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Physiology Flashcards

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0
Q

Efflux Potassium (facilitated diffusion)
Inside membrane less positive
Membrane potential towards “resting” (K+)
Descending phase

A

Repolarization

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1
Q 
Influx Sodium (facilitated diffusion)
Inside b/c more positive
Ascending phase
Impulse likely
Na++ gates close
Threshold occures (-55 & -50 mV)
A

Depolarization

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2
Q

Before action potential (AP) begins
Membrane polarized
-90mV membrane potential

A

Resting state

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3
Q

Permeable to Na+ ions
Inside of neuron b/c more positive
-90mV immediately neutralized

A

Depolarization

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4
Q

Occurs 10,000ths of a second
Na+ channels begin to close & K+ channels open wider
Rapid diffusion of K+ to outside
Re-establishes normal negative resting membrane potential

A

Repolarization Stage

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5
Q

What are these two gates called:
Outside of channel is Activation Gate
Inside of channel is Inactivation Gate
-70 to -50 activation gate flips all the way open, Na+ ions pour in. Inactivation gate closes more slowly.

A

Voltage-gated Sodium Channel

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6
Q

T/F: Inactivation gate will not re-open until membrane potential is at or nearly at “resting membrane potential” level

A

True

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7
Q

Synaptic Transmission: Neuron sending the signal

A

Presynaptic neuron

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8
Q

Synaptic Transmission: Neuron receiving the signal

A

Postsynaptic neuron

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9
Q

Chemical Synapse from axon to dendrite

MC synapse

A

Axodendritic

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10
Q

Synapse from axon to soma

A

Axosomatic

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11
Q

Synapse from axon to axon

A

Axoaxonic

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12
Q

Tunnels that connect cytosol of two cells allowing AP to be transmitted directly from one cell to another thru Electrical Synapses. (Free flow of ions)
Common: Visceral (single unit), smooth & cardiac cells, embryo & CNS

A

Gap Junctions

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13
Q

Synapses where membranes are close together but do not touch; they require voltage-gated ion channels to transfer the AP

A

Chemical synapses

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14
Q

Separation b/t Axon Terminal of Presynaptic neuron & Dendrite of Postsynaptic neuron (therefore need NT to transfer AP)

  • Takes 0.5 m/sec
  • Only synaptic end-bulbs of presynaptic neurons release NT
A

Synaptic cleft
Synaptic delay
One way transmission

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15
Q

Excitatory NT’s

A

Norepinephrine
Glutamate
Nitric Oxide

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16
Q

NT for Brain stem, hypothalamus, etc

A

Norepinephrine

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17
Q

NT for CNS, cerebral cortex

A

Glutamate

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18
Q

NT for Brain (quickly diffuses)

A

nitric oxide

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19
Q

Inhibitory NT’s

A 
Acetylcholine (ACH)
Dopamine
Glycine
GABA
Serotonin
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20
Q

NT for Motor cortex

A

ACH

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21
Q

NT for Substantia nigra (parkinsons)

