Physiology II Lab Miscellaneous Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

10 Steps for ECG

A

ER CR PCQ STD

Extrasystole
Rrhythmicity
Calculate HR
Rhythm-generating-center
P-wave
Conduction time
QRS complex
ST-segment
T-wave
Draw Eindhoven’s triangle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Extrasystole

A

Ventricular
- NO P WAVE
- Abnormally wide QRS

Supraventricular
- Normal everything

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Extrasystole?

A

A beat that lands on the RELATIVE refractory period of the previous beat

Extra beat + compensatory pause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is respiratory arrhythmia?

A

Inspiration
- Increases HR
- Causes positive intrathoracic pressure, decreasing vagal tone, increasing HR

Expiration
- Decreases HR
- Causes negative intrathoracic pressure, increasing vagal tone, decreasing HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you calculate HR?

A

60 / #of small boxes * 0.04s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the rhythm generating center?

A

Usually the SA node (P-wave)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do you calculate arrhythmic heart rate?

A

DO NOT COUNT PATHOLOGIES
- Need a ruler
- 1 small box = 1 mm = 0.04 sec

Measure RR-distance boxes then calculate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How much is a small box worth in ECG?

A

Time: 0.04 sec.
Voltage: 0.1 mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the characteristics needed for each wave?

A
  1. Amplitude
  2. Polarity
  3. Duration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Draw Eindhoven’s Triangle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is LAD and RAD?

A

LAD: Left Axis Deviation, due to:
- Pregnancy
- Obesity
- Inferior MI

RAD: Right Axis Deviation, due to:
- Right ventricular hypertrophy
- Lateral MI
- Situs Invertus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Relations of impedance

A

Impedance = 1/Fluid

Impedance = Fat content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you calculate Cardiac Index (CI)

A

CO / Body Surface Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do you calculate HR in ICG?

A

HR = 60,000 ms / QS2 + DT

QS2: Systolic time
DT: Diastolic time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you calculate SV in ICG?

A

SV = EDV - ESV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you calculate QS2 in ICG?

A

QS2 = PEP + VET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you calculate TPR in ICG?

A

8/π * (l * ƞ / r^4)

l: Length of vascular sys.
ƞ: Viscosity of blood
r: Radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do you calculate MAP in ICG?

A

MAP = CO * TPR

MAP = DP + 1/3 (PP), where;

DP: Diastolic pressure
PP: Ps - Pd (Sys. - Dias.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where do the electrodes and the measurement devices go on the body in the ICG test?

A

2 pairs supraclavicular
2 pairs midaxillary region, level of Xiphoid Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is the PCG placed on the body during ICG?

A

At the apex of the heart; 5th intercostal space, level of the left midclavicular line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where should the ECG electrodes be placed?

A

RED = Right shoulder
YELLOW = Left shoulder

GREEN = Left side of the chest
BLACK = Right side of the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the relation of impedance with blood flow of the heart?

A

Increase impedance = blood exits the heart

Decrease impedance = blood enters the heart

Impedance = 1/Fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is S1 and S2 in the Phonocardiogram?

A

S1 - Atrioventricular Valve Closure
S2 - Semilunar Valve Closure

S1 to S2 is Sys.
S2 to S1 is Dias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the area under the graph in the time derivative curve of the ICG?

