Pharmocology Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

what drugs are used for acid suppression?

A

> antacids
h2-receptor antagonists
proton pump inhibitors

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2
Q

what drugs affect GI motility?

A

> anti-emetics
anti-muscarinics
anti-motility

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3
Q

what drugs are used in inflammatory bowel disease?

A

> aminosalicylates
corticosteroids
immunosuppressants
biologics

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4
Q

what drugs affect intestinal secretions?

A

> bile acid sequestrants

> ursodeoxycholic acid

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5
Q

what metals do antacids contain?

A

magnesium or aluminium

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6
Q

what is the action of antacids?

A

they neutralise gastric acid

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7
Q

what is the action of alginates?

A

they form a viscous gel that floats on the stomach contents reducing reflux

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8
Q

describe the action of H2-receptor antagonists

A

they block histamine (H2) receptor thereby reducing acid secretion

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9
Q

when are h2-receptors indicated?

A

in GORD or peptic ulcer disease

unless patient cannot use proton pump inhibitor do not use a lot of them

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10
Q

how are h2-receptor antagonists administered?

A

orally or intravenously

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11
Q

when are proton pump inhibitors indicated?

A

in GORD or peptic ulcer disease

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12
Q

how are proton pump inhibitors administered?

A

orally or intravenously

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13
Q

what is triple therapy for treatment of PU/DU associated with?

A

H. Pylori

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14
Q

what problems are associated with proton pump inhibitors?

A

> GI upset
predisposition to c. difficile infection
hypomagnesaemia
b12 deficiency

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15
Q

what agents increase gut motility and gastric emptying?

A

prokinetic agents

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16
Q

what is the mechanism of prokinetic agents?

A

it is not clear but involves parasympathetic control of smooth muscle and sphincter tone

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17
Q

what is the action of domperidone?

A

it acts by blocking dopamine receptors which inhibit post synaptic cholinergic neurones

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18
Q

what drugs work on the chemoreceptor trigger zone to stop vomiting?

A

> dopamine antagonists
5HT3 antagonists
cannabinoids

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19
Q

what drugs act on the pharynx and GIT to stop vomiting?

A

> 5HT3 antagonists

> dopamine antagonists

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20
Q

what drug acts on the vestibular nuclei to stop vomiting?

A

anti-histamines

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21
Q

what drugs act on the vomiting centre in the medulla to stop vomiting?

A

> anti-muscarinics

> anti-histamines

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22
Q

what is the mechanism of action of loperamide?

A

it acts on the opiate receptors in the GI tract to decrease ACh release. this decreases smooth muscle contraction and increases anal sphincter tone causing a decrease in motility.

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23
Q

why does loperamide have few central opiate effects?

A

it is not well absorbed across the blood-brain barrier

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24
Q

by what three mechanisms do antispasmoids reduce symptoms of IBS and renal colic?

A

> anti-cholinergic muscarinic antagonists (inhibit smooth muscle contraction in gut wall)
direct smooth muscle relaxants
calcium-channel blockers reduce calcium required for smooth muscle contraction

