Pilot Training Manual Book Questions Flashcards
(204 cards)
1
Q
The EMB 120 is certified under:
A
Part 25
2
Q
The EMB 120 has how many generators?
A
5
3
Q
The EMB 120 forward entry door my be:
A
Raided and lowered manually
Raised hydraulically—lowered manually
4
Q
The EMB 120 DV windows may be removed by the crew? T/F
A
True
5
Q
If the main entry door is not securely closed and locked:
A
A door open light will illuminate in the cockpit
6
Q
How many cycles can the forward entry door be operated without recharging its accumulator?
A
4
7
Q
The EMB 120 has how many landing lights?
A
2
8
Q
The EMB 120 has how many taxi lights?
A
2
9
Q
Passenger cabin lighting is controlled by:
A
A 3 position switch located on the attendants panel
10
Q
Taxi lights turn off automatically on landing gear retraction? T/F
A
True
11
Q
The flight attendant my be called from:
A
The cockpit
The cabin
The lav
12
Q
The emergency lights come on if:
A
The cockpit switch is in ARM and the EDC bus 1 fails
The cockpit switch is placed to ON
The attendants switch us placed to ON, regardless of the position of the cockpit switch
13
Q
What warning systems does the EMB 120 have?
A
Visual
Aural
Vocal
14
Q
The color of the alarm/indication system lights are:
A
Red and green
Amber and white
15
Q
Visual alarm light dim levels are controlled automatically? T/F
A
False
16
Q
How many power sources does the multiple alarm panel have?
A
2
17
Q
Does the crew how the ability to lower the volume of the aural warning system?
A
No
18
Q
The total usable fuel capacity is:
A
5732 pounds
19
Q
The fuel system consists of what kinds of fuel pumps and how many of each?
A
4 Electric boost pumps
4 Scavenger jet pumps
2 Main jet pumps
20
Q
The firewall shutoff valve is operated through the:
A
Fire extinguisher T-handle
21
Q
What color light indicates crossfeed operation
A
White
22
Q
When pressure fueling, the airplane must be electrically powered? T/F
A
False
23
Q
APU fuel used goes through the fuel totalizer? T/F
A
True
24
Q
What happens when fuel flow indicators loose power?
A
Digital indication goes blank
25
The APU provides a source of
Pneumatic and electrical power
26
Can the APU receive fuel from the left fuel tank?
Yes
27
The APU will automatically shutdown if rotating parts exceed
110%
28
During the APU start cycle, what commands starter disengagement?
ECU
29
Can the APU be operated in flight?
Yes
30
What engines does the EMB 120 have?
Pratt-Whitney 118 A/B
31
The engine has how many compressors?
2
32
The engine has how many turbines?
4
33
The engine power control is accomplished by the operation of
A combination of the EEC and the HMU
34
The device that provides essential fuel control functions in the absence of electrical power is
Hydromechanical metering unit (HMU)
35
The maximum torque allowed is
110% for 5 min
36
The EEC is normally used in what positions?
TO or ON positions
37
If the EEC light on the glareshield illuminates, this indicates
An electrical failure exists in the system
38
Which turbine provides power to the propeller shaft?
Power turbine
39
Maximum continuous torque
100%
40
Maximum continuous engine RPM
100%
41
Minimum oil temp for takeoff
45C
42
Oil pressure alarm light illuminates at
40 PSID
43
Condition lever positions are
MAX RPM
MIN RPM
FEATHER
FUEL CUT-OFF
44
The PW118 combustion section is defined as
Reverse flow annular combusor
45
Power lever movement provides direct control to
HMU
46
During engine start, with the ignition system set to AUTO
The igniters come on automatically
The igniters go off automatically
47
What if any indication does the pilot have to indicate that the engine igniters are energized
A white ignition light on the start/ignition panel will illuminate
48
After initiation the start cycle is automatically interrupted at approximately
50% Nh
49
How is the fuel heated
Engine oil
50
How many compressor bleed ports does each engine have?
2
51
How is fuel flow to the engine metered?
HMU/EEC
52
Failed fixed is a function of
The EEC
53
When does the EEC control function activate?
25% Nh
54
If the gust lock is set, power levers are restricted in movement? T/F
True
55
The condition lever has free movement from feather to fuel cut-off? T/F
False
56
Engine compressors are axial or centrifugal?
Centrifugal
57
The free power turbine is
A two stage axial flow
58
What are the engine bleed ports called?
P 2.5
P 3
59
Who makes the propeller
Hamilton-sundstrand
60
I’m normal operation, maximum governed propeller speed is
1300 - 1309 rpm
61
Normal operational pitch range is
79.2 (feather) to -15 (reverse)
62
In flight, Np is controlled by
PCU and condition lever
63
The main component for selecting propeller pitch is
PCU
64
The main component for changing propeller pitch is
Propeller servomechanism
65
If through a malfunction the propeller become fixed pitch, what items control Np
Power and speed changes
66
During taxi and reverse, which unit controls Np?
