pharmpath Flashcards

(90 cards)

1
Q

Lineweaver-Burk plot. What does the X intercept mean and what does the Y intercept mean?

A

X intercept is 1/-Km. So the more to the right that is, the bigger Km is, and the lower the affinity. Y intercept is 1/Vmax. The higher that is, the lower Vmax is. Can remember this because V looks kind of like a Y.

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2
Q

Bioavailabilty equation

A

Fraction of drug that reaches circulation unchanged. F = 100% IV. Area under oral curve/ area under IV cure (227)

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3
Q

Volume of distribution equation

A

Amount of drug in body/ plasma concentration of drug.

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4
Q

What is the range for a low volume of distribution and what are some drug types?

A

Low means mostly in the blood. 4-8 L. Large, charged molecules, plasma protein bound

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5
Q

Where do medium volume of distribution drugs go and what are some drug types?

A

Medium go to the ECF. Small, hydrophilic molecules. Small so can get through, but not lipophilic so can’t really spread too far

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6
Q

Where do high volume of distribution drugs go and what are some drug types?

A

Go to all tissues. Small, lipophilic, bound to tissue proteins

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7
Q

Half life equation. What can you calculate from half life?

A

t1/2 = (.7 x Vd) / CL

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8
Q

How long does a drug infused at a constant rate take to reach steady state?

A

4-5 half lives

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9
Q

Clearance equation

A

Clearance = rate of elimination of drug/ concentration of drug in plasma. = Vd x Ke (elimination constant) –> amount of drug in body x elimination constant/plasma concentration of drug

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10
Q

Loading dose equation

A

Cp x Vd / F. Cp = target plasma concentration. So for loading, need to take into account the spread and how much is going to get hit by first pass. F is how much will make it, so the bigger F is, the lower dose you need. The bigger Vd, the higher dose you

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11
Q

Maintenance dose equation

A

Cp x CL/F. Now we are maintaining, so have to increase dose with clearance and decrease dose if more makes it through first pass.

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12
Q

Zero order vs first order elimination

A

Zero: constant amount eliminated no matter what the concentration. Called capacity dependent elimination (maxed out already so doesn’t matter what concentration is). First order: constant fraction eliminated. Called flow dependent elimination

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13
Q

How can you treat phenobarbital, MTX, and aspirin overdose all at once?

A

Bicarb. These are all weak acids and can get trapped in basic environments by ionizing them.

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14
Q

How can you treat an amphetamine OD?

A

Ammonium chloride. Weak base, can trap with acid.

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15
Q

What do phenytoin, ethanol, and aspirin have in common?

A

Zero order kinetics at high or toxic concentrations

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16
Q

Phase I vs Phase II metabolism

A

Phase I is P450, does reduction, oxidation, hydrolysis that yields slightly polar, water-soluble metabolites (often still active). Phase II does conjugation and yields very polar, inactive metabolites that are excreted. This is where slow acetylators come

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17
Q

Therapeutic index

A

Median lethal dose/ median effective dose. Safer drugs have higher TI’s, takes a way bigger lethal dose than effective dose

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18
Q

Therapeutic window

A

Range of minimum effective dose to minimum toxic dose.

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19
Q

What type of G protein does mydriasis via pupillary dilator muscle contraction?

A

Alpha 1 –> Gq

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20
Q

What type of G protein decreases HR and contractility of atria?

A

M2 is heart –> Gi

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21
Q

What kind of G protein increases sweat?

A

M3 –> Gq. Remember, this one is a muscarinic carrying out sympathetic activity!

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22
Q

What type of G protein does intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction?

A

Apha 1 –> Gq

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23
Q

What kind of G protein relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle?

A

D1 –> Gs

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24
Q

What kind of G protein responds to ADH with increased vascular smooth muscle contraction?

