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Instrument > Pilots Cafe > Flashcards

Pilots Cafe Flashcards

1
Q

Logging instrument time 61.51
A person may log instrument time only for the flight time

A

When the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instrument under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions

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2
Q

Logging instrument time 61.51
An authorized instructor may log instrument time

A

When conducting instrument flight instruction on actual instrument flight conditions

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3
Q

Logging instrument time 61.51
To meet recent instrument experience requirements what must be recorded in persons logbook

A
  • location and type of each instrument approach accomplished, and
  • the name of the safety pilot, if required
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4
Q

Logging flight time 61.51
Use of full flight simulator, FTD, or ATD for acquiring instrument aeronautical experience

A
  • for training - an authorized instructor is present to observe and sign the persons logbook
  • for IFR recency requirements, log
    Training device, time and content
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5
Q

Recency
To act as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums for VFR

A

(66 hits) HINT
- 6 instrument approaches within 6 calendar months preceding the month of flights
- holding procedures
- intercepting
- navigational
- tracking
Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems

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6
Q

Recency/ currency
66 hits can be completed in

A

In an approved FFS, ATD, or FTD
Approved flight simulators
(Flight instructor is not needed in sim)

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7
Q

Recency/ currency
Not current after 6 months

A

If you do not get current after 6 months you have a 6 month grace period to get current with a safety pilot
(66 hits with a safety pilot)

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8
Q

Recency/ currency
What is a safety pilot

A
  • a pilot who can act as PIC while “student” is under simulated conditions
  • have at least a private pilot with appropriate category and class
  • has visual of all outside the airplane
  • aircraft must have a dual control system
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9
Q

Recency/ currency
Not current after 12 calendar months

A

-Must do an Instrument proficiency check (IPC) by a CFII examiner, DPE, or FAA approved examiner
(Guidelines in the ACS)
- Can be conducted in a FTD or ATD

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10
Q

Recency/ currency
To carry passengers as PIC

A
  • 3 takeoff and landings in the same cagatory, class and type in the last 90 days
  • night landings full stop
  • to act as PIC - flight review in the last 24 calendar months
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11
Q

Airplane- instrument rating minimum aeronautical experience

A
  • 50 hours X-country PIC time
    • 10 hours in airplanes
  • 40 hours actual or simulated instrument time
    • 15 hours with CFII
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12
Q

Airplane- instrument rating minimum aeronautical experience
X- country flight consists of

A
  • 250 NM along airways or by directed ATC routing
  • an instrument approach at each airport
  • 3 different kinds of approaches using navigation systems
  • with a filed IFR flight plan
  • 3 hours instrument flight training in last 2 calendar months prior to practicality test
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13
Q

Airplane- instrument rating minimum aeronautical experience
Use of approved full flight simulator or FTD, if trained by authorized instructor

A
  • max 30 hours if instrument time completed under part 142
  • max 20 hours if not complied under 142
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14
Q

Airplane- instrument rating minimum aeronautical experience
Use of FAA approved aviation training device, if trained by an authorized instructor

A
  • max 10 hours of instrument time if basic ATD
  • max 20 hours of instrument time if advanced ATD
  • no more than 20 hours of total instrument time can be credited on a full flight simulator ( except 30 hour exception under part 142 mentioned above)
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15
Q

Personal documents required for flight

A
  • pilot certificate
  • medical certificate
  • valid government issued photo ID
  • restricted radiotelephone operator permit ( for flights outside the US)
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16
Q

Aircraft documents required for flight

A

ARROWSPDC
- airworthiness
- registration
- radio station license
- operating limitations
- weight and balance
- ( G1000) supplement
- placards
- data plate
- magnetic compass

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17
Q

Aircraft maintenance inspection required for IFR

A

AAVIATES
- Airworthiness directives
- annual
- VOR
- 100 hour
- altimeter
- transponder
- ELT
- Service bulletin