A

Dopamine

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22
Q

NT for Spinal cord

A

Glycine

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23
Q

NT for Spinal cord, cerebellum, basal ganglia

A

GABA

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24
NT for Brain stem
Serotonin
25
1,000 to 10,000 synapses received (CNS)
Summation
26
Buildup of NT's released to several presynaptic bulbs
Spatial summation
27
NT released to single presynaptic bulb which fires 2x or more
Temporal summation
28
Demyelinating diseases
MS PLS (posterolateral sclerosis) ALS (lou gherigs disease)
29
Myelin is made of...
Fat
30
Terminal bulbs where NT stored
Telodenria
31
Regularly spaced patches of membrane on axon with no insulation whose purpose is to boost signal & prevent decay of AP
Nodes of Ranvier (saltatory conduction) "hopping"
32
Free nerve endings | pain, tickle, itch & temperature
Pain - Nociceptors
33
Location of greatest number of pain nociceptors?
Tip of tongue Lips Genitalia Finger tips
34
Location of least number of pain - nociceptors
Upper arm Buttock Trunk
35
Algesia = ?
Pain
36
Mechanoreceptor: Pressure (encapsulated)
End bulbs of Krause
37
Mechanoreceptors: temperature perception & pressure (encapsulated & multi-branched) 2-5 degrees of perception
Corpuscles of Ruffini
38
Receptor: General touch (ant spinothalamic tract) & Hair follicles NOT encapsulated
Merkel's Disc
39
When Merkel's disc is grouped together it's termed....
Iggo Dome Receptor
40
Receptor: Fine touch (dorsal columns), Located on non-hairy skin (encapsulated)
Meissner's Corpuscles
41
Receptor: Pressure, Vibration (encapsulated) "Phasic receptor" "Quick adaptor"
Pacinian Corpuscles
42
Proprioception Receptors: - Stretch (dynamic & static ONLY in skeletal muscle) - Load or Weight - Prevents excessive tension in a muscle
Muscle Spindles Golgi Tendon Organs Golgi Tendon Reflex
43
ANS: Blood Vessels/Skin - sympathetic? - parasympathetic?
S: Vasoconstricts - shunts blood via vasomotor control to proximal limbs & lungs PS: Little or no effect
44
ANS: Muscle
S: No PS: yes
45
ANS: Heart S? PS?
S: Tachycardia (increases rate) PS: Bradycardia (decreases rate)
46
ANS: Lung/Bronchi S? PS?
S: Deep breaths / Dilates bronchi PS: Shallow breaths / Constrict bronchi
47
ANS: Eyes / Pupils
S: Dilates (Medriasis) PS: Constricts (Meiosis)
48
ANS: GI / Peristalsis / Colon
S: Decreases secretions & digestion PS: Increases secretions & bowel movement activity
49
ANS: Receptors
S: Adrenergic PS: Cholinergic
50
ANS: NT - Preganglionic / Postganglionic
S: Pre - ACH Post - Epi/Norepi PS: ACH
51
Locus ceruleus nucleus (pons) "adrenal glands of the brain" NT?
Epinephrine
52
Quick Quiz: - Influx of sodium - Efflux of sodium - Period after firing when no AP possible (can't be stim again) - AP available w/ increase potential by K+ - Many synapses in single cell - Rapid succession of AP w/ few synapses
``` Depolarization Repolarization Absolute Refractory Period (hyperpolarization) Relative Refractory Period Spatial Summation Temporal Summation ```
53
Binds to & blocks glycine receptors causing massive tetanic contractions; diaphragm cannot "relax", can't breath, DIE!
Strychnine (poisoning)
54
Inhibitory neurons in spinal cord that releases glycine & prevents excessive muscular contraction
Renshaw cells
55
Cerebral Sensory Areas: Somatosensory
Postcentral Gyrus (parietal lobe)
56
Cerebral Sensory Areas: Visual
Occipital lobe, Striate cortex, Calcarine fissure
57
Cerebral Sensory Areas: Auditory
Superior Temporal lobe, Heschl's gyrus
58
Cerebral Sensory Areas: Gustatory
Base of postcentral gyrus
59
Cerebral Sensory Areas: Olfactory
Medial temporal lobe
60
Cerebral Sensory Areas: Wernicke's area
"Receptive" portion of language (Superior Temporal Lobe)
61
Cerebral MOTOR Areas: | - Precentral gyrus (frontal lobe)
Motor
62
Cerebral MOTOR Areas: | - Skilled movements (anterior to motor cortex)
Premotor
63
Cerebral MOTOR Areas: | - "Expressive" portion of language (inf post frontal lobe)
Broca's area
64
