Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

P-8A Plane Captain > Plane Captain > Flashcards

Plane Captain Flashcards

0
Q

How long are fuel samples good for?

A

24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

When are fuel samples required?

A

Prior to flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who can sign for inspected fuel samples?

A 
Qualified aircrew
Shift supervisor
CDI
CDQAR
QAR/QA Specialist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many fuel sample points are there on a P-8?

A

8.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the 3% limit during fueling?

A

Air to fuel ratio to allow room for expansion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you transfer fuel using fuel boost pumps?

A

Turn on the pump in the flight station that you want to draw fuel from. Then, on the defueling station outside on the starboard wing, open the panel and move the switch down. On the refueling panel, select the tank you want fuel to go to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the proper PPE used during refueling?

A

Splash proof goggles
Rubber gloves
Sleeves down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What fuels are used on a P-8 and what are their NATO codes?

A 
JP-5 = F-44
JP-8 = F-34
Jet-A = F-30
Jet-A1 = F-35
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many fuel tanks are there?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the different tank groups?

A

Main 1, Main 2, Center, Mid tank group, Forward tank group (3), Aft tank group (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Can you service the P-8 on battery power only?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the limitations for servicing aircraft fuel on battery power only?

A

You only have 30 seconds after the fuel panel is open to hook up and begin refueling. After 30 seconds, the fuel valve will close and you will have to restart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many GALLONS can the surge tanks hold?

A

37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many fuel pumps are on the P-8?

A

Seven.

Two AC powered boost pumps in each main and center tank. And one DC powered pump in Main 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What must you ensure about the hose before refueling? Why?

A

Make sure that there is no tension on the hose.
Tension on the hose can cause damage to the fuel receptacle and cause the hose to disconnect.
Injuries to personnel and damage to equipment may occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Can you start the APU during refueling operations?

A

Yes. As long as it is the initial start or restart after normal shutdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Can you restart the APU if it fails during refueling?

A

No. Wait until refueling is complete and then try again.

Not waiting may cause damage to the APU or injury to personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which tanks must be full before filling the FWD and AFT aux tanks?

A

Main 1, 2, and center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Safe distance during refuel/defuel: adjacent aircraft engine or APU?

A

50 ft (15 m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Safe distance during refuel/defuel: fuel service equipment?

A

Measured from engine or exhaust system 10 ft (3.0 m) from fuel vents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Safe distance during refuel/defuel: ground power units?

A

20 ft (6 m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Safe distance during refuel/defuel: aircraft servicing equipment?

A

Measured from engine or exhaust system 10 ft (3 m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Safe distance during refuel/defuel: electrical equipment that is likely to cause arcs and sparks

A

50 ft (15 m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Safe distance during refuel/defuel: photographic equipment?

A

10 ft (3 m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Safe distance during refuel/defuel: battery powered equipment?

A

10 ft (3 m) from fuel servicing equipment or fuel spills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Safe distance during refuel/defuel: open flames, heat sources, lighted smoking material, and any other potential ignition sources?

A

50 ft (15 m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If the center tank contains more than 1000 lbs do you fill Main 1 and Main 2 fully?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of hydraulic fluid is used on the P-8?

A

Skydrol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How many hydraulic systems are there? What are they?

A

Three. Systems A, B and standby.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is operated by hydraulic power?

A

Flight controls, autopilot, nose wheel steering, brakes, landing gear, weapon bay doors, thrust reversers and power transfer units (PTU.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is the standby reservoir serviced?

A

Through system B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the servicing limits for the hydraulic system?

A

The reservoir gauges must not pass the full mark or be below the rf line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which hydraulic system is used to charge the brake accumulator?

A

System B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where is the brake accumulator located?

A

Starboard side wheel well aft bulkhead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the two ways to service the hydraulic systems?

A

Hand pump in the wheel well or Skydrol Servicing Unit (SSU.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which is the preferred method for servicing hydraulics?

A

SSU (Skydrol servicing unit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Can you drop flaps with 1000 lbs of fuel in each Main tank? Why?

