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Pilots Cafe 2 Flashcards

(98 cards)

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1
Q

Logging instrument time

A

A person can only long instrument time when the plane is being operated fly by reference instruments

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2
Q

An authorized instructor can log instrument flight time when instructing when…

A

While in actual instrument flight

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3
Q

What must be logged in the persons log book for logging an approach

A
  • Locations and type of approach of each instrument approach accomplished
  • He name of safty pilot is also equirectangular
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4
Q

Use of a full flight simulator for instrument training can…

A

Can only be used for training when an authorized instructor is present t observe and they sign the persons log book to verify the time is content

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5
Q

Recency of experience
- to act as PIC under IFR you need what…

A

66 HITS
- within 6 calendar months preceding the north of flight you need
- 6 instrument approaches
- that include at least 1 hold procedure and tasks
- with intercepting and tracking using navigational systems

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6
Q

Recency of experience
- you can complete the 66 HITS in…

A

An approved flight simulator that’s represents the category and class of the aircraft for the instrument rating privileges be maintained
- has to be done in simulated instrument conditions
- a flight instructor is not needed

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7
Q

Recency of experience
- not current looking back 6 months…

A

You can still log required “66 HITS” with a safety pilot ( under simulated conditions )

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8
Q

Safety pilot requirements

A
  • at least a private pilot in same cagegpry class
  • has adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft
  • aircraft use have a dual control system
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9
Q

Recency of experience
- not current looking back 12 months…

A
  • instrument proficiency check (IPC) by a CFII, FAA examiner, or other approved person is required
  • some IPC tasks, but not all, can be conducted in a approved Sim
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10
Q

Recency of experience
- to carry passengers as PIC

A
  • 3 takeoff and landings in same category, class, and type in the last 90 days
  • as well as 3 takeoff and landings to full stop within the time of of one hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise
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11
Q

To act as PIC

A

Flight review in the last 24 calendar months

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12
Q

Personal documents required for flight

A
  • pilot certificate
  • medical certificate
  • a valid government issued photo id
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13
Q

Aircraft documents required for flight

A

ARROWSPDC
- airworthiness certificate
- registration certificate
- radio station license ( if Flying out of the 48 contiguous states )
- operation limitations ( found in POH )
- weight and balance ( master found in POH )
- supplement ( g1000 supplement also found in POH )
- placards
- data plate ( regeneration number, serial number, model number, and manufacturer
- compass deviation card ( if you have a magnetic compass )

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14
Q

Aircraft maintenance inspections

A

AAVIATES
- airworthiness directions
- annal inspection ( every 12 calendar months )
- 100 hour inspection ( if for hire)
- altimeter ( 24 calendar months )
- transponder ( 24 calendar months)
- ELT ( inspected every 12 months, then replaced after 1hr of cumulative use of 50 % of its battery life )

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15
Q

Preflight Info required

A

NWKRAFT
- NOTAMs
- weather
- known traffic delays
- runway lengths of intended use
- alternates
- fuel requirements
- takeoff and landing performance

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16
Q

IFR flight plan requirements

A

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has ( in IMC )
- filed and IFR flight plan and
- received an appropriate ATC clearance

It is legal to fly IFR in uncontrolled airspace (class G)
Without a fight plan or clearance, however once you are airborne you must remain in uncontrolled airspace until you file a flight plan

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17
Q

How to file an IFR flight plan

A
  • FSS
  • 1-800 WX brief
  • over the radio
  • in person
  • www.1800wxbreif.com
  • foreflight
  • with ATC if no other means available
  • file at least 30 mins prior to estate departure
  • non- scheduled flights above FL230 should file at last 4 hours before EDT
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18
Q

Flight plan cancelation

A
  • towered airports - automatically canceled by ATC upon landing
  • non towered - pilot mist contact ATC/FCC to cancel (by radio or phone) within 30 minutes of landing
  • you can cancel. Anytime in flight if out of IMC and out of class A airspace
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19
Q

