Pilot Controller Glossary Flashcards

1
Q

DEWIZ

A

Distant Early Warning Identification Zone Over the coastal waters of Alaska

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ADIZ

A

Air Defense Identification Zone Area of airspace over land or water, extending upward from the surface, within which the ready identification, location , and the control of aircraft are required in the interest of national secutity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Domestic Air Defense Identification Zone

A

ADIS within the US along an international boundary of the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Coastal Air Defense Identification Zone

A

ADIZ over the coastal waters of the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which Part of 14 CFR describes ADIZ requirements and operations?

A

Part 99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CARF

A

Central Altitude Reservation Function Responsible for coordinating, planning and approving special user requirements under altitude reservation concept (airspace utilization technique)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CARF functions are located where?

A

Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is the US NOTAM office located?

A

Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Small aircraft for wake turbulence separation

A

41,000 lbs max takeoff weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Large aircraft for wake turbulence separation

A

MORE THAN 41,000 lbs to LESS THAN 300,000 lbs max takeoff weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Heavy aircraft for wake turbulence separation

A

Aircraft capable of Max takeoff weight of 300,000 or more regardless of current weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Airport

A

Area on land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft and includes its buildings and facilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Airport Elevation is the highest point of what?

A

An airport’s usable runways measured in feet from mean sea level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Runway edge lights are uniformly spaced at intervals of:

A

200’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Touchdown zone lighting consists of two rows of transverse light bars normally at what interval?

A

100’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Touchdown zone lighting extends how far?

A

3,000’ along the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Runway centerline lighting begins and ends how many feet from each runway threshold?

A

75’ from the threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Interval of runway centerline lights

A

50’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Airport reference point is the approximate geometric center of what?

A

All usable runway surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Airport surveillance radar can extend up to how many miles?

A

60 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which type of airspeed is used under the general term “airspeed” for pilot/controller communications?

A

Indicated airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Altitude reservations are normally for the mass movement of aircraft or other special user requirements which cannot otherwise be accomplished. They are approved by whom?

A

The appropriate FAA facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Domestic airspace extends how many miles offshore?

A

12 miles off shore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the size of a downburst?

A

1/2 mile to 10 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Damaging winds from a downburst can last how long?
5-30 mintues
26
Downburst can reach speeds as high as?
120kts
27
An ELT radiates a downward sweeping tone how many times per second?
2-4 times per second
28
A Flight Information Region provides what two services
Flight Information Service- provided for the purpose of giving advice and info for the safe and efficient conduct of flights Alerting Service- notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of S&R aid and to assist as required
29
Pilot stating they "have the numbers" means they have what?
Runway, wind, and altimeter
30
NORDO
No Radio
31
Meteorological Impact Statements describe conditions expected to begin within how long?
4-12 hours
32
A microburst has damaging winds extending how far?
2.5 miles or less
33
An intense microburst could induce wind speeds as high as...
150 kts
34
Civil twilight ends when?
The center of the sun's disk is 6 degrees below the horizon and begins in the morning when the center of the sun's disk is 6 degrees below the horizon
35
NOTAM
Notice containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any component of the NAS
36
How often is the NOTAM publication issued?
Every 28 days
37
What type of NOTAM is regulatory?
FDC NOTAMs
38
An offshore airspace area provides air traffic control services how far off shore?
Between the 12nm limit of US airspace and the oceanic FIR boundary.
39
Offshore airspace areas may be classified as what class of airspace?
Either A or E airspace
40
Services provided in a Class C outer area include what?
IFR-IFR separation IFR-VFR separation VFR-VFR separation
41
Size of a Class C outer area?
20nm
42
Light precip on radar
\<30dBZ
43
Moderate precip on radar
30-40dBZ
44
Heavy precip on radar
\>40-50dBZ
45
Extreme precip on radar
\>50dBZ
46
Are Remote Communications Air/Ground Facilities equipped with emergency frequencies?
No
47
RCAG
Remote Communications Air/Ground Facility
48
What is a Remote Communications Air/Ground Facility?
An unmanned VHF/UHF transmitter facility which is used to expand ARTCC air/ground communications coverage
49
Reporting point
Geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft is reported
50
What is a SIGMET?
Weather advisory issued concerning weather significant to the safety of all aircraft. Including severe turbulence, severe icing, and widespread dust and sand storms
51
Special Emergency
Condition of air piracy or other hostile act by a person aboard an aircraft which threatens the safety of the aircraft or its pax
52
Alert Area
Airspace which may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft
53
Controlled Firing Area
Airspace wherein activities are controlled to eliminate hazards to nonparticipating aircraft
54
Military Operations Area
Used to separate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted
55
Prohibited Area
Airspace within which no person may operate an aircraft without the permission of the USING AGENCY
56
Restricted Area
Airspace within which the flight of aircraft while not wholly prohibited is subject to restriction
57
Warning Area
Airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3nm off the cost that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft
58
Can Warning Areas be located over international waters?
Yes
59
Supplemental Weather Service Location staff do what?
Take weather observations and provide current local weather to pilots via phone or radio
60
At controlled airports with tetrahedrons, does the tetrahedron indication or tower instruction take priority?
The tower instruction
61
Touchdown zone
The first 3,000' of the runway beginning at the threshold
62
Touchdown zone elevation
The highest elevation in the first 3,000' of the landing surface
63
Visibility
The ability to see and identify prominent unlighted objects during the day and prominent lighted objects by night. Reported in SM
64
Flight visibility
The average forward horizontal distance from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen
65
Ground visibility
Prevailing horizontal visibility near the Earth's surface as reported by the National Weather Service
66
Prevailing Visibility
Greatest horizontal visibility equaled or exceeded throughout at least half the horizon circle which need not be continuous
67
Runway Visibility Value (RVV)
Visibility determined for a particular runway by a transmissometer
68
Runway Visual Range (RVR)
Derived Value that represents the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from the approach end. It is based on what a pilot in a moving aircraft should see looking down the runway
69
Can VOTs **only** be used on the ground?
No, they can be either for ground or air use
70
Eastern time zone
Standard: -5 Daylight savings: -4
71
Central time zone
Standard: -6 Daylight savings: -5
72
Mountain time zone
Standard: -7 Daylight savings: -6
73
Pacific time zone
Standard: -8 Daylight savings: -7