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18
Q

Preflight self- assessment

A

IMSAFE
- illness
- medication
- stress
- alcohol
- fatigue
- eating / emotion

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19
Q

Preflight info required for IFR

A

NWKRAFT
- notoms
- weather
- known traffic delays
- runways lengths of intendeded use
- alternative available
- fuel requirements
- takeoff and landing distances
( FAA, aviationweather.gov, FAA (known traffic delays)

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20
Q

Risk management and personal minimums

A

PAVE
-pilot
-aircraft
-enViroment
-External pressure

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21
Q

Decision making

A

DECIDE
- detect
- estimate
- choose
- indenting
- evaluate

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22
Q

6 types of altitudes

A
  • Indicated (what the altimeter is set to)
  • pressure (altitude over the standard datum plane)
  • density (pressure altitude corrected for on standard temperature, performance altitude)
  • true (the height you plane is above MSL)
  • absolute (height above AGL)
  • calibrated ( correct for instrument errors )
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23
Q

IFR flight plan

A

Requirement: no person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has (in IMC)
- filed an IFR flight plan
- received an appropriate ATC clearance
- it is legal to fly IFR in uncontrolled airspace (class g) without a flight plan or clearance, however once airborne, you must remain in uncontrolled airspace until you file. Flight plan and get ATC clearance to enter the controlled airspace

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24
Q

IFR flight plan
How to file and IFR flight plan

A

FSS
- by phone (1- 800- WX-BREIF)
- over the radio ( GCO/ RCO frequency)
- in person
Online
- www.1800wxbreif.com
- Www.fltplan.com
EFB (ForeFlight)

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25
Q

How to file an IFR flight plan
File

A

At least 30 minutes prior to estimated departure. Non- scheduled flights above FL230 should be filed at least 4 hours before est. departure time

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26
Q

How to file an IFR flight plan
Flight plan cancelation

A
  • Towered airports- automatically cancelled by ATC union landing
  • Non- towered airports - pilots must contact ATC/FSS to cancel ( by radio or phone )
  • can cancel anytime in flight if out of IMC and out of class A airspace
  • preferred IFR routes are published in the chart supplement
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27
Q

IFR minimum fuel requirements (91.167)

A
  • Fuel from departure to destination airport
  • fuel from destination to most distant alternate
  • 45 minutes calculate at normal cruise
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28
Q

Need a destination alternate (91.169)
1-2-3 rule

A

A destination alternate is always required, unless
- an instrument approach is published and available for the destination, AND,
- for at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA
- ceiling will be at least 2000’ above airport elevation
- visibility will be at least 3SM

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29
Q

Minimum weather conditions required at an airport to list it as an alternate (91.169)

A

The alternate airport minima published in the procedure charts, or, if none
- precision approach
600 ft ceiling and 2sm of visibility
- non-precision approach
800 ft ceiling and 2sm visibility
- no instrument approach available at the alternate
Ceiling and visibility must allow decent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR

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30
Q

Filing an alternate - GPS considerations

A
  • equipped with a non-WAAS GPS? You can flight plan based on GPS approaches at either the destination or the alternate, but not at both
  • WASS without baro-vnav? May base the flight plan on use of LNAV approach at both the destination and alternate
  • WAAS with baro- VNAV? May base the flight plan on use of LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 at both the destination and the alternate
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31
Q

IFR cruising altitude

A

Based on magnetic course
180-359 even thousands
0-179 odd thousands

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32
Q

IFR takeoff minimums (91.175)

A

No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations part 121, 125, 129, 135
- prescribed T/O minimums for the runway, or, if none:
1-2 engines airplanes: 1 SM visibility
More than 2 engines: 1/2 SM visibility

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33
Q

Departure procedures (AIM 5-2-9)

A
  • either textual or graphical
  • ensures obstacle clearance, provided:
  • the airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35 ft AGL
  • reaches 400ft AGL before turning
  • climbs at least 200ft per NM, or as published otherwise on the chart
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34
Q

What are the mandatory reporting points (91.183/ AIM 5-3-3)