IFR minimum fuel requirements

A

Origin to destination + destination to most distant alternate + 45 minutes at normal cruise

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20
Q

When do you need an alternate

A

1-2-3 rule
An alternate is always required unless
- an instrument approach is published and available for the destination
- and 1 hour before to 1 hours after ETA
- ceilings are at least 2000’ above airports elevation and
- visibility will be at least 3 SM

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21
Q

Minimum weather conditions required at an airport to list as an alternate

A

The alternate airport minima published in the procedure chart, or, if none
- precision approach
* 600 ft ceiling and 2sm visibility
- Non-precision approach
* 800 ft ceiling and 2sm visibility
- non instrument approach available at the alternate
* ceiling and visibility must allow decent from MEA approach and landing under VFR

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22
Q

Filing an alternate - GPS consideration
Equipped with non-WAAS GPS

A

Filing an alternate - GPS consideration
Equipped with non-WAAS GPS

You can flight plan based on GPS approaches at either the destination of alternate but not at both

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23
Q

Filing an alternate - GPS consideration
WAAS without baro-VNAV

A

Filing an alternate - GPS consideration
WAAS without baro-VNAV

May base the flight plan on use of LNAV approached at both the destination and alternate

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24
Q

Filing an alternate - GPS consideration
WAAS with baro-VNAV

A

Filing an alternate - GPS consideration
WAAS with baro-VNAV

May base the flight plan on use of LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 both the destination and the alternate