EEC
67
Pitch lock is term used to describe
A device which lock the propeller pitch in flight of the propeller oil pressure is lost
68
Which controls input sets the propeller speed
Condition lever
69
When operating in the beta range
The speed governor system has no control of propeller pitch
70
The beta valve position is adjusted by the
Power lever
71
Propeller blade angle at flight idle
17.6
72
In flight, if the engine has failed and propeller has not been feathered, it will then automatically feather? T/F
False
73
If an approach with autofeather armed and engine fail, with its propeller autofeather
No
74
Propeller syncs us activated by
System selected on and Np > 80%
75
The main purpose of the least selector value is to
Select the proper speed governor
(Normal or overspeed)
76
Engine bleed air is ducted from 3 separate ports? T/F
False
77
The duct leak warning system is activated when temperature is the duct region reaches
195* F
78
If a “duct leak” is detected, the bleed-air system will automatically shut off? T/F
False
79
If a “bleed overheat” is detected, the bleed-air system will automatically shut off? T/F
False
80
What prevents moisture from entering tubing or Deicers
A water separator system
81
Deicer boots are operated by pneumatic air flowing through
4 ejector flow control valves
82
Leading edge deicer boots are controlled by
2 timers
83
The modes of leading edge deicing are
On or off
84
Deice boots are inflated for a maximum of
6 seconds
85
When the leading edge system is selected the system cycles every
60 seconds
86
Angel-of-attack and slip-skid sensors are deiced by
Electric heat
87
Propeller deice is accomplished by
Electrical heat
88
The propeller deice system is protected from damage during ground operation by
Low oil pressure switch
89
When the “cold” mode of propeller deice is used the propeller blades are heated for
20 seconds
90
The recommended temperature for selecting “cold” mode operation is
Below -10* C
91
The windshield heat system heats the windshield to approximately
40-45* C
92
Should any segment of the anti-ice/deice system fail, the pilot would be alerted by a
Amber light
93
Static ports are electrically anti-iced? T/F
True
94
Windshield wipers move at a rate if _____ on high mode
140 strokes/minute
95
The EMB 120 is air conditioned by
Environmental control packs
96
On the ground an air conditioner malfunction (PACK FAIL) would probably be caused by
Failure of the ground cooling fan
97
Should there be a PACK FAIL malfunction, the system may be restarted by
Turning the pack control selector OFF then on
98
The conditioned air temperature is controlled by
The mixture of cold air from the turbine and bleed air
99
Temperature can be read from both the cockpit and the cabin? T/F
True
100
To increase air flow to the cabin, the system has
2 recirculation fans
101
With air conditioning system in the AUTO mode, the temperature range can controlled within
60* - 90* F
102
The manual mode of operation can be used at the pilots discretion? T/F
False
103
Should the air conditioning system malfunction and cause a DUCT OVERHEAT, the pilot will be warned by a
Amber light
104
The DUCT OVERHEAT light comes on when the internal temp reaches
245* F
105
The air distribution ratio between cockpit and cabin is
40-60
106
Gasped fans should not be used in the MIX position during flight
It may blow warm air on the passengers head
107
The airplane pressurized by mean of
Conditioned air from air-conditioning system
108
Pressurization is controlled in
Automatic mode and manual mode
109
Is the avionics compartment pressurized?
No
110
The maximum pressurization differential is
7.2 psid
111
How many outflows valves control air discharge?
2
112
In the AUTO mode, which valves are operational
Electropneumatic outflow valve
113
On the ground, engines running, electrical power on, power levers at GND IDLE, which pneumatic valves are open
Both, pneumatic and electropneumatic
114
The AUTO mode of setting pressurization is Alway used unless
The AUTO system fails
115
In manual mode, which valves are operational?
Pneumatic outflow valve
116
The cabin warning light comes on at
10,000 ft
117
With the engines and electrical system off which outflow valves are open
Both
118
The absolute cabin altitude limit is
13,000 ft
119
The cabin climb rate may be set between
200 - 1500 fpm
120
The cabin decent rate is may be set between
150 - 1000
121
During decent, if the controller is set as recommended the cabin should descend at
450 fpm
122
Upon landing does the the cabin automatically depressurize?