A

MARVELOUSVFRC500

-Missed approach
-Airspeed change +/- 10 knots of 5%
-reading a holding fix
-VFR on top (altitude change)
- ETA change 2 min
- leaving a holding fix
- outer marking inbound
- unforcasted weather
- safety of flight
- vacating altitude
- FaV inbound
- radio/ nav failures
- compulsory reposting points
- 500 unable to maintain 500 ft/min climb or decent

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35
Q

When are pilot encouraged to file a departure procedure

A

Pilots are encouraged to file a DP at night, during marginal VMC or IMC

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36
Q

Two types of DP

A

Obstacles departure procedures (ODP)
- provides only obstacle clearance
- graphic ODPs will have (obstacle) printed in the chart total
Standard instrument departure (SID)
- in addition to obstacle clearance it reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearance and minimizing radio communications
- some SIDS may depict special radio failure procedures

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37
Q

DP are also categorized by equipment required

A
  • non-RNAV - ( VOR, DME, NDB)
  • RNAV DP -(GPS, VOR/DME, DME/DME)
  • RADAR DP - ATC radar vector to an ATS
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38
Q

Non- RNAV DP

A

for use by aircraft equipped with ground-based navigation (i.e., VOR, DME, NDB).

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39
Q

RNAV DP

A

for aircraft equipped with RNAV equipment (e.g., GPS, VOR/DME, DME/DME). Require at least RNAV 1 performance. Identified with the word “RNAV” in the title.

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40
Q

RADAR DP

A

ATC radar vectors to an ATS route, NAVAID, or fix are used after departure. RADAR DPs are annotated “RADAR REQUIRED.”

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41
Q

Do you have to accept DP

A

You are not required to accept a DP. To avoid receiving one, state “NO SIDs” in remarks section of flight plan.

42
Q

CRAFT clearance

A

C- clearance
R- route
A - altitude
F - frequency ( for departure)
T - transponder

43
Q

Clearance void time

A

The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart.

44
Q

Hold for release

A

You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure.

45
Q

Release time

A

The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR.

46
Q

Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)

A

A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.

47
Q

Abbreviated departure clearance

A

Cleared (…) as filed (…)”

48
Q

STANDARD TERMINAL ARRIVAL (STAR)

A

Serves as a transition between the en route structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made.
■ Transition routes connect en route fixes to the basic STAR procedure.
■ Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins.
■ As with a SID, you can state “NO STARs” in the remarks section of the flight plan, to avoid getting a clearance containing a STAR.
■ RNAV STARs require RNAV 1 performance.

49
Q

MIN IFR ALTITUDES

A

Except for takeoff or landing, or otherwise authorized
by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under
IFR below -
▷ Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment, or if none:
▷ Mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course.
▷ Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.

50
Q

What is the DA/H

A

Decision Altitude / Height: the Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold), on an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around.

51
Q

What is the MAA

A

Maximum Authorized Altitude. Annotated “MAA-17000” (17,000ft as an example) on IFR charts.

52
Q

What is the MCA

A

Minimum Crossing Altitude

53
Q

What is the MDA /H

A

Minimum Decent Altitude / Height: The lowest Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold) to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing.

54
Q

What is MEA

A

Minimum En route Altitude: The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. An MEA gap establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated “MEA GAP” on IFR charts.

55
Q

What is MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage only up to 22 NM of the VOR.

56
Q

If both An MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route segment

A

A person may operate an aircraft lower than the MEA down to, but not below the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 NM of the VOR.

57
Q

What is the MORA

A

Minimum Off Route Altitude

58
Q

What does MORA provide

A

obstruction clearance within 10NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10NM radius at the ends of airways.

59
Q

What does a grid MORA do

A

provide obstruction clearance within a latitude / longitude grid block.

60
Q

What is a MRA

A

Minimum Reception Altitude

61
Q

What is a MTA

A

Minimum Turning Altitude: Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes. Annotated with the MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction.

62
Q

What is a MVA

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude: The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. MVAs may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs.

