Phase 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What two types of command operate under the joint chiefs of staff
A
Unified and Specified
2
Q
Name the six unified commands
A
Atlantic Pacific European Southern Central Readiness
3
Q
Name two specified commands
A
North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD)
Air Mobility Command (AMC)
4
Q
CINCPACFLT commands..
A
Third and seventh fleets
5
Q
CINCANTFLT commands..
A
Second fleet
6
Q
CINCUSNAVEUR commands..
A
Sixth fleet
7
Q
Who is the current Secretary of the Navy
A
Mr. Richard Spencer (76th SECNAV)
8
Q
Who is the current Secretary of Defense
A
Mr. Jim Mattis (26th SECDEF)
9
Q
Who is the current Chief of Naval Operations
A
ADM John Richardson
10
Q
What are Wing commanders responsible for
A
Material readiness, administration, training, and inspection of squadrons under their command
11
Q
Who is the current Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy
A
MCPON Steven Giordano (14th MCPON)
12
Q
What are the 6 fleet Master Chiefs
A
Pacific Fleet Atlantic Fleet Naval Forces Europe Material command Shore activities Naval Education and Training
13
Q
How many Force Master Chiefs are there
A
22 Force Master Chiefs
14
Q
Navy commands with how many personnel assigned are eligible for a CMC
A
Commands with 250 or more personnel
15
Q
What is the work center supervisors primary function
A
Hour by hour functions
16
Q
What are the Ombudsman’s responsibilities
A
Be the link between the command and families of command personnel.
17
Q
What is the DAPA
A
Command Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor
18
Q
What is a CIPM
A
Career Information Program Manager, acts as divisional career counselor
19
Q
In order to receive an honorable discharge, the member must receive atleast a ____ conduct and ____ average otherwise a general discharge is awarded
A
2.7 conduct, 3.0 average
20
Q
What are the eval marks
A
Early Promote - 4.0 Must Promote - 3.8 Promotable - 3.6 Progressing - 3.4 Significant Problems - 2.0
21
Q
Good conducts are awarded every ____ years to personnel with Performance Marks above ____ and no NJP or Court Martial.
A
3 years, 3.0
22
Q
What is the principle means by which commanders communicate
A
Naval message
23
Q
How would you express 01 July 2016 @ 1200 Zulu time in Date Time Group
A
011200ZJUL16
24
Q
What is SSIC
A
Standard Subject Identification Code
25
State the three objectives of first aid
Save life
Prevent further injury
Prevent infection
26
What are the 4 methods of controlling bleeding
Direct pressure
Elevation
Pressure points
Tourniquet
27
How many pressure points are there?
Identify 3
11-
```
Superficial temporal artery-temple
Facial artery - jaw
Common carotid - neck
Subclavian artery - collar bone
Brachial artery - inner upper arm
Brachial artery - inner elbow
Radial/Ulner - wrist
Femoral - upper thigh
Iliac - groin
Popliteal - knee
Anterior/posterior tibial - ankle
```
28
State Symptoms and treatment for shock
Symptoms- vacant eyes, irregular breathing, cold/pale skin, nausea, weak pulse
Treatment- lay down with feet elevated 6-12 inches, cover to maintain body heat
29
Described the 3 classifications of burns
1st- mildest, redness/warmth/tender mild pain
2nd- red and blistered/severe pain
3rd- destroyed tissue/skin and bone/pain may be absent due to destroyed nerve endings
30
State Symptoms and treatment for heat exhaustion
Disturbance of blood flow to brain, heart, and lungs
Skin is cool/moist/clammy
Pupils dilated
Subnormal body temperature
Usually sweating profusely
Move to cool area, loosen clothing, apply wet cloths to head/groin/ankles, if conscious give one tsp salt in liter of cool water and transport to medical facility
31
State symptoms and treatment of heat stroke
Breakdown of sweating mechanisms in the body
Hot/dry skin, uneven pupil dilation, weak pulse
Douse body in cold water, apply cold wet towels, move to coolest place possible, maintain open airway, lay on back with shoulders slightly raised, cold packs on victims shoulders, neck, groin, ankle.
32
Describe hypothermia
A general cooling of the entire body
33
Describe superficial frost bite
Ice crystals forming in upper skin layers
34
Describe deep frostbite
Ice crystals in deep tissues
35
Define the purpose of the Naval Aviation Safety Program
Preserve human and material resources to accomplish the naval aviation mission.