A

+ve: Blood leaving the heart
-ve: Blood entering the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the pre-ejection period in ICG?
Segment between Q-S, where the blood ejection is about to begin
26
What are the three peaks on the time derivative curve?
B, beginning C, peak X, end
27
What are the two halves of the BCX curve?
**RAPID EJECTION PHASE** 1st half **REDUCED EJECTION PHASE** 2nd half
28
How is the SV calculated by the computer in the ICG experiment?
Area is calculated by the "KUBICEK FORMULA"
29
Where can the R-R Distance be found on the ICG paper?
Top left corner of the diagram
30
For ICG, what is the order of calculation of the parameters?
1. HR 2. MAP 3. SV 4. EF 5. QS2 6. DT
31
How do you calculate HR in ICG?
HR = 60,000 ms / R-R Distance
32
How do you calculate MAP in ICG?
MAP = Pd + [(Ps-Pd)/3]
33
How do you calculate SV in ICG?
SV = EDV - ESV
34
How do you calculate CO in ICG?
CO = SV * HR
35
How do you calculate EF in ICG?
EF = SV / EDV
36
How do you calculate QS2 in ICG?
QS2 = PEP + VET
37
How do you calculate DT in ICG?
DT = R-R-Distance - QS2
38
What is the effect of exercise on the heart?
Exercise → (+) SNS SNS → (+) Beta 1: Heart → (+) Positive tropic effects SNS → (+) Beta 2: Blood Vessels → (+) Vasodilation → Decrease in TPR
39
When can you not perform the ICG?
If patient experiences any chest pain, breathlessness, drop in B.P. If patient has any valve defects
40
What are the data values that you need to get from ANALYZER?
MATH AF **M**aximal rate of rise: Slope **A**rea under the graph: Integral **T**ime to peak: TTP **H**alf relaxation time: Amp of 1, halve it, go to it, find the delta X **A**mplitude: Same graph set up as slope **F**requency: # of peaks divided by delta X
41
What is the force transducer constant
1
42
Effect of Epinephrine on smooth M.
43
Effect of Pindolol on smooth M.
44
Effect of Phenylephrine on smooth M.
45
Effect of Phentolamine on smooth M.
46
What is the effect of Acetylcholine on mAChR when there is endothelium, and when there isn't
47
Effect of Acetylcholine on smooth M.
48
Effect of Atropine on smooth M.
49
All acetylcholine receptors
50
Which method is the blood pressure method?
Riva Rocci
51
Reynold's number formula
52
Pulmonary valve location
Left sternal border 2nd intercostal space
53
Aortic valve location
Right sternal border 2nd intercostal space
54
Bicuspid valve location
Apex of the heart 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line
55
Tricuspid valve
Lower left sternal border 4th/5th intercostal space
56
what is the Staub Traugott method?
Give glucose, measure -- wait 90 min -- give glucose again, measure again
57
Why is the double glucose load a more accurate diagnosis?
Single dose can only evaluate the pre-stored insulin Double dose can evaluate the De Novo production of insulin from pancreas
58
What is posthyperglycemic hypoglycemia?
A physiological state where the insulin over corrects the glucose level
59
What is the clinical relevance of posthyperglycemic hypoglycemia?
If more persistent, it could lead to side effects
60
What could be the causes of increased insulin tolerance?
1. insulin producing tumor 2. lack in insulin-balancing hormones (hypothyroidism, addison's disease ,etc.)
61
Insulin pathway
62
What is the renal threshold?
Limit where glucose appears in the urine
63
Low vs high renal threshold
Low: less substance is reabsorbed, more substance found in urine High: more substance is reabsorbed, less substance found in urine
64
Clearance definition
Virtual volume of plasma cleared from the given substance within 1 minute Virtual volume: calculated volume that cannot be measured; imaginary volume
65
Clearance equation
66
RPF calculation
RBF * (1- Htc)
67
ERPF calculation
RPF * 0.9
68
Filtration fraction calculation
GFR / RPF
69
Clearance of inulin
120, as inulin is nor reabsorbed or secreted
70
Clearance of PAH
decreases, but cannot go below 120 as it is still filtered (GFR)
