Pilots Cafe Flashcards

Question

How to file an IFR flight plan File

Answer 1

At least 30 minutes prior to estimated departure. Non- scheduled flights above FL230 should be filed at least 4 hours before est. departure time

Answer 2

- Towered airports- automatically cancelled by ATC union landing - Non- towered airports - pilots must contact ATC/FSS to cancel ( by radio or phone ) - can cancel anytime in flight if out of IMC and out of class A airspace - preferred IFR routes are published in the chart supplement

Answer 3

- Fuel from departure to destination airport - fuel from destination to most distant alternate - 45 minutes calculate at normal cruise

Answer 4

A destination alternate is always required, unless - an instrument approach is published and available for the destination, AND, - for at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA - ceiling will be at least 2000’ above airport elevation - visibility will be at least 3SM

Answer 5

The alternate airport minima published in the procedure charts, or, if none - precision approach 600 ft ceiling and 2sm of visibility - non-precision approach 800 ft ceiling and 2sm visibility - no instrument approach available at the alternate Ceiling and visibility must allow decent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR

Answer 6

- equipped with a non-WAAS GPS? You can flight plan based on GPS approaches at either the destination or the alternate, but not at both - WASS without baro-vnav? May base the flight plan on use of LNAV approach at both the destination and alternate - WAAS with baro- VNAV? May base the flight plan on use of LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 at both the destination and the alternate

Answer 7

Based on magnetic course 180-359 even thousands 0-179 odd thousands

Answer 8

No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations part 121, 125, 129, 135 - prescribed T/O minimums for the runway, or, if none: 1-2 engines airplanes: 1 SM visibility More than 2 engines: 1/2 SM visibility

Answer 9

- either textual or graphical - ensures obstacle clearance, provided: * the airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35 ft AGL * reaches 400ft AGL before turning * climbs at least 200ft per NM, or as published otherwise on the chart

Answer 10

MARVELOUSVFRC500 -Missed approach -Airspeed change +/- 10 knots of 5% -reading a holding fix -VFR on top (altitude change) - ETA change 2 min - leaving a holding fix - outer marking inbound - unforcasted weather - safety of flight - vacating altitude - FaV inbound - radio/ nav failures - compulsory reposting points - 500 unable to maintain 500 ft/min climb or decent

Answer 11

Pilots are encouraged to file a DP at night, during marginal VMC or IMC

Answer 12

Obstacles departure procedures (ODP) - provides only obstacle clearance - graphic ODPs will have (obstacle) printed in the chart total Standard instrument departure (SID) - in addition to obstacle clearance it reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearance and minimizing radio communications - some SIDS may depict special radio failure procedures

Answer 13

- non-RNAV - ( VOR, DME, NDB) - RNAV DP -(GPS, VOR/DME, DME/DME) - RADAR DP - ATC radar vector to an ATS

Answer 14

for use by aircraft equipped with ground-based navigation (i.e., VOR, DME, NDB).

Answer 15

for aircraft equipped with RNAV equipment (e.g., GPS, VOR/DME, DME/DME). Require at least RNAV 1 performance. Identified with the word “RNAV” in the title.

Answer 16

ATC radar vectors to an ATS route, NAVAID, or fix are used after departure. RADAR DPs are annotated “RADAR REQUIRED.”

Answer 17

You are not required to accept a DP. To avoid receiving one, state “NO SIDs” in remarks section of flight plan.

Answer 18

C- clearance R- route A - altitude F - frequency ( for departure) T - transponder

Answer 19

The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart.

Answer 20

You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure.

Answer 21

The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR.

Answer 22

A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.

Answer 23

Cleared (...) as filed (...)”

Answer 24

Serves as a transition between the en route structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made. ■ Transition routes connect en route fixes to the basic STAR procedure. ■ Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins. ■ As with a SID, you can state “NO STARs” in the remarks section of the flight plan, to avoid getting a clearance containing a STAR. ■ RNAV STARs require RNAV 1 performance.

