PMP Study Guide CH01-CH12 Flashcards by Emil Freijd

Which organization has set the de facto standards for project management techniques?
A. PMBOK®
B. PMO
C. PMI®
D. PBO

C. The Project Management Institute (PMI®) is the industry-recognized standard for project management practices.

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The VP of marketing approaches you and requests that you change the visitor logon screen on the company’s website to include a username with at least six characters. This is considered which of the following?
A. Project initiation
B. Ongoing operations
C. A project
D. Project execution

B. Projects exist to create a unique product, service, or result. The logon screen in this question is not a unique product. A minor change has been requested, indicating that this is an ongoing operations function. Some of the criteria for projects are that they are unique, temporary with definitive start and end dates, and considered complete when the project goals are achieved.

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Your company manufactures small kitchen appliances. It is introducing a new product line of appliances in designer colors with distinctive features for kitchens in small spaces. These new products will be offered indefinitely starting with the spring catalog release. Which of the following is true?
A. This is a project because this new product line has never been manufactured and sold by this company before.
B. This is an ongoing operation because the company is in the business of manufacturing kitchen appliances. Introducing designer colors and features is simply a new twist on
an existing process.
C. This is an ongoing operation because the new product line will be sold indefinitely. It’s not temporary.
D. This is not a project or an ongoing operation. This is a new product introduction not affecting ongoing operations.

A. This is a project. The product line is new, which implies that this is a unique product—it hasn’t been done before. You can discern a definite start and end date by the fact that the new appliances must be ready by the spring catalog release.

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D. Progressive elaboration is the process of determining the characteristics and features of the product of the project. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed fashion.

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A project is considered successful when________.
A. The product of the project has been manufactured
B. The project sponsor announces the completion of the project
C. The product of the project is turned over to the operations area to handle the ongoing aspects of the project
D. The project achieves its objectives and meets the expectations of the stakeholders

D. A project is considered successful when it achieves its objectives and stakeholder needs and expectations are met.

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The VP of customer service has expressed concern over a project in which you’re involved. His specific concern is that if the project is implemented as planned, he’ll have to purchase additional equipment to staff his customer service center. The cost was not taken into consideration in the project budget. The project sponsor insists that the project must go forward as originally planned or the customer will suffer. Which of the following is true?
A. The VP of customer service is correct. Since the cost was not taken into account at the beginning of the project, the project should not go forward as planned. Project initiation should be revisited to examine the project plan and determine how changes can be made to accommodate customer service.
B. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the customer.
C. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the project sponsor.
D. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the VP of customer service.

B. Conflicts between stakeholders should always be resolved in favor of the customer. This question emphasizes the importance of identifying your stakeholders and their needs as early as possible in the project.

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Which of the following applies a set of tools and techniques used to describe, organize, and monitor the work of project activities to meet the project requirements?
A. Project managers
B. The PMBOK® Guide
C. Project management
D. Stakeholders

C. Project management brings together a set of tools and techniques to organize project activities. Project managers are the ones responsible for managing the project management processes.

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All of the following are true regarding multiphased relationships except for which one?
A. Planning for an iterative phase begins while the work of other phases is progressing.
B. Overlapping phases occur when more than one phase is being performed at the same time.
C. During sequentially phased projects, the previous phase must finish before the next phase can begin.
D. Phase reviews should occur at the end of every phase.

B. There are three ways phases can be performed in a multiphased project: sequential, iterative, and overlapping. Iterative is when more than one phase is being performed at the same time and overlapping occurs when one phase starts before the prior phase completes. All phases should perform a phase gate review.

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All of the following statements are true except for which one?
A. Programs are groups of related projects.
B. Project life cycles are collections of sequential, iterative, and overlapping project phases.
C. A project may or may not be part of a program.
D. Portfolios are collections of interdependent projects or programs.

D. Portfolios are collections of projects and/or programs. The projects or programs do not have to be directly related or interdependent to reside within the portfolio.

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You are a project manager for a large software development project. You are using an Agile approach to manage this project. The product owner has prioritized the backlog. How will team members be assigned this work?
A. They will choose items from the backlog list at the sprint planning meeting.
B. The project manager will assign work according to skill and availability.
C. They will choose items from the backlog list at the daily standup.
D. The Scrum master will assign work according to skill and availability.