``` What is responsible for coordination of muscle contractions? Clinical: - Staccato or slurred speech - Intention tremor - Nystagmus ```
Cerebellum Multiple Sclerosis symptoms
65
Main relay between cortex & spinal cord | "Crude sensation"
Thalamus
66
Controls ANS & Endocrine system Controls body temperature (median eminance), food intake, thirst Functions in rage & aggression Helps maintain waking state & sleep Releases Somatostatin - decrease secretion insulin & glucagon
Hypothalamus
67
Emotional aspects of behavior related to survival | Includes: Fornix, Hippocampus, Cingulate Gyrus, Amygdala, Parahippocampal Gyrus & parts of the Thalamus
Limbic System
68
Part of midbrain the coordinates eyeball movement in response to visual stimuli
Superior colliculi
69
Part of midbrain that coordinates head & trunk auditory stimuli (CN III, IV)
Inferior Colliculus
70
Pneumotaxic & apneustic | Breathing origin of CN V, VI, VII, VIII
Pons
71
Reticular formation (with diencephalon, pons, midbrain) that functions in consciousness & arousal. Vital reflex centers regulate heartbeat, breathing & BV diameter. Coordinates swallowing, vomiting, coughing, sneezing & hicups. Vestibular Nuceli help maintain equilibrium Origin: CN VIII, IX, X, XI, XII
Medulla
72
Dark spots, Aging, Product Oxidation
Lipofuscin
73
Cardiovascular Physiology: - Average bpm? - mL of blood per beat? - Heart is behind...? - Normal BP?
75 bpm 70-80mL of blood per beat Heart behind 2nd - 5th ribs 120/80 normal BP
74
Pacemaker of the heart? Innvervated by....? How does it affect heart rate?
Sinus (SA) Node N: Vagus Nerve (CN X) Decreases heart rate
75
If SA Node dies, what node takes over?
AV Node
76
SA Node prevents _____.
Tetany
77
Parasympathetic innervation to 90% of the body
Vagus (CN X)
78
List the pathway of blood thru the heart.
Superior Vena Cava --- Inferior Vena Cava --- Right Atrium --- Tricuspid Valve --- Right Ventricle --- Pulmonary Valve --- Pulmonary Artery --- Lungs (Deoxygenated blood) Lung capillaries --- Pulmonary Vein --- Left Atrium --- Mitral Valve --- Left Ventricle --- Aorta --- Brain, Heart, Body (oxygenated blood)
79
Nodes & bpm: - SA Node - AV Node - Bundle of HIS - Purkinje Fibers - Bundle Branches
``` SA: 60-80 bpm AV: 40-60 bpm HIS: 20-40 bpm Pur: 0-20 bpm BB: n/a ```
80
Echocardiogram (ECG): - P = phase? - ST = time? - QRS = phase? - T = phase?
``` P = Atrial depolarization ST = .04 to .06 seconds QRS = Ventricle depolarization & Atrial repolarization (obscured) T = Ventricle repolarization ```
81
Describe how the body maintains the resting state of the heart
"PUMP-K-IN" - ATP driven - Na+ out - K+ in - 3 Na+ for every 2 K+
82
``` Depolarization = _____ Repolarization = _____ ```
``` D = Work R = Rest ```
83
Valve Sounds: | Closing of Mitral & Tricuspid (AV Valves)
S1 sound
84
Valve Sounds: | Closing of Aortic & Pulmonic valves (semilunar)
S2 sounds
85
What tests would you do for the following: - Heart - Muscle - Brain
H: EKG, ECG M: EMG B: EEG
86
Contraction of heart
Systole
87
Period of time when heart refills with blood after systole (contraction); period during which ventricle or atrium is relaxing (dilation)
Diastole
88
Diastole murmurs are the most clinically significant: | name them
Aortic Regurgitation Mitral Stenosis Pulmonic Regurgitation Tricuspid Stenosis
89
Mitral Valve regurgitation is loudest at....
Left Ventricle
90
MC valvular heart disease?
Mitral Valve Regurgitation
91
Force exerted by fluid against a wall
Hydrostatic pressure
92
Pressure created by plasma proteins unable to move through the capillary membrane?
Osmotic Pressure
93
Stroke volume increases in response to increase in volume of blood filling the heart
Frank Starlings Law | aka Maestrini heart's law
94
Muscle will increase in size when used
Davis' Law
95
Inversely proportional relationship between absolute pressure & volume of gas, if temp is kept constant within a closed system
Boyle's Law
96
What is the algebraic equation for heart?
pV = k p - pressure of system V - denotes volume of gas k - constant of pressure & volume of system
97