36
Who's responsible for safety
All hands
37
What instruction forms the guidelines for the naval aviation safety program
OPNAVINST 3750.6Q
38
What is the ESC and what are its functions
Enlisted Safety Committee
Meet monthly to discuss safety issues and provide recommendations for improved safety procedures
39
What are the 5 contributors to aviation mishaps
Human Error
Maintenance and support factors
Administrative and supervisory factors
Material failure or malfunction
Environmental factors
40
Describe the four classes of mishaps
Class A- cost above $1M/permanent total disability or death
Class B- cost between 200k & 1M/ permanent partial disability, 3 or more personnel hospitalized
Class C- cost between 10k-200k/ injury resulting in time off work beyond day of mishap
Class D- cost less than 10k/ no injury beyond first aid or day of incident
41
What is ACSP and what publication is used for certification
Aircraft Confined Space Program
NavAir 01-1A-35
42
What are the hazards of RF energy
Generates currents/voltage large enough to cause life threatening shock/burns, biological changes and cataracts
May cause unwanted activation of EED
43
What is the purpose of the Laser Safety Hazard Control Program
Design a series of safety factors established when using lasers
44
State the purpose of safety stand down
Devote time to safety training. awareness and enhancement of the command safety climate.
45
What are the 5 steps of ORM
```
Identify hazards
Assess hazards
Make risk decisions
Implement controls
Supervise
```
46
What is CBR
Chemical, biological, radiological warfare
47
Describe chemical warfare
Use of chemical agents
48
Describe biological warfare
Use of living organisms as weapons
49
Describe radiological warfare
Use of radiological weapons
50
What is atropine/2 pan chloride
Automatic injector for first aid treatment of nerve agents
51
Describe the DT-60
Personnel dosimeter, non self reading, determines total gamma radiation.
52
Name the 4 chemical casualty agents and symptoms
Choking agents- dryness of throat, coughing, choking, tightness of chest, headache, nausea, watering eyes
Nerve agents- runny nose difficult breathing, contracted pupils, nausea, cramps, headache, coma, convulsion
Blood agents- hydrogen cyanide, breathing stops, violent convulsions, death within minutes
Blister agents- redness of skin .5-36 hrs after mustard vapor exposure, stiffness throbbing swelling
53
What are the types of nuclear explosions
High altitude air burst
Air burst
Surface burst
Shallow underwater burst
Deep underwater burst
54
What is EMP and what type of nuclear explosion/s produce it
Electromagnetic pulse
High altitude, air and surface bursts
55
What is occurs during nuclear black out
Loss of electrical power
56
What does MOPP stand for and how many levels are there
Mission oriented protective posture
4 levels
57
Describe MOPP 1
Gas masks issued/fitted to all hands
58
Describe MOPP 2
Gas masks carried by personnel, material condition ZEBRA
59
Describe MOPP 3
Filters installed on gas masks, don chemical protective over garments, material condition ZEBRA
60
Describe MOPP 4
Don gas mask and secure hood, don gloves. Set condition Circle William
61
Describe the four elements of fire chemistry
Fuel, oxidizing agent, temperature, chemical chain reaction
62
What are the four classifications of fire
Class A- wood,cloth,textiles, fibrous materials. Ext with water or AFFF
Class B- flammable liquids. Ext w/ AFFF, halon 1211, PKP, CO2
Class C - electrical. Ext w/ CO2, Halon, PKP
Class D- combustible metals, ext w/ water in high volumes from behind shelter due to explosions
63
What is the flash point of AVGAS
-50F
64
What is the flashpoint of JP-4
-10F
65
What is the flashpoint of JP-5
140F
66
What is the flashpoint of JP-8
100F
67
Using which fire extinguishing agents must a Oxygen Breathing Apparatus be worn
CO2 and HALON
68
What is the expansion rate of LOX
860:1
69
Define aircraft handling
Any movement of aircraft or equipment
70
State the purpose of standard aircraft taxi signals
Used by all branches so there will be no misunderstanding between pilots and ground crew of varying services
71
State the max towing speed of an aircraft
As fast as the slowest walker
72
Name the four categories of tie down requirements
Initial
Intermediate
Permanent
Heavy weather
73
How are runways numbered
Magnetic heading rounded to the nearest 10 degrees
74
Explain the significance of Arm/deArm areas
Area where ordnance can safely be changed from a state of readiness to a safe condition and vice versa
75
Explain the purpose of an overrun area
Provides an effective area for aborting or overshooting aircraft, often marked with yellow chevrons
76
Explain the purpose of parking aprons
Required for parking, servicing and loading of aircraft
77
Explain the purpose of airfield rotating beacon
Identify the airports location, flashing rate of 12-15 flashes per minute
78
Explain the purpose of TACAN
TACtical Air Navigation system uses bearing determining systems between the aircraft and TACAN stations, primary nav aid by carrier based aircraft
79
State procedures for aircraft grounding
Approved grounding receptacle first, then approved grounding point on the aircraft
80
Who has prime responsibility during an aircraft movement
Move director
81
What is the primary Objective of the Navy Security Program
Safe guard personnel, property, facilities and material.