A. Team members choose items from the backlog list to work on during the upcoming sprint at the sprint planning meeting.

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You’ve decided to try your hand at project management in the entertainment industry. You’re working on a movie production and the phases are performed sequentially. The team
has just completed the storyboard phase of the project. Which of the following is true?
A. The storyboard is a deliverable that marks the end of the phase.
B. The storyboard phase marks the end of the Initiating process group, and the next phase of the project should begin.
C. The writing phase can begin once the majority of the storyboard phase is complete.
D. The division of phases and determining which processes to use in each phase is called tailoring.

A. The storyboard is a deliverable. Because the phases are performed sequentially, the deliverable must be approved before the next phase of the project can begin.

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You are managing a project to install a new postage software system that will automatically print labels and administer postage for certified mailings, overnight packages, and other special mailing needs. You’ve attempted to gain the cooperation of the business analyst working on this project, and you need some answers. She is elusive and tells
you that this project is not her top priority. What should you do to avoid situations like this in the future?
A. Establish the business analyst’s duties well ahead of due dates, and tell her you’ll be reporting on her performance to her functional manager.
B. Establish the business analyst’s duties well ahead of due dates, and tell her you are expecting her to meet these expectations because the customer is counting on the project meeting due dates to save significant costs on their annual mailings.
C. Negotiate with the business analyst’s functional manager during the planning process to establish expectations and request to participate in the business analyst’s annual performance review.
D. Negotiate with the business analyst’s functional manager during the planning process to establish expectations, and inform the functional manager of the requirements of the project. Agreement from the functional manager will ensure the cooperation of the business analyst.

C. The best answer to this question according to the PMBOK ® Guide is to negotiate with the functional manager to participate in the business analyst’s annual performance review.
Option D is an appropriate response but doesn’t include the direction that the project manager should participate in the performance review.

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The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to all of the following except which one?
A. The organizational structure
B. The key stakeholder’s influence on the project
C. The interaction with various levels of management
D. The project management maturity level of the organization

B. The level of authority the project manager has is determined by the organizational structure, interactions with various management levels, and the project management maturity level of the organization.

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What is one of the advantages of a functional organization?
A. All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command.
B. All employees report to two or more managers, but project team members show loyalty to functional managers.
C. The organization is focused on projects and project work.
D. Teams are co-located.

A. Advantages for employees in a functional organization are that they have only one supervisor and a clear chain of command exists.

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You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to direct customer calls to an interactive voice response system before they are connected to a live agent. You are in charge of the media communications for this project. You report to the project manager in charge of this project and the VP of marketing, who share responsibility for this project.
Which organizational structure do you work in?
A. Functional organization
B. Weak matrix organization
C. Project-oriented organization
D. Balanced matrix organization

D. Employees in a balanced matrix often report to two or more managers. Functional managers and project managers share authority and responsibility for projects. There is a balance of power between the functional managers and project managers.

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You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to expand three miles of the north-to-south highway through your city by two lanes in each direction. You are in charge of the demolition phase of this project, and you report to the project manager in charge of this project. This project is producing deliverables in short periods of time. You work with the product owner. Your project team holds daily standup meetings and they hold retrospective meetings at the end of the working period. What methodology does this describe?
A. Iterative
B. Adaptive
C. Agile
D. Incremental

C. This question describes the Agile methodology, which uses daily standups, sprint planning meetings, and retrospectives, and works with a Scrum master and product owner.

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What are the five project management process groups, in order?
A. Initiating, Executing, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
B. Initiating, Monitoring and Controlling, Planning, Executing, and Closing
C. Initiating, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, Executing, and Closing
D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing

D. Remember the acronym that sounds like syrup of ipecac: IPECC (Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing).

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You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to expand three miles of the north-to-south highway through your city by two lanes in each direction. You are interested in implementing a new project process called Design-Build in order to speed up the project schedule. The idea is that the construction team will work on the first mile of the highway reconstruction at the same time the design team is coming up with plans for the third mile of the reconstruction rather than completing all design before any construction begins. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Managing the projects as a program
B. An iterative phase relationship
C. Progressive elaboration
D. Handoffs

B. An iterative phase relationship allows you to work more than one phase at a time.

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During which project management process group are risk and stakeholder’s ability to influence project outcomes the highest?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Monitoring and Controlling

C. The Initiating process group is where stakeholders have the greatest ability to influence outcomes of the project. Risk is highest during this stage because of the high degree of unknown factors.