Precursor platelets are...
Megakaryocytes
98
MC type of blood cell whose principle means is delivering oxygen to tissues thru circulatory system.
RBC "Erythrocytes"
99
Cytoplasm of RBC is rich in _____ which binds oxygen & is responsible for blood color
Hemaglobin (15g/100ml) - iron
100
Production of RBCs: - Embryo - Fetus - Adult
E: Yolk Sac F: Liver, Spleen, Lymph, Bone Marrow A: Membranous Bone Marrow
101
Genesis of RBC
Hemocytoblast -- Normoblast -- Reticulocyte (1% blood) -- Erythrocyte (99% blood - no nucleus) "HNRE"
102
Where is Erythropoietin made & what does it stimulate?
Made in Kidney | Stimulates RBC production
103
What is the life expectancy of RBC & where is it recycled?
120 days | Recycled by macrophages in Spleen (heme is saved)
104
CO2 is transported in blood by ...
Plasma Bicarbonate
105
Iron: - transport? - storage? - absorption?
T: Transferrin (Fe +3) S: Ferritin (Fe +3 & apoferritin) A: Fe+2 (requires vitamin C to remain reduced)
106
White blood cells are called _____
Leukocytes
107
White blood cells consist of ...
``` Neutrophils (60%) Lymphocytes (30%) Monocytes (8%) Eosinophils (3%) Basophils (0%) ``` "Never Let My Engine Blow 60-30-8-3-0"
108
Granulocytes consist of...
Basophils Eosinophils Neutrophils "BEN"
109
Agranulocytes consist of...
Lymphocytes | Monocytes
110
Polymorphonuclear Leukocytes (PMN) consist of...
Neutrophils
111
Explain the blood clotting repair from injury
Injury -- Constriction -- Platelet Plug -- Clot -- Repair
112
What is the sequence of blood clotting?
Extrinsic (damaged cells) & Intrinsic (foreign surface) -- Prothrombin activator changes prothrombin into thrombin -- Thrombin changes fibrinogen into fibrin -- Fibrin mixes with RBCs, platelets & plasma forming Blood Clot
113
What are the Clotting Factors:
``` I - Fibrinogen II - Prothrombin III - Thromboplastin IV - Calcium V - Proaccelerin VII - Proconvertin VIII - Antihemophilic (Von Willebrand carrier) IX - Antihemophilic factor B X - Stuart Factor XI - Antihemophilic C XII - Hageman factor, HMW kininogen (Fitzgerald factor), platelets, prekallikrein (Fletcher factor) ```
114
Macrophages in the: - Alveoli - Brain - Liver - Tissue
A: Alveolar macrophages B: Microglial Cells L: Kupffer Cells T: Histiocyte or fixed macrophages
115
Structure: Cell membrane found in skeletal & cardiac muscle
Sarcolemma
116
Structure in skeletal muscle cell that stores Ca++ to be released
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
117
"Telephone" line used to send the AP into the muscle to cause calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
T-tubules
118
Two components of Myofibril
Actin & Myosin
119
Thick, H zone, cross bridges | ATPase attachs to the HEAD
Myosin
120
Thin, F-filament + tropomyosin + troponin (I bands)
Actin
121
Contains the binding sites
F-actin Filament
122
Covers F-actin binding sites
Tropomyosin
123
Binds calcium & moves tropomyosin off binding sites | found in skeletal & cardiac
Troponin
124
What type of muscle consists of actin, myosin & sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Smooth Muscle
125
What is needed for smooth muscle contraction?
Calmodulin
126
Z line to Z line
Sarcomere | cell membrane found in skeletal & cardiac muscle
127
Band that contains both actin & myosin?
A-band
128
Band that contains Myosin only?
H-band
129
Band that contains Actin only?
I-band
130
Muscle lengthens while it contracts
Eccentric
131
Muscle shortens while it contracts
Concentric
132
Muscle contracts without joint movement or muscle lengthening
Isometric
133
Muscle contracts with joint movement & constant weight
Isotonic
134
Muscle contracts with joint movement & constant weight/speed
Isokinetic
135
Single motor neuron & all the muscle fibers it innervates
Motor unit
136
What type of fibers split ATP rapidly?
Fast-twitch (White) muscle fibers
137
Fibers that are Alpha (extrafusal) & Gamma (intrafusal)
Ventral Root fibers
138
What is determined by number of muscle fibers recruited?
Strength of muscle
139
What causes Rigor Mortis after death?
Cross-bridges form but are unable to release
