PSA

Question 1

what class of drug is gliclazide?

Answer 1

sulfonylurea

Question 2

if trough levels of gentamicin are raised what action needs to be taken?

Answer 2

increase interval between doses

Question 3

if the peak concentration of gentamicin is high then how should the dose be altered?

Answer 3

reduce the dose

Question 4

what should be monitored during gentamicin treatment ?

Answer 4

auditory and vestibular function (and renal function)

Question 5

in a multiple daily dose gentamicin regimen (that is not for endocarditis) what should the peak and trough concentrations be?

Answer 5

peak 5-10
trough less than 2

Question 6

what time of day are statins taken?

Answer 6

at night

Question 7

what time of day is amitriptyline taken?

Answer 7

at night

Question 8

what class of drug is gentamicin?

Answer 8

aminoglycoside

Question 9

How does gentamicin work?

Answer 9

impairs ability of bacteria to produce proteins

Question 10

is gentamicin safe in pregnancy

Answer 10

no- may cause otoxicity in fetus

Question 11

What neuromuscular condition is gentamicin contraindicated in?

Answer 11

myasthenia gravis- may impair neuromuscular transmission

Question 12

How are aminoglycosides such as gentamicin excreted?

Answer 12

renally

Question 13

A patient with normal renal function is started on gentamicin, when should we measure their gentamicin concentrations?

Answer 13

After 3 or 4 doses of a multiple daily dose regimen or after a dose change

Question 14

when do you need to take a blood sample to get a peak gentamicin level?

Answer 14

1 hour after administration

Question 15

when do you need to take a blood sample to get a trough gentamicin level?

Answer 15

just before the next dose

Question 16

what should be assessed before starting treatment with an aminoglycoside like gentamicin?

Answer 16

renal function

Question 17

what is the difference between a NSTEMI and unstable angina?

Answer 17

presence of myocardial necrosis

Question 18

What may an ECG look like in an NSTEMI?

Answer 18

ST-segment depression, T wave inversion, may be normal!

Question 19

A patient has chest pain at rest with a normal ECG- how might we differentiate between NSTEMI and unstable angina?

Answer 19

serum troponin

Question 20

what should be offered in terms of pain relief for a patient with suspected ACS?

Answer 20

glyceryl trinitrate and IV morphine

Question 21

what is the loading dose of aspirin in ACS?

Answer 21

300mg

Question 22

what dose of aspirin should most people be on indefinitely following an ACS?

Answer 22

75mg

Question 23

what common combinations are given as dual antiplatelet therapy following an ACS for up to 12 months?

Answer 23

aspirin plus another antiplatelet such as clopidogrel, ticagrelor or prasugrel

Question 24

what is the hallmark of a near fatal episode of acute asthma?

Answer 24

raised PaC02

Question 25

In all cases of acute asthma, what steroid should be given orally?

Answer 25

prednisolone

Question 26

a peak flow of 33-50% of best or predicted but no other symptoms would put a patient into which severity category of acute asthma?

Answer 26

severe

Question 27

when treating Helicobacter pylori, what does the triple treatment regimen consist of?

Answer 27

A PPI and two antibacterials e.g omeprazole plus amoxicillin and clarithromysin

Question 28

what is the first line choice for prophylaxis in close contacts of a person with meningococcal disease?

Answer 28

ciprofloxacin

Question 29

what is the first line choice for prophylaxis in close contacts of a person with haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)?

Answer 29

rifampicin

Question 30

where in the BNF would you find a treatment summary for antibiotic prophylaxis?

Answer 30

'Antibacterials, use for prophylaxis'

Question 31

what is the principal side effect of cephalosporins?

Answer 31

hypersensitivity in patients with penicillin allergy

Question 32

what type of antibiotic is cefotaxime ?

Answer 32

third generation cephalosporin

Question 33

what type of antibiotic is erythromysin?

Answer 33

macrolide

Question 34

when is erythromycin contraindicated?

Answer 34

Inn patients with Hx of ventricular arrythmia, electrolyte disturbances or Hx of QT prolongation

Question 35

what type of antibiotic is doxycycline?

Answer 35

tetracycline

Question 36

what is penicillin G?

Answer 36

benzylpenicillin sodium

Question 37

what is the route for benzylpenicillin sodium?