Enforce laws rules and regulations.
82
Define Law Enforcement operations
Support good order and discipline
83
Who is responsible for the good order and discipline of the command
Commanding Officer
84
State the use of force and weapons policies
Sufficient though not excessive force, to stop whatever offense is being committed
85
What does SOFA stand for
Status of Forces Agreements
86
What does NAMP stand for and what is the publication
Naval aviation maintenance program
OPNAVINST 4790.2b
87
What is the objective of the NAMP
To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards established by the CNO and COMNAVAIRFOR
88
What is chapter 1 of the NAMP
Introduction
89
What is the maintenance control chapter of the NAMP
Chapter 5
90
Which chapter is QA programs in the NAMP
Chapter 7
91
What is chapter 10 of the NAMP
NAMP Standard Operating Procedures (NAMPSOPS)
92
What chapter of the NAMP pertains to NALCOMIS and OMA and what do they stand for
Chapter 13
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System
Organizational Maintenance Activity
93
What chapter is O level maintenance
Chapter 15
94
What are the 3 levels of maintenance and which is VP45
ORGANIZATIONAL
Intermediate
Depot
95
Describe O level maintenance
Operating unit, day by day support, assigned aircraft
Strive to maintain full mission capable aircraft
96
Describe I level maintenance
On and off equipment material support
Strive to process, repair, and return items in a timely fashion
97
Describe DEPOT level maintenance
Overhaul maintenance, usually civilian or FTS
98
Describe the Maintenance officers primary responsibility
Accomplishment of the department mission IAW the NAMP
99
What are the responsibilities of the Aircraft Maintenance Officer
Assistant to the MO, manning
100
What does MMCO stand for and what are his responsibilities
Maintenance Material Control Officer
Liaison between supported activities and supply
101
Describe the responsibilities of the Material Control Officer
Supply corps officer assigned to a deployable squadron, responsible for managing the tool control program. Used to reduce cost and improve readiness
102
Describe scheduled maintenance
Timely discovery and detection of defects.
Phase inspections, hourlys, cycles, landings
103
Describe unscheduled maintenance
Discrepancies and deficiencies found during operations.
104
What is the purpose of the daily
Conducted to inspect for defects further in depth than turnaround and postflight
Good for 72 hours without maintenance or flight
105
What is the purpose of a turnaround
Conducted between flights to ensure integrity of the aircraft for flight
Good for 24 hours without maintenance or flight
106
Describe a special inspection
Prescribed interval other than daily,calendar, or phase
14 day, 2000 landing, 2000 HR
107
Describe a conditional inspection
Unscheduled inspection such as bird/lightening strike, hard landing, FOD, ETC
108
Describe phase inspections
Scheduled maintenance requirements divided over time
109
Describe acceptance inspections
Performed when accepting newly assigned aircraft
110
State the purpose of FCF
Functional Check Flights are done to determine whether airframe power plant accessories and equipment are functioning properly
111
State the purpose of the Weight and Balance program
Provides standard system of field weight and balance control
112
State the purpose of the aircraft log book
Hard cover loose leaf binder containing the history of the aircraft.
113
Who is authorized to sign the aircraft log book
Anyone designated in writing by the CO
114
Who is authorized to release an aircraft safe for flight
MO, MMCO, Maintenance Control Officer
Anyone designated in writing by the CO
115
What are MRC cards
Provides instructions for scheduled maintenance tasks
116
What are PMICs
Periodic Maintenance Information Cards
Identify scheduled or forced removal of items and their replacement intervals
117
What is the IPB
Illustrated Parts Breakdown
(AIPC) Aircraft Illustrated Parts Catalog
118
What are MIMs
Maintenance instruction manuals
O or I level maintenance and servicing of a specific model aircraft
119
Define work center supervisor responsibilities
Hour by hour maintenance
120
Define the concept of QA
Prevention of the occurrence of defects
121
Explain the responsibilities of QAR
Direct representatives of the CO for ensuring safety of flight
122
Explain the responsibilities of CDQAR
Collateral Duty Quality Insurance Representatives are QA for individual workcenters
123
Explain the responsibilities of a CDI
Collateral duty Inspectors are production work center inspectors as representatives of QA
124
What are the three types of QA audits
Special
Quarterly
Workcenter
125
Describe a special audit
Evaluate specific tasks, procedures, programs.