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25
what are the 4 types of laxatives?
> bulk > osmotic > stimulant > softeners
26
what issues can there be with laxatives?
> obstruction (lead to perforation) > route of administration (oral or rectal) > other measures as oral laxative will not work without adequate fluid intake > misuse
27
what is the action of aminosalicylates?
anti-inflammatory
28
how are aminosalicylates administered?
orally or rectally
29
when should you avoid prescribing aminosalicylates?
> in patients allergic to salicylates (as they are chemically related)
30
when should you use caution in using aminosalicylates?
in renal impairment
31
what are the adverse effects associated with aminosalicylates?
> GI upset > blood dyscrasias > renal impairment
32
how are corticosteroids administered?
orally, IV or rectally
33
what are contraindications for use of corticosteroids for IBD?
> osteoporosis | > cushingoid features including weight gain, DM, HT
34
what concerns are there with using corticosteroids for IBD?
> there is increased susceptibility to infection | > addisonian crisis, with abrupt withdrawal (hypertensive, dehydrated)
35
what is the action of immunosuppressants in IBD?
they prevent to formation of purines required for DNA synthesis so reduces immune cell proliferation
36
what are the adverse effects associated with use of immunosupressants in IBD?
> bone marrow suppression > azathioprine hypersensitivity > organ damage > numerous drug interactions
37
what is required when using immunosuppressant's in IBD?
specialist use and close monitoring
38
what is infliximab?
a biologic, antiTNF(alpha)antibody. | mouse human chimeric antibody to TNF-alpha
39
what do biologics prevent?
action of TNF alpha, key cytokine in inflammatory response
40
what are the cautions/contraindications of infliximab?
> current TB (or other serious infection) > multiple sclerosis > pregnancy/breast feeding
41
what are the adverse effects associated with infliximab?
``` > risk of infection (TB) > infusion reaction (fever, itch) > anaemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia > demyelination > malignancy ```
42
name some biologics other than infliximab
> certolizumab > adalimumab > golimumab > vedolizumab
43
what is certolizumab?
fab fragment of humanized anti-TNF alpha monoclonal antibody
44
what is adalimumab?
humanized recombinant antibody to TNF
45
what is natalizumab?
ant-integrin monoclonal antibody
46
what is the action vedolizumab?
it binds to integrin alpha4beta7 (peyers patch adhesion molecule)
47
what is the action of cholestyramine?
it reduces bile salts by binding with them in the gut so they are excreted as insoluble complex
48
what may cholestyramine affect?
> absorption of other drugs | > fat soluble vitamin absorption (may decrease vitamin k levels affecting warfarin and clotting)
49
what is ursodeoxycholic acid used to treat?
> gallstones | > primary biliary chirrhosis
50
what is the action of ursodeoxycholic acid?
it inhibits enzymes involved in the formation of cholesterol altering the amount in bile and slowly dissolving non-calcifies stones
51
what problems may there be with the ADME of GI pharmacology?
> GI/liver diseases can affect the processes of the drug ADME > GI symptoms also necessitate a change in route of administration
52
what may affect the absorption of a drug?
> pH > gut length > transit time
53
what may affect the distribution of a drug?
> low albumin (decreased binding leads to increased free drug concentration)
54
what may effect the metabolism of a drug?
> liver enzymes > increased gut bacteria > gut wall metabolism > liver blood flow
55
what may effect the excretion of a drug?
> biliary excretion
56
what GI adverse effects can there be with medication?
> diarrhoea/constipation > GI bleeding/ulceration > changes to gut bacteria > drug induced liver injury
57
what is 25% of all drug induced diarrhoea due to?
antimicrobials
58
what are the effects of changes to gut bacteria?
> loss of OCP activity > reduced vitamin K absorption (increased prothrombin time) > overgrowth of pathogenic bacteria
59
what type of ADR is intrinsic hepatotoxicity?
type a as it is predictable, dose dependent and acute
60
what type of ADR is idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity?
type b as it is unpredictable, not dose dependent and can occur at anytime
61
what are the effects of idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity?
they can range from asymptomatic increase in LFTs to fulminant liver failure and death
62
what are the risk factors of hepatotoxicity?
``` > elderly > female > alcohol > genetic factors > malnourishment ```
63
what classification is used when judging the severity of liver disease?
child-pugh classification
64
what are the groups in the child-pugh classification?
``` A= <7 B= 7-9 C= >9 ```
65
what things are scored in the child-pugh classification of liver disease?
``` > bilirubin > albumin > PT (prolonged) > encephalopathy > ascites ```
66
when prescribing for liver disease what should you take care of/avoid?
> drugs that can be toxic due to changes in pharmacokinetics > drugs which are hepatotoxic > drugs which may worsen the non-liver aspects of liver disease
67
what specific drugs should you avoid in liver disease?
> warfarin (clotting factors already low) > aspirin/NSAIDs (increases bleeding time, can worsen ascites) > opiates/ benzodiazepines (may precipitate encephalopathy)