Pharmacology and Therapeutics Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

gastrin is produced by..

A

G-cell

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2
Q

gastrin stimulates what receptor

A

CCKbeta receptor

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3
Q

where find CCKbeta receptor

A
  • enterochromaffin like cell

- parietal cell

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4
Q

histamine stimualtes what receptor

A

H2 receptor

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5
Q

histamine is produced by

A

enterochromaffin-like cell

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6
Q

what receptor responds to the peripheral nervous system

A

M1 receptor

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7
Q

where are H2 receptors found

A

parietal cell

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8
Q

what does the parietal cell produce

A

H+

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9
Q

epinephrine has what effect on GIT function

A

inhibits it

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10
Q

Acetylcholine has what effect on GIT function

A

stimulates it

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11
Q

when does gut smooth muscle fire

A

spontaneously with slow activity waves

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12
Q

what nerve stimulation increases sphincter tone

A

sympathetic

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13
Q

what does parasympathetic stimulation do to sphinctal tone

A

inhibits it

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14
Q

metaclopramide actions

A

increases Ach release by dopamine antagonism

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15
Q

metaclopramide is a

A

prokinetic drug

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16
Q

carbachol is a

A

prokinetic drug

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17
Q

carbachol action

A

M1 receptor agonist

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18
Q

5 treatments for constipation

A
  • laxitive
  • lubricate with liquid paraffin
  • give wheat bran or something to bulk up poo and draw water in
  • draw water into large intestine
  • give irritant to stimulate movement
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19
Q

drugs that draw water into large intestine

A
  • lactulose

- magnesium sulphate

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20
Q

vomiting is stimulated by

A

chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in the medulla of the brain