A

No. A minimum of 1675 lbs of fuel is required to use the hydraulic pumps (hydraulic cooling.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What two types of power does the APU provide?

A

Pneumatic and electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How many fire bottles does the APU have?

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the purpose of the DC boost pump on APU startup?

A

A DC-operated APU fuel boost pump is installed to ensure positive fuel pressure to the APU fuel control unit. During APU start and operation, the pump operates automatically when the aircraft fuel system pressure sensors detect low fuel pressure. The pump shuts off automatically when an AC fuel pump pressurizes the fuel manifold. If the AC and DC fuel pumps are not operating, fuel is suction fed from Main 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate between what temperatures prior to normal EGT rise?

A

0 - 1,100 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How long may the APU start cycle take?

A

60-120 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What controls and monitors the APU?

A

The ECU (electronic control unit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How many KVA’s does the APU supply?

A

90 KVA up to 32,000 ft

66 KVA up to 41,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the different levels for APU oil?

A

Full: 5.7 qts.
Add: 4.3 qts.
Low: 3.8 qts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of engines are on a P-8?

A

Two CFM56-7B high bypass, dual rotor, axial flow turbofan engines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the maximum oil consumption per hour for the engines?

A

25.6 oz/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the inlet hazard area of a P-8 engine?

A

10 foot radius from inlet and 4 ft aft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

By how much is the inlet hazard area increased when winds are over 25 knots?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What type of oil is used to service the P-8?

A

Mil-prf 23699 Mobil jet II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When can you get an accurate oil service reading for the engine?

A

5 - 30 minutes after engine shutdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the maximum thrust the P-8 can produce per engine?

A

27,300 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When do you stop servicing engine oil?

A

When you reach the lower fill mark on the servicing gauge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is required to be done prior to opening the engine cowling doors during daily inspections?

A

Standby hydraulics and leading edges must be locked out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How many KVA does each IDG supply to the P-8?

A

180 KVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What type of landing gear is on a P-8?

A

Tricycle type with air/oil shock struts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the function of a thermal fuse plug and where are they located?

A

Prevent tire explosion caused by hot brakes. Melt to release tire pressure at approximately 390F (199C).
In the inner wheel half.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How do you identify worn brakes?

A

When brake wear indicator pins are flush with brakes set.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When are tires required to be replaced?

A 
If there is a soft spot
bulge
crack or cut showing cord
flat spot showing cord
tread worn beyond limit
or tire pressure drops below 10% of nominal pressure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How many shimmy dampeners are located on the P-8 and where are they located?

A

Two.

One on each main landing gear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What acts as a shimmy dampener on the nose landing gear?

A

Nose wheel steering.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the brakes on the P-8 made of?

A

Carbon fiber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the purpose of the retention cable?

A

Holds brakes on the MLG together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What lights are required to operate for flight?

A 
Emergency lights, 
wing tip strobes, 
wing tip red and green, 
taxi lights, 
retractable and fixed landing lights, 
anti-collision lights.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which lights will be on while radar is running?

A

Position lights
Taxi light
Wing tip strobes
Anti-collision lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the base and ground frequencies?

A
  1. 0 for base (VP-45 maint.)

315. 8 for ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What breaker must be pulled to establish comms with base when media is NOT loaded?

A

Comms 3 for Alt UHF radio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where is the HF antenna located?

A

Leading edge of vertical stabilizer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the height of the P-8?

A

42’9”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the wingspan of the P-8?

A

123’6”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How long is the P-8?

A

129’6” without the MAD boom.

131’2” with.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does SPDS CDU stand for?

A

Secondary power distribution system control display unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How many degrees do the flaps extend to?

A

40 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How many spoilers are located on the P-8?

A

12, 6 per wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How many BRU’s are on the P-8?

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where are BRU 3 and 4 located on the P-8?

A

On the belly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the emergency procedure for an APU fire during refueling?

A
  1. Stop the fueling operation
  2. Perform emergency shutdown of the APU if it does not shut down automatically
  3. Notify personnel on board of the aircraft, airport fire services, and maintenance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the procedure for an APU fire with crewmembers inside aircraft?