140
Explain how an AP takes place by T-tubles
AP by T-tubles -- SR becomes more permeable to calcium ions & diffuse into sarcoplasm around myofibril -- Calcium binds to Troponin -- Troponin moves Tropomyosin complex to expose active site (F-actin binding site) -- Myosin binds & muscle contraction occurs
141
Spot Quiz: - Calmodulin is needed for ____ - High CPK, ATPase activity is increased: ____ fibers - Low CPK, low ATPase activity: _____ fibers - Impermeable to water
Calmodulin = smooth muscle contraction High = White (fast-twitch) muscles fibers Low = Red (slow-twitch) muscle fibers Ascending Loop of Henle = impermeable to water
142
Spot Quiz: - Abdominal swelling - Fats digested - Whole body edema
Ascites - abdominal swelling Duodenum - fats digested Anasarca - whole body edema
143
Pathway of Blood Flow through the Kidney
Aorta -- Renal A -- Segmental A -- Lobar A -- Arcuate A -- Afferent arteriole -- Glomerulus -- Efferent arteriole -- Peritubular capillaries & Vasa Recta -- Arcuate Vein -- Renal Vein -- Inferior Vena Cava (heart) "A Real Sailor Leaves A.A. & Gets Eloped Per Alices Request IVC"
144
Pathway of Urine Flow
Collecting Duct -- Calyx -- Renal Pelvis -- Ureter -- Bladder -- Urethra
145
Between Renal Capsule & Renal Medulla Forms Renal Columns that extend b/t the pyramids Contains Renal Corpuscles, Renal Tubules & Collecting Ducts
Renal Cortex
146
Portion of Kidney that contains: - Renal Pyramids - Segments of Nephron
Renal Medulla
147
Surround the Apex of Pyramids
Minor Calyx
148
2-3 Minor Calyx merge together to form...
Major Calyx
149
Medullary extension of the Renal Cortex (serves as an anchor)
Renal Column
150
Formed by segments of Nephron | Base faces the Cortex & Apex faces Minor Calyx
Renal Pyramid
151
Location where pyramids empty urine into Minor Calyx
Renal Papilla
152
Funnel-like dilations of proximal part of the Ureter Point of convergence of 2-3 Major Calyx Funnel for Urine to Ureter
Renal Pelvis
153
Propels urine from kidney into bladder & then urethra | MC site for kidney stones
Ureter
154
Functional unit of the Kidney
Nephron
155
Pathway of the Nephron
Afferent Arteriole - increased pressure Glomerulus - filtration Proximal Tubule - reabsorption thru fennestrations (Glu,AA,Na,Cl) Descending Loop of Henle - reabsorption of water Ascending Loop on Henle - reabsorption of Na+ (NO WATER) Distal Tubule - aldosterone reabsorps Na & excretes K; regulates rate of filtration Collecting Duct - ADH controlled water ONLY reabsorption Urine
156
Kidney filtration per day
180 L
157
Part of kidney for FILTRATION
Bowman's Capsule (Glomerulus)
158
Reabsorption (cuboidal cells) thru fenestrations of glucose, AA, Na+ & Cl-
Proximal Tubule (PCT)
159
Cells that form the filtration membrane
Podocytes
160
Counter current concentration
Loop of Henle
161
Thin-walled vessels that parallel loops of henle
Vasa Recta
162
Aldosterone reabsorbs Na+ and secretes K+ | Regulates rate of filtration (along w/JG apparatus, Macula Densa)
Distal Tubule (DCT)
163
What is the % of reabsorption of filtrate in the tubules?
65% by end of PCT | 99% by end of DCT
164
What is the normal Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) & what is it determined by?
120-125 ml/min | Determined by Hydrostatic Pressure
165
Mechanoreceptors for blood pressure at the entrance to afferent arteriole Regulates rate of filtration by releasing _____
Juxtaglomerular Cells (JG) releases Renin
166
Chemoreceptors by JG cells | Regulates rate of filtraion
Macula Densa
167
From Zona Glomerulosa, absorbs Na+, secretes K+ Result of renin-angiotensin system Renin is released from JG apparatus stimulated by a decrease in pressure of afferent arteriole
Aldosterone
168
Made in the kidney, stimulates RBC production
Erythropoietin
169
What is the Angiotensin Story?
Decrease in pressure in Afferent Arteriole causes -- Release of Renin by JG Apparatus (Kidney) -- Renin converts Angiotensinogen (liver protein) into Angiotensin I -- ACE (Lungs) converts Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II -- Angiotensin II causes Vasoconstriction = increase in BP It also stimulates secretion of Aldosterone (Adrenal Cortex) which causes the tubules to reabsorb more Na+ & water = increase BP