A

V1 –> Gq

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25
What kind of G protein increases aqueous humor production?
Beta 2 --> Gs
26
What kind of G protein decreases insulin release via autonomic signaling?
Alpha 2 --> Gi
27
What kind of G protein increases bladder contraction?
M3 --> Gq
28
What kind of G protein does accommodation?
M3 --> Gq
29
What kind of G protein is associated with the D2 receptor. What does the D2 receptor do?
Gi. Modulates transmitter release, especially in the brain
30
What kind of G protein does increased nasal and bronchial mucus production, contraction of bronchioles, pruritis, and pain
H1 --> Gq
31
What kind of G protein responds to H2. What does it do?
H2 --> Gs. Increased gastric acid secretion
32
What kind of G protein responds to ADH by increasing water reabsorption?
V2 --> Gs
33
What kind of G protein decreases uterine tone in response to an autonomic?
Beta 2 --> Gs (tocolytic)
34
What kind of G protein does ciliary muscle relaxation?
M3 --> Gq
35
What kind of G protein does bronchoconstriction?
M3 --> Gq
36
What kind of G protein does pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (mioisis)?
M3 --> Gq
37
What kind of G protein increases platelet aggregation via autonomic signaling?
Alpha 2 --> Gi
38
Now, M1, M2, M3, what do they do and what are their associated G proteins?
M1 = CNS --> Gq. M2 = heart --> Gi. M3 = everything else --> Gq
39
D1 and D2: what are their Gs?
Gs, Gi. Si! Kidney and brain
40
H1 and H2: what are their Gs?
Gq, Gs. Gs --> acid Secretion, Gq --> rest
41
V1 and V2: What are their Gs?
Gq, Gs. Gq --> constriction (like alpha 1 that also uses Gq). Gs --> normal ADH stuff
42
Gs has what effect on the heart? Smooth muscle?
Gs --> increased PKA --> increases calcium in the heart. PKA also phosphorylates myosin light chain kinase to inhibit it! Inhibits smooth muscle contraction (D1, Beta 2)
43
PTEN: What is it and what is the pathway?
Growth factor --> TK --> PI3K --> phosphorylates PIP2 --> PIP3 --> activates Akt --> mTOR --> cell survival and anti-apoptosis. Now, PTEN is a tumor suppressor and dephosphorylates PIP3. See p 231
44
Pyridostigmine, neostigmine, edrophonium, and physostigmine. Who can enter the CNS? Uses?
Physostigmine, others can't. Physo for atropine OD. Use neo and pyrido to treat MG and edrophonium to diagnose MG (short-acting). Neo is also for post-op ileus and urinary retention and reversal of NMJ blockade
45
What G protein does increased gastric acid secretion from autonomics?
Gq --> M3.
46
Pralidoxime
Regenerates active AChE in cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning
47
Tropicamide
Atropine for the eye
48
Glycopyrrolate
Muscarinic antagonist for GI and respiratory (reduce airway secretions and treat peptic ulcer)
49
What is the muscarinic receptor on endothelial surfaces?
NO (endothelial derived relaxing factor or EDRF). No innervation, only agonists hit it
50
What receptors is isoproterenol selective for? What do you use it to treat?
Beta 1 and beta 2 agonist. Treats torsades de pointes (tachy decreases QT interval) and bradyarrythmias (though may worsen ischemia)
51
What receptors does DA act on in increasing doses?
Low dose --> D1, medium --> betas, high --> alphas
52
Where does dobutamine act?
beta 1 primarily. Use for heart failure, cardiac stress testing (increases conduction speed)
53
Ritodrine. Uses?
Beta 2 selective agonist for reducing premature uterine contractions
54
Amphetamine MOA vs ephedrine vs cocaine
Amphetamine releases stored catecholamines and decreases reputake, cocaine decreases reuptake, ephedrine releases stored catecholamines
55
What would happen if you gave beta blockers to someone on cocaine?
Unopposed alpha 1 activation and extreme HTN
56
Methyldopa MOA
alpha 2 agonist, decreases central sympathetic outflow. Can treat HTN, especially with renal disease (doesn't decrease renal blood flow to kidney). Same with clonidine
57
Name the partial beta agonists
Pindolol, acebutolol
58
Name the nonselective alpha and beta antagonists
carvedilol, labetolol
59
What do you give someone who overdoses on salicylates
Alkalinize the urine (NaHCO3)
60
What do you give someone who overdoses on beta blockers
Glucagon.
61
What do you give someone who overdoses on digitalis
Normalize K and magnesium, Lidocaine, Anti-Fab,
62
What do you give someone who overdoses on iron
Deferoxamine, deferasirox
63
What do you give someone who overdoses on lead
CaEDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine
64
What do you give someone who overdoses on mercury
Dimercaprol, succimer
65
What do you give someone who overdoses on copper
Penicillamine
66
What do you give someone who overdoses on arsenic
Dimercarpol, succimer, penicillamine
67
What do you give someone who overdoses on gold
Dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine
68
What do you give someone who overdoses on cyanide
Nitrate + thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin
69
What do you give someone for methemeglobin
Methylene blue, vitamin C
70
What do you give someone for warfarin OD
Vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma (faster)
71
What do you give someone for tPA, streptokinase, or urokinase OD
Aminocaproic acid. Inhibits plasmin
72
What do you give someone for theophylline OD
Beta blocker
73
3 drugs that cause coronary vasospasm
Cocaine, sumatriptan, ergot alkaloids
74
4 drugs that cause cutaneous flushing
Vanco, adenosine, niacin, Ca blockers
75
2 drug types that cause torsades
Class III and IA antiarrythmics
76
6 drugs that cause agranulocytosis?
Clozapine, carbamazepine, colchicine, PTU, methimazole, dapsone (an antibiotic)
77
5 drugs that cause aplastic anemia?
Chloramphenicol (gray baby), benzene, NSAIDs, PTU, methimazole
78
What 2 drugs cause direct Coombs positive hemolytic anemia?
Methyldopa, PCN
79
6 drugs that cause hemolysis in G6PD deficient patients
INH, sulfonamides, primaquine, aspirin, ibuprofen, nitrofurantoin
80
3 drugs that cause megaloblastic anemia?
Phenytoin, MTX, sulfa drugs
81
Drug that you think of with acute cholestatic hepatitis and jaundice?
Erythromycin
82
3 drugs that cause hepatic granulomatosis?
Methyldopa, hydralazine, quinidine
83
3 drugs that cause cholethiasis?
Fibrates, octreotide, ceftriaxone
84
5 drugs that cause gynecomastia?
Spironolactone, digitalis, cimetidine, chronic alcohol use, ketoconazole
85
5 drugs that cause hyperglycemia?
Niacin, tacrolimus and cyclosporine, protease inhibitors, HCTZ, corticosteroids
86
3 drugs that cause hypothyroid?
Lithium, amiodarone, sulfonamides
87
4 drugs that cause gout?
Furosemide, thiazides, niacin, cyclosporine
88
Which 3 drugs do photosensitivity?
Sulfonamides, amiodarone, tetracycline
89
2 drugs that cause siADH
Carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide. Cyclophosphamide also causes hemorrhagic cystitis
90
What CNS effects does metoclopramide have?
Seizures and PD like symptoms