Answer 25

Except for takeoff or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below - ▷ Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment, or if none: ▷ Mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course. ▷ Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.

Answer 26

Decision Altitude / Height: the Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold), on an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around.

Answer 27

Maximum Authorized Altitude. Annotated “MAA-17000” (17,000ft as an example) on IFR charts.

Answer 28

Minimum Crossing Altitude

Answer 29

Minimum Decent Altitude / Height: The lowest Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold) to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing.

Answer 30

Minimum En route Altitude: The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. An MEA gap establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated “MEA GAP” on IFR charts.

Answer 31

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage only up to 22 NM of the VOR.

Answer 32

A person may operate an aircraft lower than the MEA down to, but not below the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 NM of the VOR.

Answer 33

Minimum Off Route Altitude

Answer 34

obstruction clearance within 10NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10NM radius at the ends of airways.

Answer 35

provide obstruction clearance within a latitude / longitude grid block.

Answer 36

Minimum Reception Altitude

Answer 37

Minimum Turning Altitude: Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes. Annotated with the MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction.

Answer 38

Minimum Vectoring Altitude: The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. MVAs may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs.

Answer 39

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas. OROCA may not provide navigation or communication signal coverage.

Answer 40

Rigidity in space and precession.

Answer 41

operates on the principle of rigidity in space. Shows bank and pitch information. Older AIs may have a tumble limit. Should show correct attitude within 5 minutes of starting the engine. Normally vacuum-driven in GA aircraft, may be electrical in others. May have small acceleration/deceleration errors (accelerate-slight pitch up, decelerate- pitch down) and roll-out errors (following a 180 turn shows a slight turn to the opposite direction).

Answer 42

operates on the principle of rigidity in space. It only reflects changes in heading, but cannot measure the heading directly. You have to calibrate it with a magnetic compass in order for it to indicate correctly. HIs may be slaved to a magnetic heading source, such as a flux gate, and sync automatically to the present heading. Normally powered by the vacuum system in on GA aircraft.

Answer 43

operates on the principle of precession.

Answer 44

rate-of-turn and rate of roll.

Answer 45

Rate of turn only

Answer 46

height above a given pressure level, based on standard pressure lapse rate of 1000’ per inch of mercury.

Answer 47

* Indicated altitudes - altitude indicated on the local altimeter settings * pressure altitude - altitude when the plane is set to 29.92 * Density altitude - pressure altitude correct for nonstandard temperature * True altitude - actual altitude above means sea level (MSL) * absolute altitude - heigh above airport elevation (AGL)

Answer 48

Vertical speed indicator - indicates rate of climb in FPM ( accurate after a 6-9 sec. Lag) - a diaphragm inside the instru,ents connected directly to static source - the area outside the diaphragm also receives static pressure, but via a calibrated leak - this configuration essentially responds to static pressure change over stime - as the diaphragm expands or contracts, a mechanical linkage moves the pointer needle to display the current rate of climb - instantaneous VSI (IVSI) - solves the lag issue with the addiction of vertical accelerometers

Answer 49

Airspeed indicator The airspeed indicator measures the difference between impact (ram) air pressure from the pitot tube and ambient pressure from the static port. The result pressure is called dynamic pressure and corresponds to airspeed. ▷ Dynamic Pressure (airspeed) = Impact Pressure – Static pressure. ■ A diaphragm in the instrument receives ram pressure from the pitot tube. The area outside the diaphragm is sealed and connected to the static port. A mechanical linkage converts the expansion and contraction of the diaphragm to airspeed shown on the display dial.

Answer 50

■ Indicated airspeed (IAS) – indicated on the airspeed indicator ■ Calibrated airspeed (CAS) – IAS corrected for instrument & position errors. ■ Equivalent airspeed (EAS) – CAS corrected for compressibility error. ■ True airspeed (TAS) – Actual speed through the air. EAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure ■ Mach number – The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound. ■ Ground speed – Actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions.