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All of the following are true regarding a PMO except for which one?
A. There are three types of PMOs: supportive, controlling, and collaborative.
B. The PMO is often responsible for implementing the OPM.
C. The key purpose of the PMO is to provide support to project managers.
D. The PMO facilitates communication within and across projects.

A. The three types of PMOs are supportive, controlling, and directive.

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Which of the following statements is not true regarding EEFs and OPAs?
A. OPAs are external to the organization.
B. EEFs are outside the control of the project team.
C. Resource availability is an example of internal EEF.
D. Change control processes are an example of an OPA.

A. OPAs are internal to the organization. EEFs can be internal or external to the organization but they are always outside the control of the project team.

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You’ve been hired as a manager for the adjustments department of a nationwide bank based in your city. The adjustments department is responsible for making corrections to customer accounts. This is a large department, with several smaller sections that deal with specific accounts, such as personal checking or commercial checking. You’ve received your first set of management reports and can’t make heads or tails of the information. Each section appears to use a different methodology to audit their work and record the data for the management report. You request that a project manager from the PMO come down and get started right away on a project to streamline this process and make the data and reports consistent. This project came about as a result of which of the following?
A. Technological advance
B. Organizational need
C. Customer request
D. Legal requirement

B. This came about because of an organizational need. Staff members were spending unproductive hours producing information for the management report that wasn’t consistent or meaningful.

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What are the inputs to the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Agreements, business documents, EEFs, and OPAs
B. Business case, benefits management plan, and OPAs
C. Agreements, EEFs, and OPAs
D. Business case, benefits management plan, EEFs

A. Develop Project Charter has four inputs, and they are business documents, agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

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You work for a large manufacturing plant. Your firm is thinking of initiating a new project to release an overseas product line. This is the company’s first experience in the overseas
market, and it wants to make a big splash with the introduction of this product. The project entails producing your product in a concentrated formula and packaging it in smaller containers than the U.S. product uses. A new machine is needed in order to mix the first set of ingredients in the concentrated formula. Which of the following actions is the next best step the project sponsor should take?
A. The project sponsor should document the project’s high-level requirements in a project
charter document and recommend that the project proceed.
B. The project sponsor knows the project is a go and should document the description of the product in the business case.
C. The project sponsor should document the business need for the project and recommend that a feasibility study be performed to determine the viability of the project.
D. The project sponsor should document the needs and demands that are driving the project in a business case document.

C. The most correct answer is to perform a feasibility study. Because this project is taking the company into a new, unknown market, there’s lots of potential for error and failure. A feasibility study would help the stakeholders determine whether the project is viable and cost effective and whether it has a high potential for success.

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You are the project manager for Fun Days Vacation Resorts. Your new project assignment is to head up the Fun Days resort opening in Austin, Texas. You are estimating the duration of the project management plan activities, devising the project schedule, and monitoring and controlling deviations from the schedule. Which of the Project Management Knowledge Areas are you working in? A. Project Scope Management B. Project Quality Management C. Project Integration Management D. Project Schedule Management

D. Project Schedule Management involves the following processes: Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, and Control Schedule.

According to the PMBOK® Guide, all of the following options concerning the benefits management plan are true except for which one? A. Strategic alignment of benefits to the organizational goals B. Commercial databases C. Time frame in which the benefits will be realized D. Tangible and intangible benefits

B. The benefits management plan outlines the benefits of the project (both tangible and intangible), describes a timeline in which the benefits will be realized, and describes the strategic alignment of the benefits. Commercial databases are an example of an internal EEF.

Your nonprofit organization is preparing to host its first annual 5 K run/walk in City Park. You worked on a similar project for the organization two years ago when it cohosted the 10 K run through Overland Pass. Which of the organizational process assets might be most helpful to you on your new project? A. The organization’s marketing plans B. Historical information from a previous 10 K run or similar project C. The marketplace and political conditions D. The organization’s project management information systems

B. Historical information on projects of a similar nature can be helpful when initiating new projects. They can help in formulating project deliverables and identifying constraints and assumptions and will be helpful later in the project Planning processes as well.

Which of the following lists of processes belong to the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area? A. Define Scope, Close Project or Phase, and Manage Project Knowledge. B. Define Scope, Direct and Manage Project Work, and Manage Stakeholders Expectations. C. Develop Project Management Plan, Direct and Manage Project Work, and Perform Integrated Change Control. D. Define Project Charter, Collect Requirements, and Close Project or Phase.