126
Describe quarterly workcenter audits
Conducted quarterly to evaluate all areas of the workcenter
127
Describe CTPL
Central technical Publications Librarian handles all technical manuals required including internal control and distribution of the NAMP
128
Who monitors and manages the FOD program
QA
Line division chief (chief Gloyd)
129
What is the primary objective of the tool control program
Provides a means to rapidly account for all tools after completing a maintenance task
130
Who monitors the Fuel Surveillance and Oil analysis programs and where is the servicing logged
QA
Aircraft log book
131
How shall tires be handled
Same care as live ordnance
132
Describe MMP
Monthly Maintenance Plan provides a schedule of predictable work
133
Describe ESD
Electrostatic Discharge is the transfer of esc between objects at different potentials
134
What does NATOPS stand for
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
135
State the meaning of the term WARNING
May result in injury or death
136
State the meaning of the term CAUTION
Damage to equipment
137
State the meaning of the term NOTE
Must be emphasized
138
State the meaning of the term Shall
Mandatory procedure
139
State the meaning of the term SHOULD
Recommended
140
State the meaning of the term MAY
Optional procedure
141
State the meaning of the term WILL
Future procedure
142
What are NAVFLIRS
OPNAV3710/4 "yellow sheet" provides a standard flight activity data collection system
143
Describe master flight files
Shall be the only official flight record of naval aircraft 3710.7
144
Explain Type Commanders (TYCOM)
COMNAVAIRLANT A-M and A-Z
COMNAVAIRPAC N-Z and A-Z
CNATRA A-G
145
State the 6 areas of naval doctrine
```
Warfare
Intel
Ops
Logistics
Planning
Command and Control
```
146
How does naval aviation support recon/surveillance
Search for and interception, recording, and analysis of electromagnetic energy used in military operations
147
How does naval aviation support anti submarine warfare
Locate and destroy submarines
148
How does naval aviation support amphibious assault
Providing bombardment by ordnance, transportation of troops and supplies
149
How does naval aviation support logistics
Transportation of troops and cargo or supplies
150
How does naval aviation support search and rescue
Provide search and surveillance data of a rescue area
151
How does naval aviation support mine warfare
Locate and destroy enemy mines
152
When did the first congress meet
05september1774
153
Who was appointed commander in chief of the continental American army on 15 June 1775
George Washington
154
What is the birthday of the US navy
13 October 1775
155
Who was the first commander in chief who put the continental navy to sea in FEB1776
Esek Hopkins
156
State the qualities that characterize the Navy/Marine Corps as instruments to support national policy
Readiness
Flexibility
Self-sustainability
Mobility
157
State the three levels of war
Strategic
Tactical
Operational
158
When did they battle of Coral Sea take place and what was the significance of it
7-8May1942
First Carrier V Carrier battle
Lexington sunk and Yorktown was damaged
159
When and what was the significance of the battle of midway
3-5 June 1942
Turning point of the pacific war by the US breaking the Japanese naval code
160
When and what was the significance of the battle of Guadalcanal
13-15 November 1942
The USS Juneau was sunk along with 700 crew members including 5 Sullivan brothers
161
What is 08 May 1911 considered
Birthday of Naval Aviation after purchasing two Curtis biplanes later called A-1 for $5500
162
When was the first Aircraft carried commissioned and what were its name and class
20March1922
USS Langley (CV-1)
163
What was the first naval jet aircraft
FJ-1 Fury, first landed on the USS Boxer (cv-21)
164
Who was the first naval aviator in space
5may1961 Alan Shepard
15 min flight in Freedom 7
165
Describe inertia
Object remains at rest or continues in motion unless acted upon by an outside force
166
Describe acceleration
The rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time
167
Describe speed
The rate of movement or motion in a given amount of time
168
Describe velocity
The quickness or speed of an object in a given time AND direction
169
Define Newtons First Law
Inertia (remain at rest or in motion)
170
Define Newtons Second Law
Force proportional to the amount and mass of object
171
Define Newtons Third Law
Action and reaction
Equal and opposite
172
Define Bernoullis principle
Lift accomplished by difference in airflow across the airfoil
173
How many knots must wind be traveling to classify as a storm
48 knots or greater
174
Below 33 knots a topical cyclone is refereed to as a..