A
  1. APU fire switch - Pull, rotate to stop, and hold for one second.
  2. APU switch - off
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the procedure for an APU fire with crewmembers outside aircraft?

A
  1. Proceed to APU Ground Control Panel in starboard wheel well
  2. Pull APU Fire Control handle
  3. Push BOTTLE DISCHARGE switch left
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the emergency procedure for engine tailpipe fire?

A
  1. Move engine start lever to cutoff
  2. Advise mission crew
  3. Request ground fire-fighting equipment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When does an engine tailpipe fire occur?

A

On the ground with no engine fire warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What type of RADAR does the P-8 use?

A

APY10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the safe distance for personnel from the RADAR?

A

250 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is nominal pressure for the main landing gear tires?

A

224 +- 5 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is nominal pressure for the nose landing gear?

A

208 +- 5 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What must be installed before towing the aircraft?

A

The nose wheel steering pin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the maximum turning radius of the nose wheel?

A

78 degrees indicated by a red line on the nose landing gear doors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How would you turn the nose wheel past 78 degrees?

A

Remove the torsion link on the nose wheel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How would you turn the nose wheel past 90 degrees?

A

Remove the torsion link and disconnect the taxi light assembly on the nose wheel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What must be done prior to and after a plane move?

A

Brief and debrief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How would you tow the P-8 if wall power is down and you are towing out of the hangar?

A

Use two chock walkers until out of the hangar and brakes can be charged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How many personnel are required for a plane move in and out of the hangar?

A

Seven.

Director, 2 wing walkers, 1 tail walker, brake rider, tow tractor driver, E-6 safe for flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the procedure for a tow bar separation?

A

Driver will pull off at a 45 degree angle and the director will signal the brake rider to slowly apply brakes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Why must you tow the P-8 10 feet in a straight line after a turn?

A

To release torsional loads on the main mounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What happens when one horn blows?

A

All horns blow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the correct position for the wing walker?

A

5 feet and slightly aft of the wingtip, always facing the direction of the plane’s movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the brake pressure range required for the brake rider?

A

1800-3000 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Approximately how many brake applications would you get from 1800-3000 psi?

A

1800 - Approximately 3 brake applications.

3000 - Approximately 6 brake applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What would you do if you were towing an aircraft and thunderstorm condition one occurred?

A

Director will signal driver and brake rider to apply brakes and everyone will board the plane and stay inside until T1 has been removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

When would a P-8 be towed from the main landing gear?

A

When towing with two flat tires on one main gear,
towing on soft ground,
Or towing up inclines more than 5 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Where is a huffer positioned for starting engines?

A

Aft of wing with exhaust facing away from aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the contaminants that may be present in aviation fuel tanks?

A 
Discoloration
Microbiological growth
Water
Cloudiness
Particulate matter
Emulsions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What procedure should you follow upon finding a fuel sample containing contaminants?

A

Retain sample
Drain 1 gallon into bucket
Take second sample
Notify maintenance control and down aircraft if unsatisfactory after second sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How do you clean fuel sample jars?

A

A solution of one part water to four parts alconox.
Clean jars with cotton wiper and solution.
Air dry.
Ensure free of residue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How much fuel is in a sample?

A

One pint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

How many fuel cells are on a P-8 and where are they located?

A
  1. 11 on each wing.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Why are JP-4 and Jet B fuels not allowed for servicing the P-8?

A

They are known for flaming out or degrading aircraft engines due to the kerosene and naphtha chemicals in them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What does OBIGGS stand for and what is its purpose?

A

Onboard inert gas generating system.

Provides nitrogen-enriched air to the fuel tanks to protect against ballistic threats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What does NEA stand for and what is its purpose?

A

Nitrogen Enriched Gas.

Keeps oxygen levels below 9% in the fuel tanks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Which fuel tanks can you fuel using battery power only?

A

Main 1, Main 2, and center tank.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What happens if the fuel level is too high in the surge tanks?

A

Fuel will drain out of the vent scoop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How many POUNDS of fuel will the surge tanks hold?

A

259 pounds.