Yes
123
Does the EMB 120 have 2 independent hydraulic systems
Yes
124
How are the hydraulic systems identified
Green and blue
125
Hydraulic pressure is provided by
Engine-driven pumps
126
Hydraulic fluid may be blocked from flowing through the main hydraulic pump by
Pulling the engine fire T-handle
127
Are the hydraulic system basically identical
Yes
128
Which ways can the landing gear be extended
Gear handle
Alternate electrical system
Free-fall system
129
Position status of the landing gear is provided by
Proximity switches
130
The landing gear system is powered by which hydraulic system
Green
131
If the free fall emergency method of lowering the gear is necessary what unlocks the unlocks
Mechanical cables
132
How many landing gear positions indications are there
2
133
What will cause the gear warning system to sound off
Flaps selected beyond 17* with gear up
Power lever angle reduced below 66* with gear up
Airplane descends below 200 agl
Airplane descends below 1500 agl
134
Hydraulic pressure to the brake system is
3000 psi
135
Does the EMB 120 have antiskid feature
Yes
136
When the parking break is applied how many brakes are actuated
4
137
If during takeoff the pilot forgot to release the parking break
A voice message will warn the pilot
138
Are breaks automatically applied when landing gear is raised
Yes
139
Does the nose wheel have its own brake system
No
140
How many indications does the pilot have to warm him that the emergency/parking break is on
2
141
Can the anti skid system be turned on or off
Yes
142
The nose wheel steering is operated
Hydraulically through the green hydraulic system
143
Is the nosewheel steered by rudder pedals and the tiller
Yes
144
If the pilot sees the PRDAL STEER INOP warning light, what does this indicate
The nose wheel is not centered
145
The nose wheel may be steered through a ____ degree arc with the tiller
100*
146
Rudder pedals control nose wheel steering through a _____ degree arc
14 *
147
The EMB 120 has ____ rudders
2
148
The rudder system may be actuated by
Both green and blue hydraulic systems
Mechanically by push rode
149
Can the rudder system be turned on and off
Yes
150
If airspeed is above 120 knots and both hydraulic systems remain connected to the rudder what cockpit indication will the pilot see
OVERBOOST light
151
Does the gust lock hold the rudder in place
No
152
Rudder trim is a function of
Hydraulics
153
Ailerons are actuated by means of
A cable and rod assembly
154
Can the left and right ailerons may be operated independently by disconnecting one from the other in case of a stuck or jammed aileron
Yes
155
If the left aileron is jammed and the the system is disconnected can the aircraft be controlled with the autopilot
No
156
The autopilot servo is connected to
The left aileron actuator
157
With the disconnect system actuated the copilots control wheel operates
The right aileron
158
The elevator is actuated by means of
A cable and rod assembly
159
If the the elevator disconnect system was actuated and only the pilot sides was free, would the stall warning system still be completely operational
No
160
What axis of trim is available
Roll
Pitch
Yaw
161
The aircraft is equipped with ____ flap panels per wing
3
162
Flaps are actuated by
A hydraulic assembly
163
Flap setting positions are
0 -15
15 - 25
25 - 45
164
Which hydraulic system is the outboard flakes actuated by
Blue
165
An asymmetrical flap condition occurs when
Two flap panels in the same pare differ in position by more then 7*
166
A flap disagreement condition occurs when
2 pair of flaps differ by more then 7*
167
What method or indication does the pilot have to determine a flap position malfunction
View the flap annunciator panel
168
The EMB 120 has ____ independent pitot static systems
3
169
The mode C input for the ATC transponder comes from
Pilots encoding altimeter
170
The altitude alerted system visual and aural warnings triggers when
The aircraft is 400 feet from selected altitude
The aircraft deviates approximately 200 feet from selected altitude
171
Does the EMB 120 have 2 identical and independent AHRS
Yes
172
The auto flight system consists of
2 flight director systems
2 autopilots
173
Will the electric pitch trim switch on the control wheel disengage the autopilot
Yes
174
Will the vertical trim switch on the autopilot control panel disengage the autopilot
No
175
The electronics bay ventilation system
Had 2 internal recirculation fans that come in when temps exceed 80* F
176
The EMB 120 electrical system supplies
28 VDV and 26/115 VAC
177
The EMB 120 has how many generators
5
178
The EMB has how many batteries
2
179
When using external power, can the APU generator be used
No
180
The EMB 120 main battery rating is
24 volt
36 AH
181
The main generator ratings are
28VDC
400 amps
182
During the start phase, the starter generator is powered from
The central DC bus
183
Can engine start be accomplished with the electrical system in emergency mode
No
184
The main generators are connected to the electrical system by
Main generator contactors
185
How many inverters does the aircraft have
2
186
The number 1 inverter is powered by
DC bus 2
187
With a total generator failure, the main battery will last for approximately
30 min
188
The auxiliary generators come on line at
Approximately 70% Np
189
Is the APU starter generator identical to the main starter generator
Yes
190
Are the auxiliary generators identical to the main generators
Yes
191
Can the APU generator be used in flight
Yes
192
Can the APU generator be used with the battery for engine start
Yes
193
The primary reason reason for the electrical system to automatically switch from normal mode to emergency mode is
Both main generator fail
194
During normal flight, auxiliary generators power
DC bus 3 and relay DC bus 3
195
The backup battery will automatically supply electrical power to the standby horizon when the voltage on EDC 1
Drops below 19 v
196
Where are the aircraft batteries located
Left nose section
197
During engine start the main purpose of the backup battery is
To prevent transients affecting certain instruments
198
In a total electrical failure, the primary purpose of the backup battery is
To power the standby horizon only
199
The auxiliary generators power the
Auxiliary DC bus
DC bus 3
Relay box DC BUS 3
200
The backup battery is charged by the
EDC 2
201
What RPM does the overspeed gov hood Np at
103%
202
What prevents propeller blades from decreasing below 17.6 at FLT IDLE
Primary low pitch stop
203
When does the the secondary low pitch stop automatically actuate
When propeller pitch decreases below 12.6
204
What are the autofeather system requirements
Auto feather switch on
PLA Greater then 62*
Tq above 62*