Tropical depression
175
Between 34-63 knots a tropical cyclone is considered...
Tropical storm
176
What is the warning issued for winds above 64 knots
Hurricane/Typhoon
177
What is issued if thunderstorms are within 3 miles of an airfield
Thunderstorm warning
178
What is issued if a thunderstorm is within 3 miles of an airfield with wind gusts over 50 knots and/or hail 3/4 inch
Severe thunderstorm warning
179
What is issued when tornados have been sited or detected by radar
Tornado Warning
180
Describe lift
Force that acts in an upward direction counteracting weight
181
Describe weight
Force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft
182
Describe Drag
Force holding an aircraft back, counters thrust
183
Describe Thrust
Force developed by the engine in a forward direction, counters drag
184
Which axis does roll occur
Longitudinal
185
Which axis does pitch occur
Lateral
186
Which axis does yaw occur
Vertical
187
Describe how flight controls affect fixed wing aircraft
Ailerons-longitudinal axis
Elevators- lateral axis
Rudder- vertical axis
188
How do flight controls affect rotary wing aircraft
Collective stick- up and down
Cyclic stick - forward, Aft, Sideways
Foot pedals- tail rotor
189
What is the purpose of flaps
Give the aircraft lift
190
What is the purpose of spoilers
Decrease lift
191
What is the purpose of speed brakes
Reducing speed
192
What is the purpose of slats
Improve control at slow speeds
193
State the purpose of the horizontal stabilizer
Process stability about the lateral axis
194
State the purpose of the vertical stabilizer
Maintains stability about its vertical axis
195
State the purpose of the tail rotor
counter acts the main rotor
196
Explain angle of attack
Fuselage against the air
197
State the components of hyds
```
Pump
Actuators
Reservoir
Tubing
Selector valve
```
198
Explain the purpose of the shock strut assembly on the landing gear
Absorbs the shock of landing to protect the airframe
199
Explain the purpose of tires on the landing gear
Provides traction during take off and landing
200
Explain the purpose of the wheel brake assembly on the landing gear
Used to slow and stop the aircraft and secure the aircraft during parking
201
Explain the purpose of the retracting and extending mechanism on the landing gear
Hydraulic extension and retraction of the landing gear
202
Explain the purpose of the side struts and supports on the landing gear
Provides lateral strength and support for the landing gear
203
Explain the safety precautions when servicing aircraft tires
Always approach the tires from fore and aft, never the sides
204
State the 5 basic sections of a jet engine
```
Intake
Compressor
Combustion
Turbine
Exhaust
```
205
Describe a turbo jet engine
Projects a column of air to the rear at an extremely high velocity
206
Describe a turboshaft engine
Delivers power through a shaft to drive something other than a propeller
207
Describe a turboprop engine
Converts gas energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller
208
Describe a turbofan engine
Similar to a turboprop except the propeller is replaced by a duct enclose axial flow fan
209
State the purpose of an afterburner
Used during takeoff and combat maneuvers to boost the normal thrust of a gas turbine engine
210
What is the NATO code for JP4
What is the flash point
F-40
-10F -23C
211
What is the NATO code for JP5
What is the flashpoint
F-44
140F 60C
212
What is the NATO code for JP8
What is the flashpoint
F-34
100F 40C
213
What are 3 hazards associated with jet fuel
Explosions, vapor inhalation, contact with skin or eyes, swallowing can cause death
214
Explain the purpose of the APU
Furnish electrical power
215
What is an NDI,
Give 3 examples
Non Destructive Inspection
Visual, optical, liquid penetrate, magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic, radiographic
216
What affects does icing have on the aircraft
Decreases lift and increases drag, weight, and stalling speed
Causes loss of engine power, aerodynamics efficiency, loss of control surfaces; brakes, and landing gear. Loss of vision, false indication, and communication
217
State the purpose of the pitot-static system
Indication for altimeter, airspeed, rate of climb
218
State the purpose of the airspeed indicator
Speed of the aircraft in relation to the air in which it is flying
219
State the purpose of the altimeters
Displays the height above sea level
220
State the purpose of the attitude indicator
Displays Relative position of the aircraft to earths horizon
Also called VGI vertical Gyro Indicator
221
State the purpose of the turn and bank indicator
Displays correct execution of a turn and bank
222
State the purpose of navigation systems
Direct, plot, and control the course or position of the aircraft
223
State the purpose of the IFF system
Allows aircraft to identify as friendly automatically without interrogation
224
State the purpose of RADAR
Used radio frequencies to detect objects at distances much greater than visually possible
225
State the purpose of the magnetic compass
Direct reading magnetic compass for standby flight operations
226
Describe bombs
Free falling explosives dropped from an aircraft over enemy targets to reduce the enemy's war potential
227
Describe Rockets
Weapon containing an explosive and propulsive section
228
Describe missles
Vehicle containing an explosive, propulsive and guidance section
229
Describe mines
Underwater explosives
230
Describe torpedoes
Self propelled underwater missles used against surface and underwater targets
231
Explain the purpose of circuit breakers
Circuit protection device when current exceeds a predetermined value
232
Explain the purpose of a fuse
Protective device inline with a circuit, consists of a metal that will melt or break when current is increased beyond a specific value
233
Explain voltage
Driving force of current
Designated by letter E in ohms law
234
Explain Current
The flow of electrons l, directly proportional to applied voltage and inversely so to resistance
Designated by the letter I in ohms law
235
Explain resistance
The opposing force to electrons
Designated by the letter R in ohms law
236
What is a SMQ
Special Maintenance Qualification
Controls which NALCOMIS subsystems a user has access too
237
Describe the mission of the HC platform
Helicopter combat support
Plane guard, sea-air rescue,mail delivery, personnel transfer
CH-53
238
Describe the mission of the HCS platform
Helo combat support special squadron
Deployable combat rescue for Carrier and amphibious operations
H-60
239
Describe the mission of the HM platform
Helo mine countermeasures
Ariel minesweepers and hunting
MH-53
240
Describe the mission of the HS platform
Helo Antisubmarine
Carrier based ASW, plane guard, SAR, logistics
SH-60
241
Describe the mission of the HSL platform
Helo anti submarine light
Small helos from smaller ships, SAR & Logistics
Sk-60
242
Describe the mission of the HT platform
Helo Training
Training of naval aviators for rotary wing aircraft
TH-57
243
Describe the mission of the VAQ platform
Tactical Electronic warfare
Exploits, suppresses, degrades, and deceives enemy electromagnetic systems including communication
EA-6B Prowler -> Growler
EP-3A --> P8
244
Describe the mission of the VAW platform
Carrier Airborne Early Warning
Warning against missiles, weather, ships and aircraft
E-2
245
Describe the mission of the VC platform
Fleet composite
Provides services such as simulations and target towing
H-53, VP-3A
246
Describe the mission of the VF platform
Fighter
Used against aircraft and ground targets, Air support
F-14, F-16N
247
Describe the mission of the VFA platform
Strike Fighter
Fighter/attack missions
F/A 18
248
Describe the mission of the VMFA platform
Marine Fighter/Attack
Marine Corps F/A-18
249
Describe the mission of the VP platform
Patrol
Land Based patrol and reconnaissance, ASW, SAR
P3/P-8A
250
Describe the mission of the VQ platform
Fleet Air Reconnaissance
Electronic warfare support
EP-3, E-6
251
Describe the mission of the VR platform
Aircraft Logistics Support
Transport of personnel and supplies
C-130
252
Describe the mission of the VRC platform
Carrier Logistics Support
Transports personnel and supplies to carriers
C-2 greyhound
253
Describe the mission of the VS platform
Carrier anti submarine warfare
Search and sea control, no longer employed for ASW
S-3
254
Describe the mission of the VT platform
Fixed wing training for naval aviators
T-45
255
Describe the mission of the VX/VXE platform
Air test and evaluation
Tests and evaluates operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment in an operational environment
Antarctic development-VXE
256
What are the 6 categories of hazmat
```
Flammable or combustible
Aerosol
Toxic
Corrosive
Oxidizing
Compressed gasses
```
FATCOC
257
Define HAZMAT
Hazardous Materials any material that may pose a hazard to human or environmental health
258
Define HAZWASTE
Any discarded material that may be categorized as HAZMAT
259
How often are HAZMAT storage locations inspected and what is being inspected for
Weekly and Quarterly
Corrosion, leakage, proper labeling, shelf life
260
What is an MSDS, Where is it located, what does it include
Material Safety Data Sheet
Supply, HAZMAT storage areas, spill kits
Manufacturers information pertaining to health & safety, chemical and physical characteristics, and precautions for use
261
What PPE is required when handling HM/HW
Eye protection
Respiratory devises
Gloves
262
What is the AUL and what is its purpose
HAZMAT authorized use list
Current inventory of all HM for local acquisition and use
