibrates
198
Which drugs are known to cause pancreatitis?
Drugs Causing A Violent Abdominal Distress
- Didanosine
- Corticosteroids
- Alcohol
- Valproic Acid
- Azathioprine
- Diuretics
199
Which drugs are known to cause pill-induced esophagitis?
- bisphosphonates
- tetracyclines
- potassium chloride
200
Which drugs are known to cause pseudomembrane colitis?
clindamycin, ampicillin, cephalosporins
201
How can pill-induced esophagitis be minimized?
adequate water ingestion and maintaining an upright posture after taking the medication
202
Which drugs are known to cause agranulocytosis?
Can Cause Pretty Major Collapse of Granulocytes
- Clozapine
- Carbamazepine
- Propylthiouracil
- Methimazole
- Colchicine
- Canciclovir
203
Which drugs are known to cause aplastic anemia?
Can't Make New Blood Cells Properly
- Carbamazepine
- Methimazole
- NSAIDs
- Benzene
- Chloramphenicol
- Propylthiouracil
204
Which drugs are known to cause direct coombs-positive hemolytic anemia?
methyldopa, penicillin
205
Which drugs are known to cause gray baby syndrome?
chloramphenicol
206
Which drugs are known to cause hemolysis in G6PD deficiency?
hemolysis IS D PAIN
- Isoniazid
- Sulfonamides
- Dapsone
- Primaquine
- Aspirin
- Ibuprofen
- Nitrofurantoin
207
Which drugs are known to cause megaloblastic anemia?
having a blast with PMS
- Phenytoin
- Methotrexate
- Sulfa Drugs
208
Which drugs are known to cause thrombotic complications?
OCPs and hormone replacement therapy
209
Which drugs are known to cause fat redistribution?
protease inhibitors and glucocorticoids
210
Which drugs are known to cause gingival hyperplasia?
phenytoin, calcium channel blockers, cyclosporine
211
Which drugs are known to cause hyperuricemia?
Painful Tophi and Feet Need Care
- Pyrazinamide
- Thiazides
- Furosemide
- Niacin
- Cyclosporine
212
Which drugs are known to cause myopathy?
fibrates, niacin, colchicine, hydroxychloroquine, IFNa, penicillamine, statins, glucocorticoids
213
Which drugs are known to cause osteoporosis?
corticosteroids and heparin
214
Which drugs are known to cause photosensitivity?
SAT For photo
- sulfonamides
- amiodarone
- tetracyclines
- 5-FU
215
Which drugs are known to cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Steven Johnson has Epileptic ALLergy to SULFA drugs and PENICILLIN
- anti-epileptics
- allopurinol
- sulfa drugs
- penicillin
216
Which drugs are known to cause an SLE-like syndrome?
SHIPPE
- sulfa drugs
- hydralazine
- isoniazid
- procainamide
- phenytoin
- etanercept
217
Which drugs are known to cause teeth discoloration?
tetracyclines
218
Which drugs are known to cause tendonitis, tendon rupture, and cartilage damage?
fluoroquinolones
219
Which drugs are known to cause cinchonism?
quinidine and quinine
220
Which drugs are known to cause a Parkinson-like syndrome?
ARM
- antipsychotics
- reserpine
- metoclopramide
221
Which drugs are known to cause seizures?
I BITE
- isoniazid
- bupropion
- imipenem
- tramadol
- enflurane
222
Which drugs are known to cause tardive dyskinesia?
antipsychotics and metoclopramide
223
Which drugs are known to cause diabetes insipidus?
lithium nad demeclocycline
224
Which drugs are known to cause Fanconi syndrome?
tenofovir and ifosfamide
225
Which drugs are known to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?
cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide
226
Which drugs are known to cause interstitial nephritis?
methicillin, NSAIDs, and furosemide
227
Which drugs are known to cause SIADH?
carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide, and SSRIs
228
Which drugs are known to cause a dry cough?
ACE inhibitors
229
Which drugs are known to cause pulmonary fibrosis?
My Nose Cannot Breathe Bad Air
- methotrexate
- nitrofurantoin
- carmustine
- bleomycin
- busulfan
- amiodarone
230
Which drugs are known to cause a nephrotoxicity or ototoxicity?
- aminoglycosides
- vancomycin
- loop diuretics
- cisplatin
231
How is cisplatin ototoxicity treated?
amifostine
232
Which drugs cause a disulfiram-like reaction?
- metronidazole
- certain cephalosporins
- griseofulvin
- procarbazine
- first gen sulfonylureas
233
Which drugs are classic CYP inducers?
CHRONIC ALCOHOLics STeal Phen-Phen and Never Refuse GReasy CARBs
- chronic alcohol
- st. john's wort
- phenytoin
- phenobarbital
- nevirapine
- rifampin
- griseofulvin
- carbamazepine
234
Which drugs are classic CYP substrates?
We Always Train Outdoors
- warfarin
- anti-epileptics
- theophylline
- OCPs
235
Which drugs are classic CYP inhibitors?
AAA RACKS IN GQ Magazine
- acute alcohol abuse
- ritonavir
- amiodarone
- cimetidine/ciprofloxacin
- ketoconazole
- sulfonamides
- isoniazid
- grapefruit juice
- quinidine
- macrolides (except azithromycin)
236
Which drugs are sulfa drugs?
Scary Sulfa Pharm FACTS
- sulfonamides
- sulfasalazine
- probenecid
- furosemide
- acetazolamide
- celecoxib
- thiazides
- sulfonylureas
237
How does a sulfa drug reaction present?
may develop fever, UTI, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and urticaria
