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Next Gen Exam 1 > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

Covers - Puberty - Reproductive Endocrinology and Regulation - Gametogenesis & Spermatogenesis - Oogenesis - Reproductive Cycle Phases - Ruminant/Porcine Cycles - Small Animal Cycles - Equine Cycles - Fertilization - Genetics - Placentation - Maternal Recognition of Pregnancy

1
Q

What is gametogenesis?

A

(Production of gametes from haploid precursor cells)

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2
Q

(T/F) Mitosis results in a diploid daughter cell that is genetically identical to the diploid parent cell.

A

(T)

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3
Q

(T/F) Meiosis optimally results in 4 haploid daughter cells that are genetically distinct from their diploid parent cell.

A

(T)

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4
Q

How many functional spermatozoa are formed from one spermatocyte?

A

(4)

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5
Q

How many functional gametes are formed from one oocyte?

A

(1 and two nonfunctional polar bodies)

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6
Q

Why does spermatogenesis produce four potentially functional gametes per original spermatocyte but oogenesis only produces one?

A

(Bc the cytokinesis that occurs with oogenesis is unequal so one cell gets a majority of the cytoplasm and the other does not, forming a polar body; cytokinesis is equal in spermatogenesis)

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7
Q

What is the term for the release of fully-formed sperm into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules?

A

(Spermiation)

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8
Q

What is spermatogenesis?

A

(Production of sperm from a primordial germ cell)

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9
Q

What cells of the testes provide the blood-testis barrier (BTB) whose purpose is to protect developing germ cells from external insults and the immune system?

A

(The sertoli aka sustentacular cells)

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10
Q

What does the androgen binding protein that is produced by sertoli cells do?

A

(Binds large amounts of testosterone, which is necessary to stimulate spermatogenesis)

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11
Q

What do sertoli cells do with the large amounts of testosterone that they bind?

A

(Form estradiol which then ‘directs’ spermatogenesis)

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12
Q

What do the interstitial/leydig cells produce testosterone in response to?

A

(Luteinizing hormone)

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13
Q

(T/F) By the time sperm reaches the epididymis, the spermatozoa are fully mature.

A

(F, full maturation takes place once the sperm reaches the epididymis)

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14
Q

What is the term for the temporary remnant of the cytoplasmic bridges between developing spermatids that are now singular spermatozoa?

A

(Cytoplasmic droplet)

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15
Q

Where within the epididymis do spermatozoa both morphologically (removal of the cytoplasmic droplet) and physiologically (acquiring motility and penetrability) mature?

A

(The body)

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16
Q

Where within the epididymis are fully mature spermatozoa stored?

A

(The tail)

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17
Q

(T/F) Fetal primary oocytes complete meiosis I and then enter meiosis II but then arrest development until puberty.

A

(F, development arrests after they enter into meiosis I)

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18
Q

What are formed from primary oocytes that resume development and complete meiosis I?

A

(Secondary oocytes)

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19
Q

Where within the body do primary oocytes complete meiosis I and become secondary oocytes (in all species but the bitch)?

A

(The ovaries)

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20
Q

Secondary oocytes do not complete meiosis II unless what event takes place?

A

(Fertilization)

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21
Q

How can you tell microscopically if a secondary oocyte was fertilized and completed meiosis II?

A

(There will be two polar bodies present instead of just one)

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22
Q

What is the term for an arrested primary oocyte surrounded by a simple squamous layer of ovarian (follicular) cells?

A

(Primordial follicle)

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23
Q

What is the term for an arrested primary oocyte surrounded by a cuboidal layer of granulosa cells?

A

(Primary follicle)

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24
Q

What distinguishes a primary follicle from a secondary follicle in terms of the granulosa cells?

A

(Primary - one layer of cuboidal granulosa cells; secondary - multiple layers of granulosa cells)

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25
Q

What distinguishes a primary follicle from a secondary follicle in terms of the theca layer?

A

(Primary - theca is forming, not split into interna and externa; secondary - theca has specialized into interna and externa)

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26
Q

What is the defining feature of a mature aka graafian follicle?