63
Q

What is an OROCA

A

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas. OROCA may not provide navigation or communication signal coverage.

64
Q

What are the 2 principles of a gyroscope

A

Rigidity in space and precession.

65
Q

What does an attitude indicator do

A

operates on the principle of rigidity in space. Shows bank and pitch information. Older AIs may have a tumble limit. Should show correct attitude within 5 minutes of starting the engine. Normally vacuum-driven in GA aircraft, may be electrical in others. May have small acceleration/deceleration errors (accelerate-slight pitch up, decelerate- pitch down) and roll-out errors (following a 180 turn shows a slight turn to the opposite direction).

66
Q

What does the heading indicator do

A

operates on the principle of rigidity in space. It only reflects changes in heading, but cannot measure the heading directly. You have to calibrate it with a magnetic compass in order for it to indicate correctly. HIs may be slaved to a magnetic heading source, such as a flux gate, and sync automatically to the present heading. Normally powered by the vacuum system in on GA aircraft.

67
Q

How does the turn indicator

A

operates on the principle of precession.

68
Q

What does the turn coordinators show

A

rate-of-turn and rate of roll.

69
Q

What does the turn and slip indicator show

A

Rate of turn only

70
Q

What does the aneroid barometer show

A

height above a given pressure level, based on standard pressure lapse rate of 1000’ per inch of mercury.

71
Q

Types of altitude

A
  • Indicated altitudes - altitude indicated on the local altimeter settings
  • pressure altitude - altitude when the plane is set to 29.92
  • Density altitude - pressure altitude correct for nonstandard temperature
  • True altitude - actual altitude above means sea level (MSL)
  • absolute altitude - heigh above airport elevation (AGL)
72
Q

VSI

A

Vertical speed indicator
- indicates rate of climb in FPM ( accurate after a 6-9 sec. Lag)
- a diaphragm inside the instru,ents connected directly to static source
- the area outside the diaphragm also receives static pressure, but via a calibrated leak
- this configuration essentially responds to static pressure change over stime
- as the diaphragm expands or contracts, a mechanical linkage moves the pointer needle to display the current rate of climb
- instantaneous VSI (IVSI) - solves the lag issue with the addiction of vertical accelerometers

73
Q

ASI

A

Airspeed indicator

The airspeed indicator measures the difference between impact (ram) air pressure from the pitot tube and ambient pressure from the static port. The result pressure is called dynamic pressure and corresponds to airspeed.
▷ Dynamic Pressure (airspeed) = Impact Pressure – Static pressure.
■ A diaphragm in the instrument receives ram pressure from the pitot tube. The area outside the diaphragm is sealed and connected to the static port. A mechanical linkage converts the expansion and contraction of the diaphragm to airspeed shown on the display dial.

74
Q

Types of airspeeds

A

■ Indicated airspeed (IAS) – indicated on the airspeed indicator
■ Calibrated airspeed (CAS) – IAS corrected for instrument & position errors.
■ Equivalent airspeed (EAS) – CAS corrected for compressibility error.
■ True airspeed (TAS) – Actual speed through the air. EAS corrected for nonstandard
temperature and pressure
■ Mach number – The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound.
■ Ground speed – Actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions.

75
Q

Static port blockages

A

■ Airspeed indicator – Indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude.
▷ Higher altitudes → airspeed indicates lower than it should. ( high show a climb )
▷ Lower altitudes → Indicates higher than it should. (Low shows a decent )
■ Altimeter – will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked.
■ VSI – freezes on zero.

▷ After verifying a blockage in the static port, you should use an alternate static source or break the VSI window (in which case, expect reverse VSI information).
■ When using the alternate static source (a lower static pressure is measured): ▷ Airspeed indicator – indicate a faster speed than it should.
▷ Altimeter – indicate higher than it should.
▷ VSI – momentarily show a climb.

76
Q

Pitot tube blockages

A

The only instrument affected is the airspeed indicator.
■ Ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open? Airspeed drops to zero.
■ Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged? The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable.
■ When suspecting a pitot blockage, consider the use of pitot heat to melt ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube.

77
Q

Airspeed indicator markings

A

■ White arc - Flap operating range. Starts at Vs0; ends at Vfe
■ Green arc - Normal operating range.Starts at Vs1; ends at Vno
■ Yellow arc - Caution range. Fly only in smooth air and only with caution.
■ Redline-Vne

78
Q

V- speeds

A

■ Va - Design maneuvering speed (98-113)
■ Vs - Stall speed, clean config.
■ Vs0 - Stall speed landing config. ( 45)
■ Vs1 - Stall speed specific config. (50)
■ Vfe - Max flap extended speed. (102)
■ Vno - Max structural cruise speed (125)
■ Vne - Never Exceed Speed (154)
■ Vx - Best angle of climb (87)
■ Vy - Best rate of climb (76)
■ Vr - best rotating speed (60)

79
Q

Compass errors

A

VDMONA
Variation
Deviation
Magnetic dip
Oscillation
Northerner turning errors ( UNOS )
Acceleration errors ( ANDS )

80
Q

Can we fly under IFR under basic med

A

Yes you can fly IFR under basic med

81
Q

Special VFR at night

A

Can’t fly more than 50 NM at night

82
Q

Closing IFR at untowered airport

A
  • if tower is operating they will cancel as soon as you land
  • If tower not operating Call flights service
  • Or if VMC you cancel with approach or who ever you were last talking to
83
Q

Where does ice build on firsts

A

Antennas and leading edges

84
Q

Type of transponder we have

A

Transponder 345r GTX ADSB in and out
ADSB out - you send out signals with your identification, position, and altitude and velocity
ADSB in - being able to receive that information
Transponder mode
- A * shows altitude
- S * shows altitude and separation
- C * have to have to enter mode C veil

85
Q

When you need a transponders

A
  • Within 30 NM of class A, B, or C airspace
  • and at 10,000 MSL or above
86
Q

Forward CG characteristic

A
  • more stable
  • less range
  • high fuel burn
  • lower airspeed
  • easier stall recovery
  • harder landing flare
87
Q

Aft CG characteristic

A
  • less stable
  • more range
  • less fuel burn
  • higher airspeed
  • harder stall recovery
  • easier landing flare
88
Q

Electronic flight instruments

A

■ Attitude Heading Reference Systems (AHRS) – Provides more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than
traditional separate gyro systems. The first AHRS units were very expensive and relied on laser gyros and flux valves. Today they are based on solid state technologies (no moving parts) and are cheaper, smaller and easier to maintain.
■ Air Data Computers (ADC) – replaces the mechanical pitot-static instruments. The ADC receives inputs from the pitot, static and outside temperature ports and computes airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed and altitude.
■ Flight director – computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot in flying selected heading, course or vertical speed.
■ Flight Management System (FMS) – Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director throughout the flight. The FMS also automatically monitors and selects the most appropriate navigation source for accurate positioning. (GPS, VOR/DME, INS etc.)
■ Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS) – AKA “Glass cockpit”.
■ Primary Flight Displays (PFD) – Displays flight data such as attitude, altitude, airspeed, VSI and heading as well as rate tapes.
■ Multi-Function Displays (MFD) – Displays a variety of information such as moving maps, aircraft system status, weather and traffic. It may also be used as a backup for other displays, such as the PFD or EICAS.

89
Q

Minimum equipment required for flight

A

91.205

For VFR day:
A T.O.M.A.T.O F.L.A.M.E.S

For VFR night:
All VFR day equipment + FLAPS

For IFR day: all VFR day equipment + GRABCARD

For IFR night: all VFR day + VFR night + GRABCARD

90
Q

Required equipment for IFR day

A

GRABCARD
- generator/alternator
- radio ( two- way navigation equipment appropriate for the route to be flown
- altimeter ( pressure sensitive )
- ball/brick ( slip-skid indicator)
- clock ( shows Hours, minutes, and seconds and is installed as part of aircraft equipment)
- attitude indicator
- rate of turn indicator
- directional Gyro ( heading indicator)

91
Q

If operation for hire over water

A

If beyond power off gliding distance from shore ( unless part 121)
■ An approved floatation device for each occupant
■ At least one pyrotechnic signaling device

For flight above FL240:
If VOR used, than DME or RNAV system is also required.