112
Q

What pubs can be used for information on fuel samples?

A

NA 01-1A-35
NA 00-80T-109
AMM II Ch. 28 and Ch. 12
4790.2b Ch. 10

113
Q

What is the responsibility of the director during a plane move?

A

Takes full charge and assumes responsibility for the aircraft movement.

114
Q

What is the responsibility of wing/tail walkers?

A

Ensure ground safety locks and pins are installed.

Ensure wing/tail does not come in contact with any obstruction and to signal if clearance is doubtful.

115
Q

What is the responsibility of the tow tractor driver?

A

Pre-op tow tractor.
Slow, safe approach to aircraft.
Signal to director if problems arise (brake or steering failure.)

116
Q

What is the responsibility of a brake rider?

A

Ensures brake system is sufficient for move (brake wear and brake accumulator charge)

117
Q

Where should chock walkers be positioned?

A

Outside of wheels at all times. NEVER in position with wheels.

118
Q

What is the PPE required for an aircraft move?

A 
Cranial
Double hearing protection
Steel toe boots
Air horn
Reflective vest
119
Q

What is refill level for the hydraulic systems?

A

76%

120
Q

What is the maximum psi for servicing hydraulics?

A

75 psi

121
Q

Why should you not apply brakes in cold weather?

A

Could cause the O-rings to shrink and leak hydraulic fluid.

122
Q

What type of APU is found on the P-8?

A

Honeywell 131-9(B).

It is a self-contained gas turbine engine installed in a fireproof compartment in the tail of the aircraft.

123
Q

What information can be found on the MCDU regarding the APU?

A

Oil quantity
Serial number
Running hour

124
Q

What conditions cause the APU to shut down?

A

Overspeed (106%)
APU compartment fire
Low oil pressure

125
Q

Where is the inlet door for the APU located?

A

Starboard aft side of the aircraft.

126
Q

At what percentage does the APU inlet door close?

A

Begins closing at 30%

Immediately closes during an APU fire.

127
Q

What is an ADB?

A

Aircraft Discrepancy Book. It contains all the data related to maintenance and upkeep of the aircraft.

128
Q

What information can be found in the ADB regarding the APU?

A

Type of APU

Maintenance done to the unit.

129
Q

What light illuminates if the battery switch is used to shut down the APU?

A

Fault light

130
Q

How frequently should an APU be operated if not in preservation?

A

At least once every seven days. 3 in humid environments.

131
Q

In which AMM II chapter can information on APU operation be found?

A

49

132
Q

What is located on the P19 panel?

A

External electrical access and internal communication system (ICS) ports.

133
Q

Where is the P19 panel located?

A

Below the starboard flight deck window.

134
Q

What is the daily/turnaround card?

A

OPNAV 4790/38

135
Q

How long is a daily valid for?

A

72 hours, without flight or major maintenance.

136
Q

How long is a turnaround inspection good for?

A

24 hours. Not to exceed daily.

137
Q

What is Skydrol?

A

An advanced fire resistant aviation hydraulic fluid.

138
Q

When is the aircraft washed?

A

Every 90 days, during an A check.

139
Q

How many brake applications can you perform on a fully charged accumulator?

A

About 6 to 8.

140
Q

What does IDG stand for?

A

Integrated Drive Generator.

141
Q

What kind of information is found on the A sheet?

A 
Fuel grade and quantity.
Oil grade and consumption.
Ordnance.
Special equipment.
Oxygen levels.
142
Q

What is supposed to be removed and secured before low power turns?

A

Nose steering pins
Ladder raised
Close weapons bay panel

143
Q

What are the things that the pilots need to be cleared before launch.

A 
Aircraft pins (7)
Weapons bay doors closed
EO/IR Turret retracted
Pressurization
Engine starts and flight controls
144
Q

What is the 4790/141?

A

Acceptance sheet and inspections.

145
Q

What is the 4790/158?

A

Plane captain designation.

146
Q

What is the 4790/51?

A

SE Custody and Maintenance History Record.

147
Q

What is the 4790/52?

A

SE Pre-operational record.