A

(The ‘giant’ antrum; granulosa cells will be restricted to a relatively thin stratified cuboidal layer at the periphery of the large antrum)

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27
Q

At what approximate age do male canines reach puberty?

A

(9 months → very breed dependent tho)

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28
Q

At what approximate age do female canines reach puberty?

A

(12 months → very breed dependent tho)

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29
Q

At what approximate age do male felines reach puberty?

A

(9 months)

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30
Q

At what approximate age do female felines reach puberty?

A

(8 months; range is 4-12 months d/t seasonal effects but average is 8 months)

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31
Q

At what approximate age do male equids reach puberty?

A

(14 months)

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32
Q

At what approximate age do female equids reach puberty?

A

(18 months)

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33
Q

At what approximate age do male pigs reach puberty?

A

(7 months)

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34
Q

At what approximate age do female pigs reach puberty?

A

(6 months)

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35
Q

At what approximate age do male sheep/goats reach puberty?

A

(7 months)

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36
Q

At what approximate age do female sheep/goats reach puberty?

A

(7 months; range is 4-14 months d/t seasonal effects but average is 7 months)

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37
Q

At what approximate age do female cows reach puberty?

A

(11 months)

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38
Q

At what approximate age do male cows reach puberty?

A

(11 months)

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39
Q

Which sex has a surge center?

A

(Females)

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40
Q

What hormone is necessary to defeminize the male surge center?

A

(Estradiol; testosterone crosses the BBB in males and is converted into estradiol in the brain, this does not occur in females)

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41
Q

(T/F) After female puberty, their basal level of GnRH released from the tonic center is higher than the basal level was in the prepubertal stage.

A

(T)

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42
Q

What is the surge center of the hypothalamus responsible for in females who have reached puberty?

A

(Preovulatory surge of GnRH (and subsequently LH))

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43
Q

What percentage of an animal’s mature body weight do they typically need to be to reach puberty?

A

(40-50% of their mature body weight)

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44
Q

(T/F) Female cows born to male cattle with a larger scrotum will reach puberty faster than females cows born to male cattle with a smaller scrotum.

A

(T)

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45
Q

Do heifers born in the fall or spring reach puberty earlier?

A

(Heifers born in the fall)

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46
Q

Do spring or fall born lambs come into puberty earlier?

A

(Spring, they will come into puberty the fall of the same year they were born whereas fall born lambs will not come into puberty until the next fall a year later)

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47
Q

The increase in photoperiods in January/February prompts the onset of puberty in which species?

A

(Cats)

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48
Q

The HPG axis (hypothalamus-pituitary-gonad axis) is considered mature when it becomes responsive to which hormone?

A

(Estrogen)

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49
Q

Where is follicular stimulating hormone produce?

A

(Anterior pituitary)

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50
Q

Primary follicles slightly increase in size and cells proliferate around them which indicates when they become secondary follicles, what type of cells are the ones that proliferate around the follicle?

A

(Granulosa cells)

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51
Q

FSH stimulates the granulosa cells of secondary follicles to release follicular fluid, what does this process form (hint: another stage of follicle)?

A

(Antral follicles)

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52
Q

Which of the cell layers of the antral follicles (granulosa cells, theca interna, or theca externa) are responsible for production of androgens under the influence of luteinizing hormone?

A

(Theca interna)

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53
Q

Besides the follicular fluid that led to the development of secondary follicles into antral follicles, what else does the granulosa cell layer produce (hint: both answers are hormones)? Two answers.

A

(Estrogen and inhibin)

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54
Q

What occurs to dominate follicles if there are high levels of progesterone in the system?

A

(They will undergo atresia)

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55
Q

What type of hormones are cholesterol based, and therefore production of them is dependent on diet?

A

(Steroid hormones)

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56
Q

All hormone receptors are what type of molecule?

A

(Proteins)

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57
Q

Where are steroid hormone receptors located in relation to the target cell?

