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CSCS > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Best VO2 Rate for mobilizing Fat?

A
  • 30%
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2
Q

From External to Internal, name the tissue covering skeletal muscle

A
  • Epimysium- Surrounds whole muscle
  • Perimysium- Surrounds bundles of mm
  • Endomysium- Surrounds individual mm fiber
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3
Q

What is the A Band of a Sarcomere?

A
  • The alignment of myosin filaments (some overlap with actin)
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4
Q

What is the I Band of a Sarcomere?

A
  • The area in two adjacent sarcomeres where only Actin is present
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5
Q

What is the Z Line of a Sarcomere?

A
  • In the middle the I Band

- The “wall” of the sarcomere which separates it from the adjacent sarcomere

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6
Q

What is the H Zone of a Sarcomere?

A
  • The area in the center of the Sarcomere where only Myosin is Present
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7
Q

Describe the Excitation Contraction Coupling Phase of mm Contraction

A
  • Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium
  • Calcium binds with Troponin (on the actin filament)
  • Causes a shift in Tropomyosin
  • Myosin Cross bridge head attaches to actin
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8
Q

Describe Type I Muscle Fibers

A
  • Efficient and Fatigue Resistant
  • High Capacity for Aerobic Energy Supply
  • Limited potential for rapid force development d/t low Actomyosin Myofibrillar ATPase Activity and low anaerobic power
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9
Q

Describe Type II Muscle Fibers

A
  • Inefficient and fatigable
  • Low Aerobic Power
  • Rapiid Force development d/t high Actomyosin Myofibrillar ATPase Activity and high anaerobic power
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10
Q

What is the difference between type IIa and type IIx mm fibers?

A
  • IIa have a higher capacity for aerobic metabolism and more capillaries surrounding them and thus show more resistance to fatigue than type IIx
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11
Q

What are Muscle Spindles and What type of information do they provide?

A
  • Proprioceptors that consist of several modified mm fibers enclosed in a sheath of connective tissue
  • Provide information of muscle length and rate of change
  • When Stimulated they stimulate mm contraction and indicate the degree to which the mm must be activated to overcome a given resistance
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12
Q

What are Golgi Tendon Organs and What type of information do they provide?

A
  • Proprioceptors located in tendons near the myotendinous junction in series
  • Provide information on muscle tension and inhbits muscle function
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13
Q

What is the SA node of the Heart?

A
  • Intrinsic pacemaker

- where rhythmic electrical impulses are normally initiated

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14
Q

What is the AV node of the Heart?

A
  • Receive impulse from SA node and cause a delay prior to the impulse traveling to the Ventricles
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15
Q

What is the AV bundle of the Heart?

A
  • Conducts electrical impulse to the Ventricles
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16
Q

What is the role of Left and Right Bundle Branches and Purkinje Fibers in the Heart?

A
  • Bundle Branches are continuations of the AV Bundle and the further divide to Purkinje Fibers which conduct impulses to all parts of the Ventricles
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17
Q

What does the P Wave of an EKG represent?

A
  • Depolarization of the Atria
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18
Q

What does the QRS complex of an EKG represent?

A
  • Depolarization of Ventricles and Repolarization of Atria
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19
Q

What does the T wave of an EKG represent?

A
  • Repolarization of the Ventricles
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20
Q

What is Hydrolysis?

A
  • The Breakdown of one molecule of ATP to yield energy
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21
Q

What are the three Biological Energy Systems?

A
  • Phosphagen System
  • Glycolysis
  • Oxidative System
22
Q

Which Biological Energy Systems occur in the Sarcoplasm of a mm cell?

A
  • Phosphagen
  • First phase of Glycolysis
  • are Anaerobic
23
Q

Which Biological Energy Systems occur in the Mitochondria of a mm cell?

A
  • Krebs Cycle
  • Electron Transport Chain
  • Oxidative System
  • are Aerobic (require oxygen)
24
Q

Which macronutrient can be metabolized for energy without oxygen?

A
  • Carbohydrate
25
Q

What are the main factors behind WHY each Biological Energy System is activated?

A
  • Primarily Dependent on intensity of activity

- Secondarily on Duration

26
Q

Describe the Phospagen System

A
  • Provides ATP for Short Term, High Intensity Activities
  • Active at start of all exercise regardless of intensity
  • relies on Hydrolysis of ATP and Breakdown of CreatinePhospate (CP)
  • Serves as energy reserve for rapidly replenishing ATP
27
Q

Which mm Fiber type contains higher amounts of CreatinePhosphate?

A
  • Type II
28
Q

What is Glycolysis and what is it’s end product?

A
  • The breakdown of carbodydrate, either glycogen stored in the muscle or glucose delivered in blood, in order to resynthesize ATP
  • End Result is Pyruvate
29
Q

Once Pyruvate is created, what are it’s options for providing ATP?

A
  • Converted to Lactate or Shuttled to Mitochondria
30
Q

What is Fast Glycolysis (Anaerobic Glycolysis)?