Answer 37

injection (inactivated by gastric acid)

Question 38

What is penicillin V?

Answer 38

phenoxymethylpenicillin

Question 39

what does co-amoxiclav consist of?

Answer 39

amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid

Question 40

what is clavulanic acid?

Answer 40

betalactamase inhibitor

Question 41

What is piperacillin always combined with?

Answer 41

tazobactam

Question 42

What treatment might you offer to a patient with localised non-bullous impetigo who is systemically well and not at risk of complications?

Answer 42

hydrogen peroxide 1% cream

Question 43

what is oral first line in impetigo?

Answer 43

flucloxacillin

Question 44

what is first line antibiotic for treatment of bites?

Answer 44

co-amoxiclav

Question 45

what type of antibiotic is ciprofloxacin?

Answer 45

quinolone

Question 46

why should quinolones generally be avoided in children?

Answer 46

children are at a higher risk of tendon rupture and tendinitis (adults are also at risk of this)

Question 47

what do quinolones double the risk of a patient developing within 60 days of administration?

Answer 47

aortic aneurysm and dissection

Question 48

which class of antibiotic can cause suicidal thoughts and psychosis?

Answer 48

quinolones

Question 49

how may ciprofloxacin affect someone with a history of seizures?

Answer 49

increase seizure risk

Question 50

what class of antibiotic is levofloxacin?

Answer 50

quinolone

Question 51

why shouldn't doxycycline be used in breastfeeding women?

Answer 51

can effect development of the infants teeth

Question 52

how does rifampicin affect the P450 system?

Answer 52

rifampicin is a P450 inducer and thus decreases warfarin and thus will decrease INR`

Question 53

what unit is often used to prescribe topical drugs such as creams?

Answer 53

FTU

Question 54

how can we remember the enzyme inducers?

Answer 54

PC BRAS phenytoin carbamazepine barbiturates rifampicin alcohol (chronic) sulphonylureas

Question 55

How can we remember the enzyme inhibitors?

Answer 55

AODEVICES Allopurinol Omeprazole Disulfiram Erythromycin Valproate Isoniazid Ciprofloxacin Ethanol (acute) Sulphonamides

Question 56

what is the general sick day rule of someone taking steroids long term?

Answer 56

double dose when ill

Question 57

What medications should be stopped 4 weeks before surgery?

Answer 57

COCP and HRT

Question 58

What psychiatric drug should be stopped the day before surgery?

Answer 58

lithium

Question 59

why should metformin be stopped before surgery?

Answer 59

risk of lactic acidosis

Question 60

why should ACE inhibitors be discontinued before surgery?

Answer 60

can cause severe hypotension

Question 61

why should potassium sparing diuretics be withheld the day of surgery?

Answer 61

risk of hyperkalaemia

Question 62

give an example of a potassium sparing diuretic ?

Answer 62

spironolactone

Question 63

what medications can cause severe hyperkalaemia if taken in conjunction with a potassium sparing diuretic such as spironolactone ?

Answer 63

ARBs and ACEis

Question 64

what do angiotensin II receptor blocker names usually end in ?

Answer 64

'sartan'

Question 65

what antibiotic is first line for tonsilitis in penicillin allergic patients?

Answer 65

Clarithromycin

Question 66

what should be given in suspected temporal arteritis?

Answer 66

prednisolone

Question 67

what can be prescribed for allergic conjunctivitis?

Answer 67

sodium cromoglicate

Question 68

how does lithium affect psoriasis ?

Answer 68

lithium exacerbates psoriasis

Question 69

what drug class is indapamide?

Answer 69

thiazide-like diuretic

Question 70

how does indapamide reduce BP?

Answer 70

reduces sodium reabsorption in the kidney and increases urine output

Question 71

How does bendoflumethiazide work?

Answer 71

reduces sodium reabsorption in the kidney and increases urine output

Question 72

what type of diuretic is furosemide?

Answer 72

loop diuretic

Question 73

what type of diuretic is bumetanide?

Answer 73

loop diuretic

Question 74

what type of diuretic is often used in pulmonary oedema due to left ventricular failure?

Answer 74

loop diuretics e.g furosemide

Question 75

what type of drug is loratadine?

Answer 75

antihistamine

Question 76

what type of drug is fexofenadine ?

Answer 76

antihistamine