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Physiology Flashcards

(106 cards)

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1
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle?

A

Skeletal
Cardiac
Smooth

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2
Q

Which muscles are striated?

A

Skeletal

Cardiac

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3
Q

What kind of nerve control is the skeletal muscle under?

A

Somatic nervous system therefore it is voluntary

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4
Q

Which is thin - actin or myosin?

A

Actin

Appears lighter.

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5
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

Single motor neurone and all the skeletal muscle fibres it innervates

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6
Q

True or False

The number of muscle fibres per motor neurone rise as the muscle performs finer movements.

A

False.

Fine movements require fewer fibres per motor unit.

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7
Q

Describe the levels of organisation in a skeletal muscle.

A

Muscle –>
Muscle fibre –>
myofibril –>
Sarcomere –> actin and myosin

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8
Q

True or False.

There are gap junctions in skeletal muscle.

A

False.

There are NO gap junctions.

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9
Q

Where does the Ca++ ions for contraction come from in skeletal muscle?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Released when the AP reaches the T tubules

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10
Q

Which muscle has intercalated discs?

A

cardiac muscle

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11
Q

What is excitation contraction coupling?

A

When the action potential causes the muscles to contract.

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12
Q

What attaches a skeletal muscle to bone?

A

Tendons

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13
Q

What lies between 2 Z lines?

A

Sarcomere

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14
Q

What are the 4 zones of the sarcomere?

A

A band
H zone
M line
I band

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15
Q

What is in the A band?

A

A for all.

Actin and myosin.

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16
Q

What is in the H band?

A

This is within the A band.

There are no actin filaments here - only myosin

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17
Q

What is the M line?

A

Vertical line within the H zone of the A band

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18
Q

What is an I band?

A

Beside the A band.

No myosin, only actin.

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19
Q

How is muscle tension produced?

A

Actin filaments sliding over myosin filaments

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20
Q

What is ATP required for?

A

Contraction and relaxation.

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21
Q

What is Ca++ needed for?

A

Ca++ binds to troponin which causes the troponin to move to uncover the binding sites on actin.

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22
Q

How is the muscle relaxed?

A

ATP is needed to remove the Ca++ from troponin to close the cross bridge.

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23
Q

What factors affect the tension of a contracting muscle?

A

Frequency of stimulation
Length of muscle fibre
Thickness of muscle fibre

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24
Q

What is tentanus?