C. The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area consists of the followingprocesses: Develop Project Charter, Develop Project Management Plan, Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Project Knowledge, Monitor and Control Project Work, Perform Integrated Change Control, and Close Project or Phase.

Which of the following describes project approval requirements? A. This describes what constitutes project success and how it will be measured. B. This describes the conditions that must be met in order to close the project. C. This is used in Agile project management to determine if a sprint is successful. D. This is determined by the project manager and documented in the project charter.

A. Option B describes the project exit criteria. Option C is not true, and Option D is partially true. The project manager does not dictate what the approval requirements are. The stakeholders and sponsor will come to an agreement on the success criteria, and the project manager may or may not have a voice in the decision.

You are the project manager for the Late Night Smooth Jazz Club chain, with stores in 12 states. Smooth Jazz is considering opening a new club in Arizona or Nevada. You have derived the following information: Project Arizona: The payback period is 18 months, and the NPV is (250). Project Nevada: The payback period is 24 months, and the NPV is 300. Which project would you recommend to the selection committee? A. Project Arizona, because the payback period is shorter than the payback period for Project Nevada B. Project Nevada, because its NPV is a positive number C. Project Arizona, because its NPV is a negative number D. Project Nevada, because its NPV is a higher number than Project Arizona’s NPV

B. Projects with NPV greater than 0 should be given an accept recommendation.

You are the project manager for the Late Night Smooth Jazz Club chain, with stores in 12 states. Smooth Jazz is considering opening a new club in Kansas City or Spokane. You have derived the following information: Project Kansas City: The payback period is 27 months, and the IRR is 6 percent. Project Spokane: The payback period is 25 months, and the IRR is 5 percent. Which project should you recommend to the selection committee? A. Project Spokane, because the payback period is the shortest B. Project Kansas City, because the IRR is the highest C. Project Spokane, because the IRR is the lowest D. Project Kansas City, because the payback period is the longest

B. Projects with the highest IRR value are favored over projects with lower IRR values.

Which of the following is true regarding NPV? A. NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital. B. NPV decisions should be made based on the lowest value for all the selections. C. NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate. D. NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate.