170
Protein made by the Liver
Angiotensinogen
171
Enzyme made by the JG cells that converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I
Renin
172
Enzyme made in the lungs that converts Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II
A.C.E. (angiotensin converting enzyme)
173
Explain what Angiotensin II does
Constricts blood vessels (increasing BP directly) | Stimulates release of Aldosterone by adrenal cortex (increases BP by increased Na+ reabsorption in tubules)
174
High pCO2 & Low pH
Respiratory Acidosis
175
Low pCO2 & High pH
Respiratory Alkalosis
176
Low HCO3- & Low pH
Metabolic Acidosis
177
High HCO3- & High pH
Metabolic Alkalosis
178
Common cause of Respiratory Acidosis
Hypoventilation
179
Common cause of Respiratory Alkalosis
Hyperventilation
180
Common cause of Metabolic Acidosis
Diarrhea, ketosis, renal dysfunction
181
Common cause of Metabolic Alkalosis
Drugs, vomiting, diuretics
182
Compensatory mechanisms for: - Respiratory acidosis - Respiratory alkalosis - Metabolic acidosis - Metabolic alkalosis
RAcidosis: increase H+ ions & HCO3- RAlkalosis: decrease H+ ions & HCO3- MAcidosis: Hyperventilation MAlkalosis: Hypoventilation
183
Best ventilation perfusion ration in lungs is in the ...
Hilum | apex has very little
184
Tidal Volume (TV) is
500ml
185
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) is
3100ml
186
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) is
1200ml
187
Residual Volume (RV) is
1200ml
188
Inspiratory capacity (IC) is... | IRV + TV
3600ml
189
Functional Respiratory Capacity (FRC) is... | ERV + RV
2400ml
190
Vital Capacity (VC) is... | IRV + TV + ERV
4800ml
191
Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is... | IRV + TV + ERV + RV
5-6 liters or 6000ml
192
What is made by Type II alveolar cells (aka pneumocytes)
Surfactant
193
What keeps lungs expanded & decreases surface tension?
Lipoprotein
194
Hyaline Membrane Disease is caused by...
No surfactant
195
Inspiration, diaphragm contracts & _____ pressure, air moves into lungs
Decreases
196
Partial Pressure - oxygen concentration in the alveoli is controlled by:
1. Rate of absorption of oxygen into the blood | 2. Rate of entry of new oxygen into lungs by breathing
197
Regulation that turns off inspiratory center before over-expansion of lungs
Pneumotaxic Center
198
Regulation by stretch receptors - bronchi prevents over-stretching of lungs
Herring-Breuer reflex
199
Regulation that prevents the turn off of inspiratory center
Apneustic Center
200
CO2 enters blood stream, causes O2 to dissociate from hemoglobin
Bohr Effect
201
CO2 combines with hemoglobin = more bicarbonate ions
Haldane effect
202
CO2 in blood as HCO3 =
70%
203
CO2 as carbaminohemoglobin =
20%
204
CO2 dissolved in blood =
7-8%
205
Pituitary Gland -- Adenohypophysis: - Portion of Pituitary - Embryology - Connection to Hypothalamus - Location - Hormones
``` Portion: Anterior Pituitary Embryo: Rathke's Pouch Connection: Hypophysial portal system Location: Sella Turcica Hormones: GH (somatotropin) -- TSH -- Prolactin (luteotrophic) -- FSH -- LH -- ACTH -- MSH ```
206
Pituitary Gland -- Neurohypophysis: - Portion of Pituitary - Embryology - Connection to hypothalamus - Location - Hormones
Portion: Posterior Embryo: Neural Ectoderm Connection: Infundibulum (stalk) Location: Sella Turcica Hormones: Vasopressin (ADH) - controls water balance Oxytocin - milk letdown, contracts uterus, suckling
207
Pancreas (tail): - Function - Hormones - Target - Effect
``` Regulates blood sugar Insulin (beta cells, Langerhans) & Glucagon (alpha cells) Many, Liver Decrease blood glucose (insulin) Increase blood glucose (glucose) ```
208
Parathyroid / Vitamin D / Thyroid: - Function - Hormones - Target - Effect
Regulates blood calcium Parathyroid hormone (PTH) & Calcitonin Targets bone - Thyroid puts Ca+ in bone, PT takes it out PTH - increases blood Ca+, decreases phosphorus Calcitonin - decreases blood Ca+, increases phosphorus