92
Q

Distance measuring equipment ( DME )

A

■ 962-1213 MHz (UHF).
■ Normally tuned automatically with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC).
■ The Airborne DME unit transmits an interrogation signal.
■ The ground DME facility receives and replies to the interrogation.
■ Airborne unit calculates the slant range distance to the station based on the reply time.
■ Due to slant range error, when flying overhead the station, DME indication is not “0”.
■ Slant range error is negligible at 1 NM from the DME station per every 1000ft. For example, at 5000 ft, slant range error is negligible when further than 5 NM of the station.

93
Q

Non- directional beacon (NDB)

A

■ Operates at the 190-535 kHz range (can receive and point towards commercial radio AM station at 550 -1650 kHz).
■ Low to medium frequency band.
■ ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) in aircraft points towards the NDB station.
■ Magnetic Bearing = Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing

94
Q

NDB service volume classes

A
  • compass locator * 15 NM
  • medium high (MH) * 25 NM
  • high (H) * 50 NM ( or less, as published in NOTAM or chart supplement
  • high High (HH) * 75 NM
95
Q

Compass locator

A

A low-powered NDN transmitter ( at least 25 watts and 15 NM range) installed at the OM or the MM on some ILS approaches

96
Q

RNAV

A

■ Allows navigation on any desired path without the need to overfly ground-based facilities.
■ Types:
▷ Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) (e.g., GPS, Galileo, GLONASS, BeiDou)
▷ VOR/DME RNAV
▷ DME/DME RNAV
▷ Inertial Reference Unit / System (IRU/ IRS)
■ RNAV VNAV - Vertical NAVigation guidance.
■ BARO-VNAV - An RNAV system that uses the barometric altitude to compute vertical guidance for the pilot.
■ Published RNAV routes include Q (FL180 to FL450) and T (1,200 AGL to 18,000 MSL) routes and are designated RNAV 1 unless charted otherwise.
■ Magnetic Reference Bearing (MRB) - the published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV route.

97
Q

Required navigation performance (RNP)

A

■ RNP is:
▷ A statement of navigation equipment and service performance.
▷ RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting.
■ All RNAV approaches are RNP approaches
▷ Most US RNP approaches are titled “RNAV (GPS)”.
▷ US Approaches with “RNAV (RNP)” in the title are “AR” (Authorization Required) approaches, which require special FAA approval for the crew, aircraft and operation.
▷ In other countries, all RNP approaches may have “RNP” in the title, even those that do not require special authorization.
RNP approach minimas and equipment:
■ GLS DA minimas using GBAS (formerly LAAS)
■ LP MDA or LPV DA minimas require RNP, achieved by WAAS.
■ LNAV / VNAV DA achieved by VNAV-approved WAAS, or BARO- VNAV systems.
■ LNAV MDA - achieved by a basic, unaugmented IFR-approved GPS.

98
Q

What is GPS

A

Global Positioning System

■ GPS is a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) operated by the United States.
■ The constellation consists of a minimum of 24 satellites
- The system is designed so that at least 5 satellites are in view

3 satellites- provides 2d position ( latitude and longitude )
4 satellites - provides 3d position ( latitude, longitude, and altitude )

99
Q

What is RAIM

A

receiver autonomous integrity monitoring
- is a function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals.
- raim fault detection has 5 satellites tells you if a satellite is bad
- raim fault detection and exclusion has 6 satellites and tells you when one is bad and replaces it

100
Q

GPS augmentation system, or differential GPD (DGPS)

A

Improves the accuracy of GPS by measuring error received by reference station at known geographical locations and the broadcasting those errors to support GOS receivers

Instrument (5 decks)

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