A

A maximal strained contraction after the muscle does not have time to relax

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25
What might happen if a second AP is introduced after the refractory period?
A second twitch will be summated
26
Why can cardiac muscle not be tetanised?
Cardiac muscle has a long refractory period
27
What is the optimal length of a muscle?
The resting length of a skeletal muscle
28
What is an isotonic contraction?
Used for moving objects and general body movements
29
What affect does isotonic contraction have on muscle length?
Muscle length changes
30
What is an isometric contraction?
Used for supporting objects in fixed positions and maintaining posture
31
What affect does isometric contraction have on muscle length?
Muscle length stays the same
32
How is muscle tension transmitted to bone?
By elastic components i.e. tendons and connective tissue
33
True or False. | A stronger muscle will have more muscle fibres
True. | To obtain more precise movements there are less fibres
34
What is the velocity of muscle shortening?
How fast the muscle can revert back to its original length
35
What makes the velocity of shortening zero?
If the load is maximum i.e. carrying something heavy. | Muscle cannot shorten if it is being used.
36
What is a reflex?
A reflex is a stereotyped response to a specific stimulus
37
What is a stretch reflex?
Serves as a negative feedback that resists passive change in muscle length to maintain optimal resting length
38
When is the stretch reflex used?
To maintain posture.
39
What is the sensory receptor involved in the stretch reflex?
The muscle spindle. | It is activated by muscle stretch
40
How does the stretch reflex work?
Stretching the muscle spindle increases firing in the afferent neurons. These synapse in the spinal cord with the alpha motor neurones that innervate the stretched muscle.
41
Which peripheral nerve is affected by the knee jerk reflex?
Femoral nerve of L3, L4
42
Which peripheral nerve is affected by the ankle nerve reflex?
Tibial nerve of S1, S2
43
What is a muscle spindle?
Sensory receptor for stretch reflex
44
What is an intrafusal fibre?
A muscle spindle
45
What are annulospiral fibres?
The sensory nerve endings on muscle spindles
46
What are the motor nerves which supply the muscle spindles calledd?
Gamma motor neurones
47
True or False | Each motor unit contains one type of muscle fibre
True.
48
What are the metabolic pathways which supply the muscle fibre with ATP?
Oxidative phosphorylation | Glycolysis (anaerobic)
49
What are the 3 types of skeletal muscle fibres?
``` Type I (slow oxidative) Type IIa (fast oxidative) Type IIb (fast glycolytic) ```
50
When are type I muscles used?
Prolonged, low work aerobic activities. Walking
51
When are type IIa muscles used?
Both aerobic and anaerobic e.g. jogging
52
When are type IIb muscles used?
Anerobic metabolism. | Jumping, sprinting.
53
What are the 3 types of joint?
Synovial Fibrous Cartilaginous
54
What is an example of a fibrous joint?
Bones of the skull
55
What are some examples of a cartilaginous joint?
Intervertebral discs Pubic symphsis Costochondral joints
56
What is the other name for a synovial joint?
Diathrosis
57
What is the other name for a cartilaginous joint?
Amphiarthrosis
58
What is the other name for a fibrous joint?
Synarthrosis
59
What produces synovial fluid?
Fibroblasts
60
What are the articular surfaces of the bone covered with?
Hyaline cartilage
61
What is a compound synovial joint?
More than one pair of articular surfaces involved
62
What is synovium?
Provides joint lubrication. | Formed from hyaluronic acid.
63
What does synovial fluid do?
Supplies the chrondrocytes with oxygen and nutrients | Lubrication and facilitates joint movements.
64
True or False | The synovial present at birth is present to death
False. | Constantly being replenished by the synovial membrane
65
What colour is normal synovial fluid?
Colourless and clear
66
When could synovial fluid be red?
Trauma (if you've done the tap badly) | Haemorrhagic arthritis
67
When would the WBC count in synovial fluid rise?
Inflammatory and septic arthritis.
68
What are the 3 layers of articular cartilage?
Superficial Middle Deep
69
What type of collagen is hyaline cartilage majoritively made of?
Type II
70
What is the majority of hyaline cartilage made of?
Water. | Water content decreases with age
71
What role does proteoglycan play in cartilage?
10% of weight. Most found in the middle and deep zone. Responsible for the compressive properties with load bearing
72
Which cells synthesise the cartilage ECM?
Chondrocytes
73
Where do chondrocytes get their nutrients from since the cartilage is avascular?
Synovial fluid.
74
What catabolic (breaking down) factors can affect cartilage matrix turnover?
TNF alpha IL1 These inhibit proteoglycan synthesis
75
What anabolic (building up) factors can affect cartilage matrix turnover?
tumour growth factor beta (TGF beta) | Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1)
76
What are common markers to check cartilage degradation?
Synovial keratin sulphate | Synovial Type II collagen
77
What is a nociceptor?
Peripheral primary sensory afferent neurones which are activated by intense stimuli.
78
What provides joint lubrication?
Synovium which comes from hyaluronic acid.
79
What is hyaluronic acid?
A disaccharide polymer
80
Why does synovial fluid have a high viscosity?
Mucin of hyaluronic acid
81
True or False | There are many cells present in synovial fluid
False. There are few cells. These would be monocytes.
82
True or False | Joint movement increases viscosity.
False. | Joint movement DECREASES viscosity
83
When could the synovial fluid appear opaque?
In sepsis
84
What factors would cause the turnover of cartilage to decrease?
Proteolytic enzymes such as collagenase
85
What crystals cause gout?
Uric acid
86
What crystals cause pseudogout?
Calcium pyrophosphate
87
What are nociceptors?
Peripheral primary sensor neurones which are activated by intense stimuli
88
What kind of stimuli affect nociceptors?
Extremes of temperature Intense mechanical force Chemical irritants Of high threshold
89
True or False. | Nociceptive pain is adaptive and initiates a withdrawal reflex
True. | It needs an immediate response.
90
What is allodynia?
Innocuous stimuli causes pain. | Such as an unexpected touch
91
What is pain hypersensitivity?
Heightened sense of pain
92
In what circumstances is inflammatory pain brought into play?
the healing of a damaged body part since it discourages physical contact and movement
93
What can be used to alleviate inflammatory pain?
NSAIDs
94
What is pathological pain?
Maladaptive i.e. always painful
95
What are the two types of pathological pain?
neurological and dysfunctional
96
Describe neurological pain
Pain which results from a previous injury and is due to peripheral nerve damage
97
Describe dysfunctional pain
Positive pain symptoms but seemingly no cause.
98
What are the two types of nociceptor?
Adelta fibres | C fibres
99
Describe A delta nociceptors
Myelinated thermal/mechanical receptors. | Fast acting.
100
What kind of pain is describe that is elicited by A delta fibres?
Stabbing | Well localised
101
Describe C fibres
Unmyelinated which respond later to all stimuli.
102
What kind of pain is transmitted by C fibres?
Throbbing, aching, burning.
103
What does substance P do?
Vasodilation | Extravasation of plasma proteins e.g. histamine, bradykinin, prostaglandin
104
What is the primary neurotransmitter between the primary afferent and second order neurone?
Glutamate
105
Where are the primary afferent cell bodies located?
Dorsal root ganglia
106
Where do the axons terminate?
The dorsal horn of the spinal cord in laminae of Rexed

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