148
Q

What is the 4790/102?

A

SE Licensing.

149
Q

What is the 4790/108?

A

SE Misuse and Abuse.

150
Q

What does TFR stand for?

A

Temporary flight restrictions.

i.e. 3% air/fuel ratio

151
Q

What does IFC stand for?

A

Intermediate Flight Clearance.

i.e. Fueling pressure

152
Q

What does MWS stand for?

A

Missile warning system.

153
Q

What does EWS stand for?

A

Early Warning System.

154
Q

What does UARRSI stand for?

A

Universal Aerial Refueling Receptacle Slipway Installation.

155
Q

What does IUT stand for?

A

Instructor Under Training.

156
Q

What does FCF stand for?

A

Functional Check Flight.

157
Q

What does SRL stand for?

A

Sonobuoy Rotary Launcher

158
Q

What does TCAS stand for?

A

Traffic Collision Avoidance System

159
Q

When the plane captain signs the A sheet, what is implied?

A

That he/she has personally inspected the aircraft in accordance with the applicable MRC/Task Cards and that all discrepancies have been annotated into the 4790/38.

160
Q

What do you do if you recover an aircraft with hot brakes?

A

Immediately signal the pilot for hot brakes and launch the aircraft back to the taxi way for cooling.

161
Q

What should be done if you are directing an aircraft and the pilot is not following your instructions?

A

Signal pilot to stop.

Have the flight line coordinator call maintenance control to contact the aircraft.

162
Q

What should be done if you are directing an aircraft move and you find a taxiing aircraft in your way.

A

Taxiing aircraft have the right of way.
Stop move evolution and apply brakes. Install chocks if necessary.
Allow taxiing aircraft to pass.

163
Q

What do you do in case of an engine fire during start-up?

A

Immediately signal pilot to cut engine power and signal for fire while pointing at engine.
Notify maintenance control to contact base fire department.

164
Q

What are the procedures for a fuel spill or active fuel leak on an aircraft?

A

Secure engines if applicable.
Notify maintenance control.
Contain spill.

165
Q

If you are launching an aircraft and lightning is occurring in your surroundings, what do you do?

A

Pass command to the PPC and go inside.

Notify maintenance control.

166
Q

What is the maximum turn radius for push-back?

A

75 degrees.

167
Q

How far must you tow an aircraft after a turn and why?

A

10 feet. To relieve torsional loads.

168
Q

How many static wicks are on the P-8A and where at the located?

A

19.
4 per wing
3 per horizontal stab
5 on vertical stab

169
Q

Where are the oxygen blowout discs?

A

Starboard side nose by copilot window and one lower towards belly.

170
Q

Where is the standby hydraulic pump motor?

A

Ground maintenance panel.

171
Q

Which spoilers are used in flight?

A

2-5 and 8-11

172
Q

Which spoilers are used on ground?

A

Most inboard and outboard (1, 6, 7, 12)

173
Q

How do you count engine blades?

A

Number one has a stamp, then count counterclockwise.

174
Q

Who is the plane captain program manager?

A

LtJG Mowrey

175
Q

How do you differentiate between an SE Fire and an engine fire?

A

For SE fires you will point at the ground and indicate fire with the opposite hand.

176
Q

What are the oxygen limitations?

A

1400-1800 psi

177
Q

What are some programs listed in the NAMP that apply as a Plane Captain?

A 
Fuel surveillance
Oil consumption
Tire & Wheel maintenance safety program
FOD prevention
Tool control
Plane Captain qualification program
Support equipment operator training and licensing
178
Q

Who can administer initial and semi-annual monitors?

A

Only a QAR with the Plane Captain qualification.

179
Q

What is the ramp load for the P-8?

A

41,000 lbs.

180
Q

What is the total fuel capacity of the P-8A?

A

71,039 pounds.

181
Q

What must be done if engines are not serviced within the 30 minute time constraint after engine shutdown?

A

Engines must be turned to increase oil temp.

182
Q

What must be done if hydraulic reservoirs are found to be serviced unevenly after flight?

A

A MAF must be initiated for the hydraulics to be serviced appropriately.