71
why does the clearance of PAH decrease?
no secretion due to the saturation of transporters
72
What happens when P of PAH is very low?
Clearance of PAH is equal to the Effective RPF because every mL of PAH cleared in one go, which is the ERPF
73
PAH Graph, Filtered vs Secreted vs Excreted
74
Inulin Graph, Filtered vs Excreted
75
Clearance as a function of plasma concentration for PAH INULIN AND GLUCOSE
76
What is the RBC count?
A test used to find out how many red blood cells are present in blood sample
77
What is Mean Corpuscular hemoglobin and how do you calculate it?
Is the average mass (picograms) of hemoglobin per red blood cell in a sample of blood MCH = Hb conc. / RBC count
78
What is the Red cell index (Stain index)?
A blood test that provides info about the hemoglobin content and size of red blood cells
79
What is Hematocrit (Htc)?
The ratio of volume of RBCs to the total blood volume
80
What is Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)?
Is the average volume (femtoliter) of a red blood cell MCV = Htc / RBC count
81
What are the types of Anemia?
1. ↓ Htc 2. ↓ Hb 3. ↓ RBC count
82
Hemorrhagic Anemia
**ACUTE BLEEDING** - Normal MCH - Normal MCV - Low RBC
83
Microcytic Hypochromic Anemia
**IRON DEFICIENCY / CHRONIC BLEEDING** - Low MCH - Low MCV - Normal RBC - Stain index < 1 Microcytic = Small cells Hypochromic = Less Hb = Less staining
84
Macrocytic Hyperchromic
**VITAMIN B12 / B9 DEFICIENCY** - High MCH - High MCV - Low RBC - Stain Index > 1 Macrocytic = Big cells (cells cannot divide) Hyperchromic = More Hb (larger cells) = More staining
85
What is Hayem's solution?
A solution that prevents aggregation of RBCs, makes them more visible, and shrinks them a bit so they don't stick together
86
Example, you counted 275 cells, how many RBCs?
Ex: counted 275 cells in 0.01 microL RBC = [275 Cells x 10^6 (Liter) / 0.01 (microL)] x 200 (dilution factor) RBC = 5,500,000,000,000 cells/L RBC = 5.5 T/L
87
What could cause an increase in WBC?
Inflammation, cancers (lymphoma)
88
What could cause a decrease in WBC?
Drugs (chemotherapy), genetics, and cancers (leukemia)
89
What is the function of thiocarbamide?
A substance that dissolves into RBCs and is osmotically active, decreases osmotic resistance so hemolysis occurs in higher NaCl concentrations
90
What is the effect of Atropine on the acetylcholine evoked smooth muscle?
Atropine inhibits M3 mAChR
91
What is the effect of Physostigmine on the acetylcholine evoked smooth muscle?
Physostigmine inhibits ACh Esterase which is responsible to breakdown ACh in the synaptic cleft, therefore increasing smooth muscle contraction
92
What is the effect of increasing K+ concentration on smooth muscle function?
Increased extracellular K+ levels will cause depolarization due to leaky K+ channels Normally: inside > outside | in to out Increased: inside < outside | out to in
93
What is the effect of increased K+ levels on Na+ channels?
increased K+ levels inhibit Na+ channels
94
What is the effect of Norepi on endothelium?
Norepi (alpha/beta) stimulate NO from endothelium causing VASODILATION
95
What is the effect of Norepi on smooth m.?
Norepi (alpha1) stimulates contraction of smooth m. causing VASOCONSTRCTION
96
TONIC/PHASIC EXPERIMENT SETTINGS
Data acquisition: 5 kHz Measurement duration: 10s Measuring range: -1 V to +1 V Trigger pulse amp: 5 V Duration: 5 ms Frequency: 1 Hz
97
TONIC RECEPTOR
(4) - Slowly adapting EX :: Pain and proprioception - Find amplitude = strength of stim.
98
TONIC ACTION POTENTIAL
(7) Frequency: - 10 AP between axis - Read Delta X - Find # of AP in a second
99
PHASIC/TONIC RECEPTOR
(3) - Mediately adapting EX :: Thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors (Merkel's discs)
100
PHASIC/TONIC ACTION POTENTIAL
(6)
101
PHASIC RECEPTOR
(2) - Rapidly adapting EX :: Olfactory and fine touch receptors
102
PHASIC ACTION POTENTIAL
(5)