Answer 51

■ Airspeed indicator – Indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude. ▷ Higher altitudes → airspeed indicates lower than it should. ( high show a climb ) ▷ Lower altitudes → Indicates higher than it should. (Low shows a decent ) ■ Altimeter – will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked. ■ VSI – freezes on zero. ▷ After verifying a blockage in the static port, you should use an alternate static source or break the VSI window (in which case, expect reverse VSI information). ■ When using the alternate static source (a lower static pressure is measured): ▷ Airspeed indicator – indicate a faster speed than it should. ▷ Altimeter – indicate higher than it should. ▷ VSI – momentarily show a climb.

Answer 52

The only instrument affected is the airspeed indicator. ■ Ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open? Airspeed drops to zero. ■ Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged? The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable. ■ When suspecting a pitot blockage, consider the use of pitot heat to melt ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube.

Answer 53

■ White arc - Flap operating range. Starts at Vs0; ends at Vfe ■ Green arc - Normal operating range.Starts at Vs1; ends at Vno ■ Yellow arc - Caution range. Fly only in smooth air and only with caution. ■ Redline-Vne

Answer 54

■ Va - Design maneuvering speed (98-113) ■ Vs - Stall speed, clean config. ■ Vs0 - Stall speed landing config. ( 45) ■ Vs1 - Stall speed specific config. (50) ■ Vfe - Max flap extended speed. (102) ■ Vno - Max structural cruise speed (125) ■ Vne - Never Exceed Speed (154) ■ Vx - Best angle of climb (87) ■ Vy - Best rate of climb (76) ■ Vr - best rotating speed (60)

Answer 55

VDMONA Variation Deviation Magnetic dip Oscillation Northerner turning errors ( UNOS ) Acceleration errors ( ANDS )

Answer 56

Yes you can fly IFR under basic med

Answer 57

Can’t fly more than 50 NM at night

Answer 58

- if tower is operating they will cancel as soon as you land - If tower not operating Call flights service - Or if VMC you cancel with approach or who ever you were last talking to

Answer 59

Antennas and leading edges

Answer 60

Transponder 345r GTX ADSB in and out ADSB out - you send out signals with your identification, position, and altitude and velocity ADSB in - being able to receive that information Transponder mode - A * shows altitude - S * shows altitude and separation - C * have to have to enter mode C veil

Answer 61

- Within 30 NM of class A, B, or C airspace - and at 10,000 MSL or above

Answer 62

- more stable - less range - high fuel burn - lower airspeed - easier stall recovery - harder landing flare

Answer 63

- less stable - more range - less fuel burn - higher airspeed - harder stall recovery - easier landing flare

Answer 64

■ Attitude Heading Reference Systems (AHRS) – Provides more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional separate gyro systems. The first AHRS units were very expensive and relied on laser gyros and flux valves. Today they are based on solid state technologies (no moving parts) and are cheaper, smaller and easier to maintain. ■ Air Data Computers (ADC) – replaces the mechanical pitot-static instruments. The ADC receives inputs from the pitot, static and outside temperature ports and computes airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed and altitude. ■ Flight director – computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot in flying selected heading, course or vertical speed. ■ Flight Management System (FMS) – Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director throughout the flight. The FMS also automatically monitors and selects the most appropriate navigation source for accurate positioning. (GPS, VOR/DME, INS etc.) ■ Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS) – AKA “Glass cockpit”. ■ Primary Flight Displays (PFD) – Displays flight data such as attitude, altitude, airspeed, VSI and heading as well as rate tapes. ■ Multi-Function Displays (MFD) – Displays a variety of information such as moving maps, aircraft system status, weather and traffic. It may also be used as a backup for other displays, such as the PFD or EICAS.