183
Q

Can personnel walk on an active taxiway during a plane move?

A

No.

184
Q

Where is the PCMCIA Card located?

A

In the Multi-Function Data Acquisition Unit (MFDAU) inside the E-E bay. (E3-2 shelf)

185
Q

What pins are located in the nose wheel well?

A

ALE-47 pin, nose wheel steering pin, and landing gear pin.

186
Q

What are some symptoms of a tailpipe fire?

A

Lots of smoke.

Possibility of fuel on fire falling to ground.

187
Q

What are some symptoms of an engine fire?

A

Smoke from panels.

Flames visible in engine.

188
Q

What is the exhaust hazard area at idle?

A

100 feet from the tail of the aircraft.

189
Q

What is the exhaust hazard area at breakaway?

A

510 feet from the tail of the aircraft.

190
Q

Who is the FOD Prevention program manager?

A

ADC Gloyd

191
Q

What is the purpose of the fire bottles on the flight line?

A

For aiding with evacuation only.

192
Q

Why should you not use CO2 on hot brakes?

A

CO2 causes rapid cooling and could cause an explosion.

193
Q

Who designates the FOD Prevention Program Manager?

A

The Maintenance Officer

194
Q

Per the NAMP, how often are FOD walk-downs required?

A

Prior to the first flight of the day and throughout the day as required.

195
Q

What inspections are required if an observer reports sighting FOD entering the engine inlet?

A

A visual and boroscope inspection.

196
Q

How long after an engine FOD incident does an incident report need to be submitted?

A

Within 5 working days of discovery.

197
Q

How often is base wide FOD walk down?

A

Once a quarter

198
Q

After being exposed in flight to severe dust and sand or volcanic ash, what must not happen?

A

The plane cannot enter the bird bath and the engine cannot be washed.

199
Q

Where must weapon’s warning placards be placed prior to flight?

A

In the flight station on the P-8 panel. They must remain their throughout preflight.

200
Q

What is the checklist used for APU operation?

A

NATOPS PCL (A1-P8AAA-NFM-500)

201
Q

What is the minimum amount of fuel required to be in main tank 1 to keep the boost pump inlet covered and why?

A

425 +/- 25 lbs.

Fuel vapors could ignite and cause a fire.

202
Q

What is the normal RPM when the APU is operating at 100%?

A

48,800 RPM

203
Q

Where does the APU receive power from?

A

Hot battery bus

204
Q

What happens at 60% during APU start-up?

A

The ECU de-energized the ignition unit.

205
Q

What fault codes can you clear on WBD without a maf?

A

32, 54, and 44.

206
Q

If a sonobuoy is visible when examine the chute, what is wrong and what should be done?

A

The SRL or SSL gate valve is stuck and the door is open.

Inform FLC, maintenance, and the AO’s.

207
Q

What qualifications do you need to complete the sign off for the PCMCIA card or daily/TA maf?

A

310 or 210 CDI/CDQAR/QAR

208
Q

What are the two When Discovered codes typically used by PC’s?

A

J- Daily Inspection

Or K- Preflight

209
Q

What must be done to operate the dump drain valve in cold weather?

A

You must melt the ice with heat around the sump to open the valve. An approved anti-ice additive may be used in the fuel.

210
Q

How long must you wait before taking fuel samples when the aircraft has been moved from a warm hangar to the outside where it is 32 degrees or lower?

A

1 hour.

211
Q

If the floodlight does not come on when opening the P16 panel with power available, what should you do?

A

Place the power switch in the ALT position. This bypasses the fueling power control switch.

212
Q

Which tanks cannot be fueled on battery power?

A

The aux tanks.

213
Q

The fuel quantity in the aft tank group shall be limited to a max of 6200 lbs unless what?

A

The center tank must contain at least 7400 lbs of fuel or the forward tank group must contain at least 3170 lbs of fuel.

214
Q

What is the maximum PSI for fueling aux tanks?

A

30 PSI

215
Q

When will the CDS show a message of IMBALANCE?

A

When there is a 1000 lb difference between main tanks for 60 seconds.