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25
IFR cruising altitudes
- West ( 180-359) even thousands or flight levels - East ( 0-179) odd thousands or flight levels
26
IFR takeoff minimums part 91
No takeoff minimums part 91 operations
27
IFR takeoff minimums part 121, 125, 129, 135
- prescribed T/O minimums for the runway, or, if none - 2 or less engines: 1 SM of visibility - more than 2 engines: 1/2 SM visibility
28
Departure procedures
- either textual or graphical - need at least the textual DP - ensures obstacle clearance if… … - the airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35 ft AGL - reaches 400 ft AGL before turning, and - climbs at least 200 Feet per NM, or as published otherwise on he chart ( FPM = FPNM * groundspeed/60 )
29
When should a pilot file a DP
Pilots are encouraged to file a DP at night, during marginal VMC of IMC
30
Two types of DP ODP
Obstacle departure procedures (ODP) - provides only obstacle clearance - graphic ODPs will have OBSTACLE printed in the chart title
31
Two types of DP What is a SID
Standard instrument departure - in addiction to obstacle clearance it reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearance and minimizing radio communications - you can request no SID while filing - some SIDs may depict special radio failure procedures
32
DP categorized by equipment Non-RNAV DP
For use by aircraft equipment with ground-based navigation ( VOR, DME, NDB )
33
DP categorized by equipment RNAV DP
For aircraft equipment with RNAV equipment ( GPS, VOR/DME, DME ) -required at least RNAV 1 performance. Identified with the word RNAV in the title
34
DP categorized but equipment RADAR DP
- ATC radar vectors to an ATS route, NAVAID, or fix are used after departure. RADAR DPs are annotated “RADAR REQUIRED”
35
IFR departure clearance CRAFT
-clearance - route - altitude - frequency ( for departure ) - transponder code
36
What is clearance void time
The time at which your clearance void and after which you may not takeoff. - you must notify ATC within 30 mins after void time if not departed
37
What is “hold for release”
- you may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure
38
What is “release time”
- the earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR
39
What is “ expect partner clearance time “ ( EDCT )
- a runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT
40
What is a STAR
Standard terminal arrival area - its a transition between the en route to the approach so that the landing can be made -RNAV STAR - required RNAV 1 performance - can request no STARs
41
Minimum IFR altitudes
Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment, or if none - mountainous areas: 2000ft above highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM from the course ( each side to 8 total ) - Non-mountainous areas: 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course ( each side so 8 NM total )
42
IFR altitudes DA/H
Decision altitude (MSL) Or heigh (AGL) - on an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide weather to continue the approach of go around
43
IFR altitudes MAA
Maximum authorized altitude - on IFR charts
44
IFR altitudes MCA
minimum crossing altitude
45
IFR altitudes MDA/H
Minimum decent altitude (MSL) Height ( AGL) - to which descent is authorized on a non-pension approach until the pilot sees the visual reference for landing
46
IFR altitudes MEA
Minimum en route altitude - the lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements - MEA gap establishes area of loss in navigation coverage and is annotated “MEA GAP” on IFR chart
47
IFR altitudes MOCA
Minimum obstruction clearance altitude - provides obstacle clearance an navigational coverage up to 22 NM of the VOR
48
IFR altitudes If both the MEA and a MOCA are prescribed
A person may operate an aircraft lower than the MEA down to, but not below the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 NM of the VOR
49
IFR altitudes MORA
Minimum off route altitude - provide obstacle clearance with 10NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10 NM radius at the the end of airways -Grid MORA: provides obstruction clearance within a latitude/ longitude grid block
50
IFR altitudes MRA
Minimum reception altitude
51
IFR altitudes MTA
Minimum turning altitude - provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes
52
IFR altitudes MVA
Minimum vectoring altitude - the lowest altitude at which an IFR IFR craft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs
53
IFR altitudes OROCA
Off route obstruction clearance altitude - provides obstruction clearance with a 1000ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2000ft ft in mountainous area - not provides navigation or communication signal coverage
54
Types of altitudes Indicated altitude
When altimeter is set to local prepare settings
55
Types of altitudes Pressure altitudes
Altitude above the standard 29.92 (set when above 18,000ft)
56
Types of altitudes Density altitude
- Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature ( used for performance calculations ) - what the plane feels like its flying in
57
Types of altitudes True altitude
Actual altitude above means sea level (MSL)
58
Types of altitudes Absolute altitude
height above the ground (AGL)
59
Types of speed Indicated airspeed (IAS)
Indicated on the airspeed indicator
60
Types of speed Calibrated airspeed (CAS)
Indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position error
61
Types of speed Equivalent airspeed (EAS)
Calibrated airspeed correct for compressibility error
62
Types of speed True airspeed (TAS)
Actual speed through the air equivalent airspeed corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure
63
Types of speed Mach number
The ratio of TAS to the local sound of speed
64
Types of speed Ground speed
Actual speed over the ground TAS corrected for wind condition
65
Static port blockages