A

(Cytoplasm or nucleus)

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58
Q

What cells of the gonads, male and female, produce estrogen?

A

Female - granulosa cells; male - sertoli cells

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59
Q

Where is estrogen produced in the body? Two answers.

A

(Gonads (specifically the granulosa cells of the follicle and the sertoli cells of the testis) and the placenta; Dr. Cecere also mentioned the adrenals so that is also a correct answer)

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60
Q

Where is progesterone produced in the body? Two answers.

A

(Corpus luteum and placenta)

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61
Q

Where is testosterone produced in a male versus female?

A

(Male - leydig cells; female - theca interna of follicle)

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62
Q

Where are peptide-protein hormone receptors located in relation to the target cell?

A

(Cell surface/transmembrane)

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63
Q

Which cells of the testes are responsive to FSH and secrete inhibin?

A

(Sertoli cells)

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64
Q

Which cells of the testes are responsive to LH and secrete testosterone?

A

(Leydig cells)

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65
Q

What gonadal hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum?

A

(Progesterone)

66
Q

Do high or low levels of estrogen have a positive feedback on GnRH, FSH, and LH secretion from the hypothalamus/pituitary?

A

(Low levels of estrogen)

67
Q

What hormone does inhibin have a negative feedback on?

A

(FSH)

68
Q

Does progesterone have negative or positive feedback on GnRH, FSH, and LH?

A

(Negative)

69
Q

(T/F) High levels of gonadotropins indicates a lack of gonad.

A

(T, due to a lack of feedback from the gonads being present)

70
Q

What is the primary action of prostaglandin F2a?

A

(Luteolysis aka starts the cycle over again when not pregnant)

71
Q

What effect does the administration of prostaglandin have on the length of the estrous cycle?

A

(It shortens it)

72
Q

What stage of the estrous cycle is prolonged by successful fertilization and pregnancy?

A

(Diestrus)

73
Q

What is occurring to the corpus luteum during proestrus?

A

(It is regressing → progesterone levels fall below 1 ng/ml)

74
Q

What is occurring to estrogen levels during proestrus?

A

(They are rising)

75
Q

The dominant follicle produces the maximum amount of estrogen it can during estrus, what effect does this have on luteinizing hormone production?

A

(High levels of estrogen induces an LH surge which then triggers ovulation)

76
Q

Once ovulation has occurred, what hormone stimulates the transition of granulosa and theca cells of the dominant follicle into luteal cells?

A

(Luteinizing hormone)

77
Q

What is the purpose of the increase in follicle stimulating hormone that occurs following ovulation of a dominant follicle?

A

(To stimulate a new wave of follicular development)

78
Q

What is the dominant hormone of diestrus?

A

(Progesterone)

79
Q

Cows are monestrous/polyestrous/seasonally polyestrous (choose one) and have a _____ day estrous cycle.

A

(Polyestrous, 21 day estrous cycle)

80
Q

(T/F) Metestral bleeding is normal in cows and occurs the day after ovulation.

A

(T)

81
Q

Listed below are different behaviors/physiologic characteristics that change in a cow when she is in estrus; give the change in those behaviors/physiologic characteristics that you would expect to occur.

  • Locomotive activity
  • Feed intake and milk yield
  • Body temperature
A
  • Locomotive activity (Increase, 2-5 fold)
  • Feed intake and milk yield (Decrease slightly, this is not a consistent finding)
  • Body temperature (Increase, expected increase is half a degree in C)
82
Q

What season do mares experience anestrus naturally?

A

(Winter, typically November - February/March)

83
Q

Is the length of estrus for mares longer or shorter later in spring?

A

(Shorter, will start longer in the early spring and decrease in length as spring progresses)

84
Q

Ewes and does are short/long day breeders.

A

(Short, experience anestrus during the summer months)

85
Q

How do the lengths of the estrous cycle of ewes and does compare?

A

(Ewes → 17 days; does - 21 days)

86
Q

(T/F) Female dogs ovulate primary oocytes while other species ovulate secondary oocytes.

A

(T)

87
Q

What is the cardinal behavioral sign of estrus in cows?

A

(Standing to be mounted)

88
Q

What is the normal estrous cycle length for a cow?

A

(21 days)

89
Q

What is the dominant hormone of proestrus in a cow?

A

(Estrogen)

90
Q

What is the dominant hormone of estrus in a cow?

A

(Estrogen)

91
Q

What stage of estrous starts after ovulation in a cow?

A

(Metestrus)

92
Q

On what day of a cow’s estrous cycle will the uterus release PGF to lyse the corpus luteum?

A

(Day 16)

93
Q

The corpus luteum is not responsive to PGF prior to what day of a cow’s estrous cycle?

A

(Day 5)

94
Q

What is the dominant hormone in a bitch who is in proestrus?

A

(Estrogen)

95
Q

What are the physical changes associated with proestrus in a bitch? Two answers.

A

(Turgid swelling of the vulva and hemorrhagic vulvar discharge)

96
Q

Will a bitch be positively responsive to a dog during proestrus?

A

(No)

97
Q

When a bitch is in estrus, estrogen is decreasing/increasing while progesterone is decreasing/increasing.

A

(Estrogen is decreasing while progesterone is increasing)

98
Q

When do progesterone levels peak during diestrus and after ovulation in a bitch?

A

(25-35 days, ~ halfway through diestrus)

99
Q

What hormone takes over for progesterone in the second half of diestrus that is necessary to maintain the corpus luteum for both bitches and queens?

A

(Prolactin)

100
Q

What is the minimum and maximum time period for the interestrus interval in a bitch?

A

(Minimum is 4 months and maximum is 12 months)

101
Q

What effect does melatonin have on the release of GnRH that results in horses being long day breeders?

A

(Melatonin blocks release of GnRH so when there is more melatonin in the system during shorter days (i.e. the winter), GnRH is blocked and mares are in anestrus)

102
Q

What feedback (positive or negative) does progesterone have on luteinizing hormone?

A

(Negative feedback)

103
Q

What is the uterine and cervical tone during diestrus in a mare?

A

(Firm; there is also no uterine edema)

104
Q

Does LH peak before or after ovulation in mares?

A

(After)

105
Q

What is the uterine and cervical tone during estrus in a mare?

A

(Uterine - moderately firm d/t edema; cervical - soft/relaxed)

106
Q

What estrous cycle related events indicate the beginning and end of diestrus in a mare?

A

(Beginning is ovulation, end is luteolysis)

107
Q

Dominant follicles release estrogen which has positive/negative (choose one) feedback on LH and positive/negative (choose one) feedback on FSH.

A

(Positive feedback on LH, negative feedback on FSH)

108
Q

Beside estrogen, what hormone is released by dominant follicles that has a negative feedback on FSH?

A

(Inhibin)

109
Q

What estrous cycle related events indicate the beginning and end of estrus in a mare?

A

(Beginning is luteolysis (release of prostaglandin, decrease in progesterone) and end is ovulation)

110
Q

What is the dominant structure on the ovary during estrus?

A

(Dominant follicle)

111
Q

What is the dominant structure on the ovary during diestrus?

A

(Corpus luteum)

112
Q

How many days should you wait to administer PGF/ a PGF analog to a mare who was accidentally exposed to a stallion?

A

(At least 14 days)

113
Q

What is deslorelin/sucromate and what is its purpose?

A

(GnRH analog, purpose is to induce ovulation)

114
Q

Where (anatomical location) is semen deposited in ruminants and cats?

A

(The vagina)

115
Q

Where (anatomical location) is semen deposited in pigs?

A

(Cervix)

116
Q

Where (anatomical location) is semen deposited in dogs and equids?

A

(Uterus)

117
Q

Once in the uterus, estrogen induces peristaltic waves that transport sperm to accumulate where within the female reproductive tract?

A

(At the UTJ/uterotubal junction; sperm then binds to the epithelium there and are slowly released to the oviduct)

118
Q

Where does sperm capacitation occur?

A

(Sperm capacitation cannot occur until the sperm is within the female reproductive tract (besides in vitro))

119
Q

What does sperm capacitation do to the lifespan of a sperm?

A

(It dramatically shortens it)

120
Q

What does sperm capacitation do to the motility of a sperm?

A

(Progresses it, they become hypermotile)

121
Q

What occurs to the caltrin, which is a protein that is added to sperm by vesicular secretions to block calcium transport, during sperm capacitation?

A

(It is removed; sperm is now able to bring calcium into itself)

122
Q

When do capacitated sperm undergo their acrosome reaction?

A

(When they bind to the zona pellucida of an oocyte)

123
Q

What is the purpose of exposing the acrosin within the sperm cell?

A

(The acrosin digests a pathway through the zona pellucida to allow for sperm penetration into the oocyte)

124
Q

What effect do the proteases released by the cortical granules of the oocyte (which is the cortical reaction) have on the zona pellucida?

A

(Renders the zona resistant to acrosin digestion (which is the zona reaction), purpose is to block polyspermy)

125
Q

What triggers the cortical reaction, which is the exocytosis of oocyte cortical granules, resulting in a polyspermy block?

A

(An influx of cytoplasmic calcium that is triggered upon sperm-egg binding)

126
Q

What is the term for when the male and female pronuclei reach the center of the ovum and their pronuclear envelopes disappear allowing the two genomes to become one?

A

(Syngamy)

127
Q

What is the term for the structure that results from the blastomeres producing cell adhesion molecules on their surface that occurs at some point between the 8 and 16 cell embryo stage (depending on species)?

A

(A morula)

128
Q

What’s the difference between hereditary and congenital traits?

A

(Hereditary - something that is passed generation to generation; congenital - a trait that is present at birth, this could be something that has no relation to genetics)

129
Q

What is the term for the environmental influence on how genes are expressed?

A

(Epigenetics)

130
Q

(T/F) Carriers of recessive genes (Aa) are much more common than recessive homozygotes (aa).

A

(T)

131
Q

How many phenotypes are associated with incomplete dominance of a gene?

A

(Three; AA is equal to one thing, aa is equal to one thing, and Aa is equal to a mixture of the phenotypes for AA and aa)

132
Q

What is a good example of codominance (at least in the human population)?

A

(Blood type; codominance is full express of each allele so for the example of blood type, type ABs have both A and B receptors on their blood cells so both A and B genes are fully expressed)

133
Q

What is the term for a genotype at one locus masking the expression of a second locus?

A

(Epistasis; the gene that is masking the other is the epistatic gene while the gene being masked is the hypostatic gene)

134
Q

What type of genetic mutations shift the reading frame of the genome, which can invalidate transcription of the entire genome?

A

(Deletions or insertions)

135
Q

What is the difference between missense and nonsense point mutations?

A

(Missense - transcripts the wrong amino acids; nonsense - transcripts a stop codon)

136
Q

How does inbreeding (breeding first degree relatives; parent to offspring or siblings) affect the following:

  • Tends to make things homozygous or heterozygous
  • Increases or decreases predictability
  • Increases or decreases viability
A
  • Tends to make things homozygous or heterozygous (Homozygous)
  • Increases or decreases predictability (Increases)
  • Increases or decreases viability (Decreases)
137
Q

How does outbreeding and crossbreeding (mating unrelated animals within a single breed/mating between breeds) affect the following:

  • Tends to make things homozygous or heterozygous
  • Increases or decreases predictability
  • Increases or decreases viability
A
  • Tends to make things homozygous or heterozygous (Heterozygous)
  • Increases or decreases predictability (Decreases)
  • Increases or decreases viability (Increases; ‘crossbreeding depression’ is a thing in future generations)
138
Q

What is the term for the process by which the embryo becomes completely embedded within the endometrial connective tissue, which occurs in rodents and primates?

A

(Implantation)

139
Q

(T/F) Except in carnivores, placentation is non-invasive in domestic animals.

A

(T)

140
Q

(T/F) Normally, fetal and maternal blood never mix, regardless of species.

A

(T)

141
Q

What is the purpose of the yolk sac?

A

(To provide nutrition very early in the life of an embryo; it regresses and is mostly a remnant in mammals by early gestation)

142
Q

Which of the following is not one of the purposes of the amnion and its contained amniotic fluid?

A. Cushions the embryo
B. Prevents the embryo/fetus from sticking to the amniotic wall
C. Provides nutrition early in the embryos life
D. Provides medium from free movement

A

(C)

143
Q

What is the term for the membrane that immediately surrounds the embryo/fetus and which contains fluid within it?

A

(Amnion, fluid contained is amniotic fluid)

144
Q

Of the species listed below, which rely primarily on placenta progesterone? (Dr. Faux q)

Mare
Cow
Sow
Bitch
Ewe
Queen
Doe

A

(Mare and ewe)

145
Q

Of the species listed below, which rely primarily on CL progesterone? (Dr. Faux q)

Mare
Cow
Sow
Bitch
Ewe
Queen
Doe

A

(Doe and sow)

146
Q

Of the species listed below, which rely on placental and CL progesterone?

Mare
Cow
Sow
Bitch
Ewe
Queen
Doe

A

(Cow, bitch, and queen)

147
Q

What hormone released from the placenta promotes endometrial growth, suppresses myometrial contraction, and promotes mammary alveolar development?

A

(Progesterone)

148
Q

What is the purpose of equine chorionic gonadotropin, which is secreted from endometrial cups that develop in mares around 35 days into gestation?

A

(Play a role in preventing rejection of the fetus by the mare’s immune system)

149
Q

What hormones released from the placenta promote myometrial growth, uterine vascular proliferation, and mammary ductal growth?

A

(Placental estrogens)

150
Q

Give the gestation length for the species listed below in approximate months.

Cow
Mare
Ewe
Sow
Bitch/queen

A

Cow (9 months)
Mare (11 months)
Ewe (5 months)
Sow (3 months)
Bitch/queen (2 months)

151
Q

What is the primary purpose of maternal recognition of a fetus?

A

(To prevent the body from lysing the CL which is releasing progesterone which is important for the pregnancy)

152
Q

In the cow, the conceptus enters the uterus at approximately day 5/6 and maternal recognition of pregnancy occurs around day 15-18, what protein is used for MRP?

A

(Bovine interferon tau)

153
Q

A hormonal signal has not been identified for maternal recognition in mares. What instead indicates when the embryo becomes fixed (and this is, I guess, considered successful maternal recognition)?

A

(Embryo motility; will be very motile from days 11-16 and then become fixed on day 16)

154
Q

At maternal recognition of pregnancy in a sow, how many embryos need to be in each uterine horn?

A

(4 total embryos, 2 in each uterine horn)

155
Q

What hormone is used to send the signal from the embryo in sows for maternal recognition?

A

(Estradiol; causes PGF to be released intraluminally instead of intravenously)

156
Q

Are LH levels low or high during pregnancy?

A

(Low)

157
Q

Of the species listed below which are luteal independent and which are luteal dependent for their source of progesterone throughout pregnancy?

Cow
Queen
Doe
Mare
Sow
Ewe
Bitch

A

(Luteal independent - cow, ewe, and mare; luteal dependent - doe, sow, bitch, and queen)

158
Q

What is the purpose of the equine chorionic gonadotropin that is released from the endometrial cups in mares?

A

(To make secondary corpus lutea to produce progesterone, eCG has ‘LH like’ effects in the mare)

159
Q

What cells of the gonads, male and female, produce estrogen?

A

Female - granulosa cells; male - sertoli cells

160
Q

What are produced from haploid precursor cells in gametogenesis?

A

Gametes

161
Q

What is the term for the process by which gametes are formed from haploid precursor cells?

A

Gametogenesis

162
Q

What is spermiation?

A

The release of fully-formed sperm into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules

Next Gen Exam 1 (5 decks)

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