216
Q

Where does the fueling receipt get turned in to?

A

MATCON

217
Q

What are the tank capacities for the main and center tanks?

A

Main: 8,234 lbs each
Center: 27,932 lbs

218
Q

What color is skydrol?

A

Clear in appearance, but purple straight from the can.

219
Q

If vomiting is spontaneous from Skydrol infection, what should you ensure the sailor does?

A

Keeps his/her head below hips to prevent aspiration and maintain an open airway.

220
Q

Should vomiting be induced after Skydrol ingestion?

A

Nooooooo

221
Q

If a sailor is unconscious and ingests skydrol, what should you do?

A

Keep warm
Loosen clothing
GIVE NOTHING BY MOUTH
Seek medical help!!

222
Q

What airplane systems do standby hydraulics supply pressure to?

A

Thrust reversers
Standby rudder
Leading edge flaps and slats

223
Q

If there is a single hydraulic failure, can the weapons bay door still be opened?

A

Yes. The remaining system will drive opening/closing, but at reduced rates.

224
Q

Do not operate the electric motor driven pump for more than two minutes if the number one fuel tank contains less than how much fuel?

A

1675 lbs (250 gallons)

225
Q

Does the standby hydraulic system have an associated overheat light?

A

No

226
Q

What is the capacity of hydraulic system B’s reservoir?

A

10.7 gallons

227
Q

What is the capacity of hydraulic system A’s reservoir?

A

6.8 gallons

228
Q

What is the purpose of the power transfer unit system?

A

Supplies alternative hydraulic pressure to the leading edge flaps, slats and auto slat system if system b is depressurized.

229
Q

When is it okay to open the weapons bay on deck from the flight station?

A

When engine driven hydraulic pumps are in use.

230
Q

When inspecting the E&E compartment, what are three things to look for?

A

Fault lights
Moisture or condensation on components
Ducting integrity

231
Q

Prior to launching an aircraft, what should you ensure is one board and properly signed out to the aircrew?

A 
Aircraft key
Fuel packet
Four locks
Four locking assemblies
Nine pins
232
Q

What are the nine aircraft pins?

A 
3 landing gear
1 nose wheel steering
CMDS Pin
2 thrust reverser pins
Aft bailout door
Weapons bay
233
Q

Under normal circumstances, which pins will stay in the pouch?

A

2 thrust reverser

CMDS pin

234
Q

What is the publication for hand signals?

A

NA 00-80T-113

235
Q

Can a trainee sign for fuel samples or oil consumption?

A

Yes, but trainee must be written next to their signature and the qualified PC must sign as well.

236
Q

Who designates the FOD Prevention Program Manager?

A

The Maintenance Officer

237
Q

Per the NAMP, how often are FOD walk-downs required?

A

Prior to the first flight of the day and throughout the day as required.

238
Q

What inspections are required if an observer reports sighting FOD entering the engine inlet?

A

A visual and boroscope inspection.

239
Q

How long after an engine FOD incident does an incident report need to be submitted?

A

Within 5 working days of discovery.

240
Q

How often is base wide FOD walk down?

A

Once a quarter

241
Q

After being exposed in flight to severe dust and sand or volcanic ash, what must not happen?

A

The plane cannot enter the bird bath and the engine cannot be washed.

242
Q

Where must weapon’s warning placards be placed prior to flight?

A

In the flight station on the P-8 panel. They must remain their throughout preflight.

243
Q

What is the checklist used for APU operation?

A

NATOPS PCL (A1-P8AAA-NFM-500)

244
Q

What is the minimum amount of fuel required to be in main tank 1 to keep the boost pump inlet covered and why?

A

425 +/- 25 lbs.

Fuel vapors could ignite and cause a fire.

245
Q

What is the normal RPM when the APU is operating at 100%?

A

48,800 RPM

246
Q

Where does the APU receive power from?

A

Hot battery bus

247
Q

What happens at 60% during APU start-up?

A

The ECU de-energized the ignition unit.

248
Q

What fault codes can you clear on WBD without a maf?

A

32, 54, and 44.