209
Calcitonin is secreted by...
Parafollicular (T3&T4 from follicular cells)
210
Adrenal Cortex - Zona Glomerulosa - Function - Hormones - Target - Effect
Regulates salt balance Mineralcorticoids (aldosterone) Kidney Reabsorb Na & Secrete K+ (salt)
211
Adrenal Cortex - Zona Fasciculata - Function - Hormones - Target - Effect
Regulates blood sugar Glucocorticoids (cortisol) Many Increase blood glucose (sweet)
212
Adrenal Cortex - Zona Reticularis - Function - Hormones - Target - Effect
2nd sexual characteristic Androgens (testosterone) Hair Follicles Hair Growth (sex)
213
Adrenal Medulla: - Function - Hormones - Target - Effect
Fight or Flight Medulla, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine *** Chromaffin Cells *** Many Increase heart rate, increase BP, increase blood glucose
214
Mouth: - Function - Enzymes - Affects
``` Starch digestion (mechanical) Ptyalin = Salivary amylase Parotid, Submandibular, Sublingual ```
215
Esophagus: - Function - Enzymes - Cells
Transport No enzymes Many mucus cells
216
Stomach: - Function - Cells & Enzymes
Protein digestion initiated Chief Cells - Pepsinogen G-Cells - Gastrin Parietal Cells (aka oxyntic cells) - HCL / IF
217
What increases the surface area of the stomach?
Rugae
218
Duodenum: - Length - Function - Enzymes - Cells
``` 10-12 inches Fat & Starch digestion Pancreatic lipase & amylase Brunner's cells - secretes alkaline mucus Sphincter of Oddi, CCK, Bicarbonate Transit thru S.I. is 2-4 hours ```
219
Jejunum: - Length - Function - Enzymes
``` 6-10 feet Peptide, disaccharide digestion & absorption Carboxy-peptidase from pancreas Most food digestion is completed here Major reabsorption of water ```
220
Where in the large intestine is most food digestion completed?
Jejunum
221
Where in the large intestine is a major reabsorption of water?
Jejunum
222
Ileum: - Length - Function - Cells
10-15 feet Reabsorption of bile B12 Peyer's Patches - lymphoid tissue
223
Small Intestine: - Length - Function - Cells - Enzymes
20-25 feet Carbohydrate, protein & lipid digestion Crypts of Lieberkuhn's (enzymes), brush border, Plicae circulares Goblet cells, Paneth cells & Argentaffin cells Enzymes: Carboxypeptidase, Aminopeptidase, Dipeptidase, Peptidase, Dextrinase, Glucoamylase, Maltase, etc
224
Gallbladder: - Function - Cells - Enzymes
Stores & concentrates bile Cystic duct + Common Hepatic Duct = Common Bile Duct (empties into Duodenum) Enzymes: LDH, SGPT, SGOT, arginase, alk. phosphatase
225
What causes bile from gallbladder to empty in duodenum? | It also inhibits gastric emptying?
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
226
Pancreas: - Function - Enzymes
Digestive enzymes & produces hormones insulin and glucagon | Enzymes: Pancreatic lipase, amylase, trypsin, chymotrypsin, insulin, glucagon
227
Pancreas: _____ releases bicarbonate juice _____ releases enzyme-rich juice
Secretin | CCK
228
Colon: - Function - Cells - Muscle - Transit time
Water reabsorption & electrolytes Paneth cells (kill bacteria) Bacteria in colon, Taenia Coli (muscle) Transit time thru L.I. is 3-4 days
229
Rectum: - Function - Cells / muscles - Cancer is found in...
Storage for elimination Columns of Morgagni (no taenia coli muscle) Cancer in recto-sigmoid area
230
Liver: - Function - Cells - What cycle is it involved in
Produces, stores & filters (makes bile) Kupffer cells Hepatocyte cells - detoxifies, processes fats & AA, vitamin storage, makes blood proteins Urea Cycle
231
Determined by the size of muscle
Strength
232
Measured by total amount of work in a period of time
Power
233
Measured by nutritive support
Endurance
234
What muscle metabolic systems in exercise provide energy for muscle contractions?
Phosphocreatine-creatine system Glycogen-lactic acid system Aerobic system
235
Decomposes to creatine & phosphate ions, releasing large amounts of energy (10,300 calories)
High energy phosphate bond | creatine phosphate system
236
T/F: Energy transfer from phosphocreatine to ATP occurs quickly (almost instantaneously)
True
237
Cell ATP + phosphocreatine = quick bursts of energy (8-10 sec)
Phosphagen energy system
238
Stored glycogen in muscle split into glucose for energy
Glycogen-lactic acid system
239
Anaerobic metabolism, each glucose molecule split into two pyruvic acid molecules = 4 ATP
Glycolysis
240
Lack of air (anaerobic), pyruvic acid is converted into _____ causing considerable amount of ATP formation (1.3-1.6 min)
Lactic Acid
241
In aerobic oxidation, what does the mitochondria store for energy:
Glucose, fatty acids, carbs, amino acids
242
What is converted to ATP in the aerobic system, and how long does it last?
``` AMP & ADP converted to ATP Unlimited time (as long as nutrients last) ```
243
What fibers are twice as large with forceful, rapid contractions (jumping)
A-fibers (Fast)
244
What fibers are used for endurance, prolonged strength & last minutes to hours
C-fibers (slow)
245
Kidney arises from the posterior _____
Mesoderm
246
Urinary System begins with _______
Kidney (retroperitoneal)
247
What kidney is lower than the other?
Right Kidney is lower than Left Kidney
248
Kidneys are surrounded with a ....
Perirenal Fat Border
249
The Renal Pyramids are located in the:
Medulla
250
pH of Semen
7.2
251
Pathway of Sperm
Seminiferous Tubules -- Rete Testis -- Efferent Ductules -- Head Epididymis -- Tail Epididymis -- Vas Deferens which joins Urethra @ Prostate
252
Spermatogenesis (from outside to inside)
Spermatogonia -- 1* Spermatocyte -- 2* Spermatocyte -- Spermatids -- Spermatozoa
253
Part of Convoluted Seminiferous Tubules that nourish developing sperm thru spermatogenesis - activated by FSH - required for male sexual development
Sertoli Cells
254
Cells that produce Testosterone (androgen) in the presence of LH - Prolactin increases response of these cells to LH by increasing # of LH receptors.
Leydig Cells
255
Hormone that controls Spermatogenesis (where Sertoli cells nurture immature sperm)
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
256
Hormone that causes the secretion of testosterone by Leydig cells
Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
257
Primary reproductive organs of female
Ovaries
258
Ovaries produce what 2 hormones:
Estrogen & Progesterone
259
What ligament anchors the ovaries medially to uterus?
Ovarian Ligament
260
What ligament anchors the ovaries laterally to the pelvic wall
Suspensory Ligament
261
Strongest ligament that supports uterine tubes, uterus & vagina
Broad Ligament
262
What hormone: - Enlargement of uterus (increases in pregnancy) - Maintains & prevents degeneration of reproductive organs - Secreted by Corpus Luteum in first 1/2 of cycle - Responsible for Proliferation (nongravid uterus)
Estrogen
263
What hormone: - Secreted by Corpus Luteum in second 1/2 of cycle - Increases in pregnancy - Secreted in nongravid uterus
Progesterone
264
What Hormone: | - Matures follicle & proliferation in nongravid uterus
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
265
What Hormone: | - Stimulates pre-ovulating follicle causing rupture of follicle & ovulation (secretory phase of endometrium)
Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
266
What Hormone: - Maintains Corpus Luteum - Most frequently detected in home pregnancy tests
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
267
Phosphagen system is used in what sports:
100 meter dash Weight lifting Diving Football dashes (8-10 seconds)
268
Phosphagen & Glycogen system is used in what sports:
200 meter dash Basketball Baseball home run Ice hockey dashes
269
Glycogen-lactic acid system is used in what sports:
400 meter swim Tennis Soccer (1.3-1.6 minutes)
270
Glycogen, Lactic Acid & Aerobic Systems are used in what sports:
``` 800 meter dash 1 mile run 200 & 400 meter swim 1500 meter skating & running Boxing 2000 meter rowing ```
271
Aerobic system is used in what sports:
10,000 meter skate Cross country skiing Marathon run (26+ miles) Jogging

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