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21
Q

HCl is secreted in response to

A
  • gastrin

- vagal stimulation

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22
Q

pepsin comes from

A

chief cells

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23
Q

pepsin is secreted in response to

A
  • gastrin

- vagal stimulation

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24
Q

mucous is secreted from

A

goblet cells

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25
3 phases gastric secretion
- cephalic - gastric - intestinal
26
cephalic phase start
conditioned reflex to smell etc via vagus nerve
27
cephalic phase actions
HCl, pepsinogen secretion and increased stomach motility
28
gastric phase actions
chemo and mechano receptors in the stomach release gastrin and histamine
29
how low pH affects gastric phase
sympathomimetic somatostatin is released which inhibits gastrin secretion
30
intestinal phase actions
chyme in duodenum causes release of secretin, GIP and CCK which inhibit acid secretion and motility of stomach
31
prostaglandin analogues inhibit secretion of what in stomach
H+
32
3 anthelmintic classes based on target parasites
- nematodicide - cestodicide - trematodicide
33
5 broard spectrum anthelmintics
- group 1 - benzimidazoles - group 2 - imidazothiazoles - group 3 - macrocyclic lactones - group 4 amino acetonitrille derivatives - group 5 - spiroindoles
34
colour benzimidazoles
white
35
colour imidazothiazoles
yellow
36
colour macrocyclic lactones
clear
37
benzimidazoles actions
- bind to beta-tubulin - causing inhibition of glucose uptake - parasite starves to death
38
imidazothiazoles action
- cholinergic agonist | - rapid and reversible spastic paralysis
39
example imidazothiazole
levamisole
40
macrolytic lactones action
- modulate glutamate-gated chloride channels in post synaptic membrane - flaccid paralysis
41
metaphylaxis define
used to protect animals grazing on infected pasture
42
prophylaxis define
used to prevent animals from contaminating pasture
43
5 groups of narrow spectrum drugs
- salicylanilides - pyrazinoisoquinolones phenylisothiocyanates - depsipeptides - arsenicals - piperazines
44
salicylanilides
fluke drenches
45
pyrazinoisoqunolines phenylisothiocyanates
tape wormers
46
arsenicals
heart wormers
47
narrow spectrum flukicides how work
decrease availability of high energy phosphate to the fluke and blood feeding nematodes
48
main 5 PGE causing nematodes in sheep
- teladorsagia circumcincta - trichostrongylus spp. - nematodirus battus - haemonchus contortus - cooperia ss
49
main cow worm
ostertagia ostertagi
50
main horse worms
strongyles
51
2 groups strongyles (horse)
- migratory (large) | - non-migratory (cyathostomins)
52
another name equine strongyles
red worms
53
underdosing anthelmintics occurs because (4)
- underestimating weight - inadequate maintenance of equipment - poor treatment technique - fail to follow instructions
54
anthelmintic resistance is detectable when
- over 25% allele frequency | - over 5% parasites are resistant
55
anthelmintic resistance causes clinical failure when
- allele frequency over 50% | - over 20% worms are resistant
56
resistance measuring tests (2)
- drench test | - faecal egg count reduction test
57
drench test how to
- faecal egg count of 10 samples before and after treatment
58
faecal egg count reduction test how to
- different groups for different drugs and a control group | - faecal egg count before and after dosing
59
8 SCOPS UK guidelines
- work out a strategy with your vet - dose only when you need to - measure resistance on your farm - reduce your dependence on anthelmintics - use effective quarantine strategies - administer anthelmintics effectively - select the appropriate anthelmintic - preserve susceptible worms
60
3 ways to preserve the susceptible worm population
- leave a few animals undosed before moving pasture - dose animals then leave on contaminated pasture for a while before moving - alternate sheep and cattle on pasture
61
define side resistance
resistance to a drug of same group
62
define cross resistance
resistance to a different drug group with no previous exposure
63
define glucocorticoid
groups of drugs that have corticosteroid activity
64
corticosteroids suppress (2)
- inflammation | - adrenal activity
65
glucocorticoids block synthesis of..
arachidonic acid
66
as glucocorticoids stop arachidonic acid synthesis they
are better anti-inflammatories than NSAIDs
67
2 most commonly used glucocorticoids
- prednisolone | - dexamethasome
68
the order of effects that wear of as glucocorticoid conc decreases
antiinflammatory effect stops before adrenal suppresion
69
2 phases of treatment of immune mediated disease with glucocorticoids
- induction of remission | - maintenance of remission
70
side effect of glucocorticoid use
gastric damage
71
4 quadrants of antimicrobial activity and 1 other
- gram +ve aerobes - gram -ve aerobes - obligate anaerobes (gram +ve and -ve) - penicillinase producing staphylococci - atypical types
72
cats haematuria tx
no antibiotics as unlikely to be bacterial unless cat is over 10
73
dog tx haematuria
antibiotics always given
74
MIC define
- minimum inhibitory concentration | - the minimum concentration needed to inhibit cell growth
75
MIC90
the minimum conc needed to inhibit growth in 90% of bacteria
76
3 drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis
- penicillins - cephalosporins - bacitracin
77
4 drugs that inhibit cell membrane function
- polymyxins - amphotericin B - imidazoles - nystatin
78
5 drugs that inhibit protein synthesis
- chloramphenicol - macrolides - lincosamides - tetracycline - aminoglycosides
79
2 drugs that inhibit protein synthesis that have toxic affects on animal as well
- tetracycline | - aminoglycosides
80
5 drugs that inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
- sulphonamides - trimethoprim - quinolones - metronidazole - rifampin
81
5 bacteriostatic drugs
- chloramphenicol - lincosamides - macrolides - tetracyclines - non-potentiated sulphonamides
82
bacteriostatic effectivness considerations
concentration needs to be maintained to be effective
83
bacteriostatic actions
inhibits bacterial growth relying on body to kill bacteria
84
6 bactericidal drugs
- penicillins - cephalosporins - aminoglycosides - fluoroquinolones - potentiated sulphonamides - metronidazole
85
time dependant drug consideration
- need a set amount of time above MIC to be effective | - bacteria need to be multiplying so no bacteriostatic to be used as well
86
concentration dependent drugs consideration
need a peak concentration
87
water soluble drugs have
poor perfusion
88
potentiated sulphonamides are inactivated by
pus