A
  • When pyruvate is converted to lactate in order to produce ATP
  • Occurs at a fast rate but for short durations
31
Q

What is Slow Glycolysis (Aerobic Glyocolysis)?

A
  • When pyrvate is shuttled to mitochondria to produce ATP

- Occurs at slower rate but for longer

32
Q

Describe the Oxidative System

A
  • Primary source of ATP at rest and during low intensity activities
  • Uses primarily carbs and fats (70% fat, 30% carbs)
  • Pyruvate enters mitochondria and goes through krebs cycle
  • Net ATP Production is 38
33
Q

What types of activities rely on Phosphagen system vs Oxidative System?

A
  • Phosphagen - High Intensity, Short Duration, High Power Output
  • Oxidative - Low Intensity, Long Duration, Low Power Output
34
Q

Describe Power levels associated with Different Energy Systems

A
  • 90-100% - Phosphagen
  • 75-90%- Fast Glycolysis
  • 30-75%- Fast Glycolysis and Oxidative
  • 20-30%- Oxidative
35
Q

Describe Duration of exercise and work/rest cycles associated with Different Energy Systems

A
  • 5-10 sec - Phosphagen - 1:12 to 1:20
  • 15-30 sec - Fast Glyocolysis - 1:3 to 1:5
  • 1-3 min - Fast Glycolysis and Oxidative - 1:3 to 1:4
  • > 3 min - Oxidative - 1:1 to 1:3
36
Q

Discuss Combination Training

A
  • The addition of Aerobic endurance training to Anaerobic training
  • Can reduce performance capabilities
  • Can reduce gain in muscle girth, max strength, speed and power
37
Q

What are hormone receptors on the surface of the cell and in the nucleus of the cell named?

A
  • Surface- Peptide Hormones

- Nucleus- Steroid Hormones or Thyroid Hormones

38
Q

What are some ways in which receptors mediate hormonal changes?

A
  • Lock and Key Theory- a given hormone interacts with a specific receptor
  • Cross Sensitivity- a given receptor interacts with hormones that are no specifically designed for it
39
Q

What is the role of Heavy Resistance Training in Hormonal Increases?

A
  • Secreted during and after exercise and provide the body with information on amount of stress, metabolic demands, and need for further changes in resting metabolism
  • Force produced in activated fibers eventually leads to sensitivity to anabolic factors (hormones) and muscle growth and strength changes
40
Q

How does resistance training change hormonal patterns in blood and what does this result in?

A
  • Multiple changes occur such as fluid volume shifts, venous pooling, and changes in binding protein in the blood
  • All these changes lead to increased exposure time and efficiency of hormone interaction at the target tissue
41
Q

What are the primary Anabolic Hormones?

A
  • Testosterone
  • Growth Hormone (GH)
  • Insulin Like Growth Factor
42
Q

What are some of the roles of Testosterone?

A
  • Promote GH responses in pituitary, influencing protein synthesis
  • Influence nervous system for increases in strength and mm size
  • Interacts directly with mm tissue and promotes protein synthesis locally
43
Q

What are some exercise variables that may increase Serum Testosterone levels?

A
  • Large mm Group Exercises
  • Heavy Resistance (85-95% 1 RM)
  • Moderate to high volume exercise achieved (high sets, multiple exercises, both)
  • Short rest intervals (30 sec to 1 min)
  • Two years or more of resistance training
44
Q

What are some roles of Growth Hormone?

A
  • Primarily it enhances cellular amino acid uptake and protein synthesis resulting in Hypertrophy
  • Also: Decreases need for glucose, Increases utilization of fatty acids, stimulate collagen and cartilage growth, and enhances immune cell function
45
Q

What are advantages and disadvantages of GH use in children?

A
  • Needed for normal development

- Can result in hypertrophy with less force production than exercise induced hypertrophy

46
Q

What is the Primary Adrenal Hormone?

A
  • Cortisol
47
Q

What are some of the roles of Cortisol?

A
  • Converts Amino Acids into Carbohydrates
  • Inhibits Protein Synthesis
  • Decreases recovery and remodeling of skeletal muscle
  • These factors give chronic high levels adverse catabolic effects, but acute spikes in cortisol may contribute to remodeling of muscle tissue
48
Q

What are Catecholamines and what do they do?

A
  • Primarily Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
  • They increase force production via central mechanisms and metabolic enzyme activities
  • Increase muscle contraction rate, blood pressure, energy availability, blood flow
  • Change secretion rates of other hormones
49
Q

What is a fibrous joint?

A
  • Allow almost no movement

- Sutures of skull

50
Q

What is a cartilaginous joint?

A
  • Allow limited movement

- Intervertebral discs

51
Q

What is a Synovial joint?

A
  • Allow considerable movment

- Elbow, knee, etc

52
Q

Why is it recommended that training protocols be varied?

A
  • Allow the adrenal gland to engage in recovery processes

- Prevent secondary responses to Cortisol, which can have negative effects on immune system and protein structures

CSCS (7 decks)

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