249
Q

If a sonobuoy is visible when examine the chute, what is wrong and what should be done?

A

The SRL or SSL gate valve is stuck and the door is open.

Inform FLC, maintenance, and the AO’s.

250
Q

What qualifications do you need to complete the sign off for the PCMCIA card or daily/TA maf?

A

310 or 210 CDI/CDQAR/QAR

251
Q

What are the two When Discovered codes typically used by PC’s?

A

J- Daily Inspection

Or K- Preflight

252
Q

What must be done to operate the dump drain valve in cold weather?

A

You must melt the ice with heat around the sump to open the valve. An approved anti-ice additive may be used in the fuel.

253
Q

How long must you wait before taking fuel samples when the aircraft has been moved from a warm hangar to the outside where it is 32 degrees or lower?

A

1 hour.

254
Q

If the floodlight does not come on when opening the P16 panel with power available, what should you do?

A

Place the power switch in the ALT position. This bypasses the fueling power control switch.

255
Q

Which tanks cannot be fueled on battery power?

A

The aux tanks.

256
Q

The fuel quantity in the aft tank group shall be limited to a max of 6200 lbs unless what?

A

The center tank must contain at least 7400 lbs of fuel or the forward tank group must contain at least 3170 lbs of fuel.

257
Q

What is the maximum PSI for fueling aux tanks?

A

30 PSI

258
Q

When will the CDS show a message of IMBALANCE?

A

When there is a 1000 lb difference between main tanks for 60 seconds.

259
Q

Where does the fueling receipt get turned in to?

A

MATCON

260
Q

What are the tank capacities for the main and center tanks?

A

Main: 8,234 lbs each
Center: 27,932 lbs

261
Q

What color is skydrol?

A

Clear in appearance, but purple straight from the can.

262
Q

If vomiting is spontaneous from Skydrol infection, what should you ensure the sailor does?

A

Keeps his/her head below hips to prevent aspiration and maintain an open airway.

263
Q

Should vomiting be induced after Skydrol ingestion?

A

Nooooooo

264
Q

If a sailor is unconscious and ingests skydrol, what should you do?

A

Keep warm
Loosen clothing
GIVE NOTHING BY MOUTH
Seek medical help!!

265
Q

What airplane systems do standby hydraulics supply pressure to?

A

Thrust reversers
Standby rudder
Leading edge flaps and slats

266
Q

If there is a single hydraulic failure, can the weapons bay door still be opened?

A

Yes. The remaining system will drive opening/closing, but at reduced rates.

267
Q

Do not operate the electric motor driven pump for more than two minutes if the number one fuel tank contains less than how much fuel?

A

1675 lbs (250 gallons)

268
Q

Does the standby hydraulic system have an associated overheat light?

A

No

269
Q

What is the capacity of hydraulic system B’s reservoir?

A

10.7 gallons

270
Q

What is the capacity of hydraulic system A’s reservoir?

A

6.8 gallons

271
Q

What is the purpose of the power transfer unit system?

A

Supplies alternative hydraulic pressure to the leading edge flaps, slats and auto slat system if system b is depressurized.

272
Q

When is it okay to open the weapons bay on deck from the flight station?

A

When engine driven hydraulic pumps are in use.

273
Q

When inspecting the E&E compartment, what are three things to look for?

A

Fault lights
Moisture or condensation on components
Ducting integrity

274
Q

Prior to launching an aircraft, what should you ensure is one board and properly signed out to the aircrew?

A 
Aircraft key
Fuel packet
Four locks
Four locking assemblies
Nine pins
275
Q

What are the nine aircraft pins?

A 
3 landing gear
1 nose wheel steering
CMDS Pin
2 thrust reverser pins
Aft bailout door
Weapons bay
276
Q

Under normal circumstances, which pins will stay in the pouch?

A

2 thrust reverser

CMDS pin

277
Q

What is the publication for hand signals?

A

NA 00-80T-113

278
Q

Can a trainee sign for fuel samples or oil consumption?

A

Yes, but trainee must be written next to their signature and the qualified PC must sign as well.

P-8A Plane Captain (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions