phase 4 set 2 Flashcards

(44 cards)

1
Q

what lab test would we do to look for active tb infection in the lungs?

A

sputum smear microscopy

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2
Q

how may rifampicin affect the liver in 1 in 100 people?

A

may cause hepatitis

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3
Q

what should we also give patients on isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy?

A

vitamin B6

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4
Q

which of the TB medications is known for causing joint pain?

A

pyrazinamide

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5
Q

which of the TB medications may cause vision problems (optic neuritis)?

A

ethambutol

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6
Q

what is the standard treatment regime for TB?

A

2 months- rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol
then 4 months- rifampicin and isoniazid

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7
Q

what must be documented before starting ethambutol?

A

baseline visual acuity

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8
Q

what criteria must a person with TB meet to be no longer considered infectious?

A

no longer coughing
completed 2 weeks of treatment
smear negative sputum microscopy

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9
Q

A pregnant women with HIV has an undetectable viral load- what mode of delivery can she have?

A

normal vaginal delivery

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10
Q

a pregnant women with HIV has a high viral load- what would the recommended way to deliver be?

A

c section

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11
Q

what is the recommendation for breast feeding for people with HIV ?

A

breast feeding is not recommended

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12
Q

what population is particularly at risk of hepatitis C infection?

A

IVDU

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13
Q

what test is done after a positive hepatitis C antibody test to confirm active infection?

A

HCV RNA

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14
Q

what type of scan should patients with a new diagnosis of HCV have to look for baseline liver cirrhosis ?

A

fibroscan

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15
Q

what is alpha feto protein a tumour marker for?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

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16
Q

is there a vaccine for hep c

A

no

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17
Q

is there a vaccine for hep a and b?

A

yes

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18
Q

a patient who is positive for HCV is found to have cirrhosis on their fibroscan- levels of which tumour marker should be taken every 6 months to screen for hepatocellular carcinoma

A

alpha fetoprotein

19
Q

what class of drug is given to cure hep C?

A

direct acting antiviral drugs

20
Q

what does pseudomonas aeruginosa look like on gram staining?

A

gram negative bacilli

21
Q

what is the treatment for genital herpes?

A

oral aciclovir

22
Q

what class of antibiotic can cause a black hairy tongue?

A

tetracyclines

23
Q

what class of antibiotic can cause discolouration of teeth?

A

tetracyclines

24
Q

what is the treatment for giardiasis?

A

metronidazole

25
what type of rash is typically seen at the site of the tick bite in lyme disease?
bulls eye rash- erythema migrans
26
what antibiotic for UTI is contraindicated in the first trimester of pregnancy ?
trimethoprim
27
how long is the recommended antibiotic course for UTI in pregnancy ?
7 days
28
what is first line treatment for UTI in pregnancy (unless near term)?
nitrofurantoin 7 days
29
what organism causes typhoid?
salmonella typhi `
30
what disease is classically associated with pea green diarrhoea ?
typhoid
31
what is the investigation of choice in genital herepes?
nucleic acid amplification test NAAT
32
what antibiotic is used for prophylaxis is animal bite?
co-amoxiclav
33
which virus causes infectious mononucleosis?
Epstein Barr
34
what is the classic triad in infectious mononucelosis?
sore throat pyrexia lymphadenopathy
35
when a patient with infectious mononucleosis takes amoxicillin what do they develop?
maculopapular pruritic rash
36
what must be avoided in the 4 weeks after glandular fever to prevent splenic rupture?
contact sports
37
what is the most common cause of travellers diarrhoea?
e coli
38
what would we give in a wound that is at high risk for tetanus is a person with uncertain vaccination history ?
tetanus booster and immunoglobulin
39
what antibiotic might we use to treat legionella?
clarithromycin (macrolide)
40
which antibiotic is known for adverse affects when combined with alcohol such as nausea, flushing and palpitations?
metronidazole
41
how many days treatment should a man with a UTI receive ?
7 days
42
which antibiotic is contraindicated in patients on methotrexate ?
trimethoprim
43
what may be found in a stool sample of a person with giardiasis?
cysts or trophozoites
44
what shouldn't you drink when taking metronidazole ?
alcohol