Answer 65

91.205 For VFR day: A T.O.M.A.T.O F.L.A.M.E.S For VFR night: All VFR day equipment + FLAPS For IFR day: all VFR day equipment + GRABCARD For IFR night: all VFR day + VFR night + GRABCARD

Answer 66

GRABCARD - generator/alternator - radio ( two- way navigation equipment appropriate for the route to be flown - altimeter ( pressure sensitive ) - ball/brick ( slip-skid indicator) - clock ( shows Hours, minutes, and seconds and is installed as part of aircraft equipment) - attitude indicator - rate of turn indicator - directional Gyro ( heading indicator)

Answer 67

If beyond power off gliding distance from shore ( unless part 121) ■ An approved floatation device for each occupant ■ At least one pyrotechnic signaling device For flight above FL240: If VOR used, than DME or RNAV system is also required.

Answer 68

■ 962-1213 MHz (UHF). ■ Normally tuned automatically with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC). ■ The Airborne DME unit transmits an interrogation signal. ■ The ground DME facility receives and replies to the interrogation. ■ Airborne unit calculates the slant range distance to the station based on the reply time. ■ Due to slant range error, when flying overhead the station, DME indication is not “0”. ■ Slant range error is negligible at 1 NM from the DME station per every 1000ft. For example, at 5000 ft, slant range error is negligible when further than 5 NM of the station.

Answer 69

■ Operates at the 190-535 kHz range (can receive and point towards commercial radio AM station at 550 -1650 kHz). ■ Low to medium frequency band. ■ ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) in aircraft points towards the NDB station. ■ Magnetic Bearing = Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing

Answer 70

- compass locator * 15 NM - medium high (MH) * 25 NM - high (H) * 50 NM ( or less, as published in NOTAM or chart supplement - high High (HH) * 75 NM

Answer 71

A low-powered NDN transmitter ( at least 25 watts and 15 NM range) installed at the OM or the MM on some ILS approaches

Answer 72

■ Allows navigation on any desired path without the need to overfly ground-based facilities. ■ Types: ▷ Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) (e.g., GPS, Galileo, GLONASS, BeiDou) ▷ VOR/DME RNAV ▷ DME/DME RNAV ▷ Inertial Reference Unit / System (IRU/ IRS) ■ RNAV VNAV - Vertical NAVigation guidance. ■ BARO-VNAV - An RNAV system that uses the barometric altitude to compute vertical guidance for the pilot. ■ Published RNAV routes include Q (FL180 to FL450) and T (1,200 AGL to 18,000 MSL) routes and are designated RNAV 1 unless charted otherwise. ■ Magnetic Reference Bearing (MRB) - the published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV route.

Answer 73

■ RNP is: ▷ A statement of navigation equipment and service performance. ▷ RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting. ■ All RNAV approaches are RNP approaches ▷ Most US RNP approaches are titled “RNAV (GPS)”. ▷ US Approaches with “RNAV (RNP)” in the title are “AR” (Authorization Required) approaches, which require special FAA approval for the crew, aircraft and operation. ▷ In other countries, all RNP approaches may have “RNP” in the title, even those that do not require special authorization. RNP approach minimas and equipment: ■ GLS DA minimas using GBAS (formerly LAAS) ■ LP MDA or LPV DA minimas require RNP, achieved by WAAS. ■ LNAV / VNAV DA achieved by VNAV-approved WAAS, or BARO- VNAV systems. ■ LNAV MDA - achieved by a basic, unaugmented IFR-approved GPS.

Answer 74

Global Positioning System ■ GPS is a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) operated by the United States. ■ The constellation consists of a minimum of 24 satellites - The system is designed so that at least 5 satellites are in view 3 satellites- provides 2d position ( latitude and longitude ) 4 satellites - provides 3d position ( latitude, longitude, and altitude )

Answer 75

receiver autonomous integrity monitoring - is a function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals. - raim fault detection has 5 satellites tells you if a satellite is bad - raim fault detection and exclusion has 6 satellites and tells you when one is bad and replaces it

Answer 76

Improves the accuracy of GPS by measuring error received by reference station at known geographical locations and the broadcasting those errors to support GOS receivers

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