- airspeed indicator: opposite so reads high in a decent low in a climb - altimeter: will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked -VSI: freezing on when it was blocked
66
Pitot tube blockages
Only affects the airspeed indicator - ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open: airspeed dropped to zero - both ram air and drain hole blocked: airspeed will read high in a climb and low in a decent
67
What happens when the alt static source is used
- airspeed indicator reads high - altimeter reads high - Vertical speed indicator momentarily shows a climb
68
What are the V-speeds
Va- maneuvering speed 98-113 Vs0- stall speed landing configuration 45 Vs1 - stall peed specific configuration 50 Vfe- man flaps extended speed 102 Vno- man structural cruise speed (smooth air) 125 Vne- never exceed speed 154 Vx- best angle to climb 76 Vy- best rate of climb 64 Vg- best glide 76
69
Magnetic compass errors VDMONA
Variation- true north vs magnetic north Deviation- instrument errors Magnetic dip - as you approach poll comps wants to dip Oscillation - turbulence, engine , and all the other errors Northerly turning errors - UNOS undershoot north over shoot south ‘ Acceleration errors - ANDS accelerate north decelerate south
70
What gives the G1000 its information
ADHARS
71
What are the ADHARS
Air data computer and attitude heading reference system
72
What does the air data computer control
Pitot static instruments -airspeed indicator -vertical speed indicator -altimeter (altitude)
73
What does the attitude heading reference system control
The gyroscopic instrument - The horizontal situational indicator (HSI) - Rae of turn - slip/skid - attitude
74
Where does the attitude and heading reference system get its information from
Magnetometers, inclinometers, accelerometers, and rate sensors
75
What minimum equipment required for instrument flight For IFR day
91.205 All VFR day equipment + GRABCARD -generator/alternator - radio (two way communication) - altimeter ( pressure sensitive ) - ball/ brick - clock ( built into plane and has HH:MM:SS ) - Attitude indicator - rate of turn indicator - directional gyros ( heading indicator )
76
Minimum equipment for IFR night
For IFR night All VFR day + VFR night + GRABCARD
77
What is DME
Distance measuring equipment Uses slant lines/ lines of sight to measure from the base station to the aircraft
78
What is a NDB
Non-directional beacon
79
What is the cone of confusing
Right over top of the VOR where the flap is turning to-from or from-to
80
‘What is a VOR
Very high frequency Omni directional range
81
VOR checks
Performed every 30 days A VOR check sign off includes - date - Bearing error - place - signature
82
What are the different type of VOR checks
- VOT +- 4 (testing facility)(frequency 108.0, 0 degrees from/ 180 to) (182) - repair station +- 4 - VOR ground check +- 4 - VOR airborne check +- 6 - dual VOR +- 4
83
What is area navigation
RNAV - allows navigation on any desired path without the needs to over fly ground based facilities
84
Types of area navigation RNAV
- global navigation satellite system (GNSS) - VOR/DME RNAV - DME/DME RNAV - inertial reference unit/system -RNAV VNAV: vertical navigation guidance - BARO-VNAV: an RNAV system that uses the barometric altitude to compute vertical guidance for the pilot
85
Required navigation performance (RNP)
Applys to all RNAV approaches Ensures 95% accuracy in modes mode Non-WAAS WAAS Enroute (>30nm) 5NM 2NM Terminal (30-2NM) 1NM. 1NM Approach (2NM -FAF) . 3NM .3NM
86
What is GPS
Global positional system -24 satellites in the constellation -3 satellites 2D location -4 satellites 3D position
87
What is RIAM
Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring - a function of GPS that monitors the integrity of the satellites signals
88
What is RAIM fault detection
Uses 5 satellites to detect the integrity of the satellites and tell you there’s a bad one
89
What is fault detection and exclusion
Requires 6 satellites and detects the bad satellite and tells you and then disconnects it and replaces it
90
What is WAAS
Wide area augmentation system - The airplane sends its location to the satellite -which then sends down to a ground based receiver that corrects for clock and position error - that is then sent to a master station that re computes the message - that is then sent to a geo uplink that goes back to the satellite - and then from the satellite into the airplanes WAAS receiver
91
What is RNAV
A system that enables navigation between any two points without the need to overlay ground based station
92
What is RNP
Required navigation performance - for all RNAV approaches - ensures 95% accuracy Mode WAAS non-WASS En route:(>30nm) 2 NM 5NM Terminal:( 30-2nm) 1NM 1NM Approach:(2-FAF) .3NM .3NM
93
What is PBN
Performance based navigation - PBN is a general basis for navigation equipment standards, in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and functionality for specific operation context (e.g.: final approach, enroute, missed approach)
94
What is GNSS
A broad term for satellite-based RNAV systems - GPS is the GNSS operated by the USA
95
Tell me about the localizer
Non pension approach - provides lateral course guidance - width 3-6 degrees so threshold is 700ft - coverage range: 35 degrees to each side of center line for the first 10NM and 10 degrees for up to 18 NM and goes up to 4500’
96
What is a glide slope
Provides vertical guidance - range: typically up to 10 nm - slope typically 3 degrees
97
Common instrument errors
- Fixation - omission - emphasis
98
What are the mandatory reporting points
MARVELOUS VFR C500 -missed approach point - airspeed change of +- 10 kts or 5% - reaching a holding fix - VFR on top - ETA change of +- 3 min - leaving a holding fix - outer marker ( or fix in lieu of it)] - un-forecasted weather - safety of flight - vacating an altitude - final approach fix - radio/ nav failures - compulsory reporting points - 500 unable to climb or descend of 500fpm

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