A. Net present value (NPV) assumes reinvestment is made at the cost of capital.

``` You are the project manager for Insomniacs International. Since you don’t sleep much, you get a lot of project work done. You’re considering recommending a project that costs $575,000; expected inflows are $25,000 per quarter for the first two years and then $75,000 per quarter thereafter. What is the payback period? A. 40 months B. 38 months C. 39 months D. 41 months ```

C. Year 1 and 2 inflows are each $100,000 for a total of $200,000. Year 3 inflows are an additional $300,000. Add one more quarter to this total, and the $575,000 is reached in three years and three months, or 39 months.

Which of the following is true regarding IRR? A. IRR assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital. B. IRR is not difficult to calculate. C. IRR is a constrained optimization method. D. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.

D. IRR assumes reinvestment at the IRR rate and is the discount rate when NPV is equal to 0.

Which of the following is not true regarding the purpose of a business case? A. It is an economic feasibility study that helps determine whether the investment in the project is worthwhile. B. It describes the need or demand that brought about the project. C. It describes how the benefits of the project will be measured and obtained. D. It contains the results of the benefit measurement methods that will assist in project selection.

C. The purpose of the business case is to understand the business need for the project and determine whether the investment in the project is worthwhile. This may include analysis using benefit measurement methods. The benefits, how they’re measured, and how they’re obtained are contained in the benefits management plan.

You are in the process of analyzing and visually representing your stakeholders. All of the following are true regarding these tools and techniques except for which one? A. The salience model is useful for displaying stakeholder analysis for small projects or straightforward stakeholder interactions. B. Data analysis includes stakeholder analysis and document analysis techniques. C. A power/interest grid displays stakeholder information in a quadrant format to display whether the stakeholder is a key player or is one who needs only periodic updates. D. Salience models are displayed as Venn diagrams.

A. Salience models are displayed as Venn diagrams but are more useful for large, complex projects. The power/interest grid is useful for smaller projects with uncomplicated stakeholder interactions.

Your selection committee is debating between two projects. Project A has a payback period of 18 months. Project B has a cost of $125,000, with expected cash inflows of $50,000 the first year and $25,000 per quarter after that. Which project should you recommend? A. Either Project A or Project B, because the payback periods are equal B. Project A, because Project B’s payback period is 21 months C. Project A, because Project B’s payback period is 24 months D. Project A, because Project B’s payback period is 20 months

B. Project B has a payback period of 21 months; $50,000 is received in the first 12 months, with another $75,000 coming in over each of the next three quarters, or nine months.

Which of the following is true? A. Discounted cash flow analysis is the least precise of the cash flow techniques because it does not consider the time value of money. B. NPV is the least precise of the cash flow analysis techniques because it assumes reinvestment at the discount rate. C. Payback period is the least precise of the cash flow analysis techniques because it does not consider the time value of money. D. IRR is the least precise of the cash flow analysis techniques because it assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.

C. Payback period does not consider the time value of money and is, therefore, the least precise of all the cash flow analysis techniques.

You are a project manager for Zippy Tees. Your selection committee has just chosen a project you recommended for implementation. Your project is to manufacture a line of miniature stuffed bears that will be attached to your company’s trendy T-shirts. The bears will be wearing the same T-shirt design as the shirt to which they’re attached. Your project sponsor thinks you’ve impressed the big boss and wants you to skip to the manufacturing process right away. What is your response? A. Agree with the project sponsor because that person is your boss and has a lot of authority and power in the company. B. Require that a preliminary budget be established and a resource list be put together to alert other managers of the requirements of this project. This should be published and signed by the other managers who are impacted by this project. C. Require that a project charter be written and signed off on by all stakeholders before proceeding. D. Suggest that a preliminary business case be written to outline the objectives of the project.

C. The project should be kicked off with a project charter that authorizes the project to begin, assigns the project manager, and describes the project objectives and purpose for the project. Doing so ensures that everyone is working with the same purposes in mind.

Which of the following is true regarding the project charter? A. The project charter should be issued by a manager external to the project. B. The project charter should be issued by a key stakeholder’s name. C. The project charter should be issued by the project manager. D. The project charter should be issued by the project sponsor

D. According to the PMBOK ® Guide, the project charter should be issued by the project sponsor or the project initiator.

You are a project manager for Laredo Pioneer’s Traveling Rodeo Show. You’re heading up a project to promote a new line of souvenirs to be sold at the shows. You are getting ready to write the project management plan and know you need to consider elements such as policies, rules, systems, relationships, and norms in the organization. Which of the following is not true? A. These describe the authority level of workers, fair payment practices, communication channels, and the like. B. This is part of the EEF input to this process. C. This describes management elements. D. This describes organizational governance framework.

A. The policies, rules, systems, relationships, and norms are part of the organizational governance framework, which is part of the EEF input for the Develop Project Management Plan process. Management elements include authority levels of works, disciplinary actions, chain of command, fair treatment, fair payment, communication channels, and safety of staff members.

Which of the following is true? A. You are a project manager for Laredo Pioneers’ Traveling Rodeo Show. You’re heading up a project to promote a new line of souvenirs to be sold at the shows. You’re ready to document the processes you’ll use to perform the project as well as define how the project will be executed, controlled, and closed. You are working on the project scope management plan. B. You are a project manager for Laredo Pioneer’s Traveling Rodeo Show. You’re heading up a project to promote a new line of souvenirs to be sold at the shows. You’re ready to document the processes you’ll use to perform the project as well as define how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. You are working on the product scope statement. C. You are a project manager for Laredo Pioneer’s Traveling Rodeo Show. You’re heading up a project to promote a new line of souvenirs to be sold at the shows. You’re ready to document the processes you’ll use to perform the project as well as define how the project will be executed and controlled and how changes will be monitored and controlled. You are working on the project management plan. D. You are a project manager for Laredo Pioneer’s Traveling Rodeo Show. You’re heading up a project to promote a new line of souvenirs to be sold at the shows. You’re ready to document the processes you’ll use to perform the project as well as define how the project will be executed, controlled, and closed. You are working on the project scope statement.

C. The project management plan describes the processes you’ll use to perform the project and describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled and how the work of the project will be executed to meet the objectives.

3. You are a project manager responsible for the construction of a new office complex. You are taking over for a project manager who recently left the company. The prior project manager completed the project scope statement and scope management plan for this project. In your interviews with some key team members, you conclude which of the following? A. The project scope statement assesses the stability of the project scope and outlines how scope will be verified and used to control changes. The team members know that project scope is measured against the product requirements and that the scope management plan is based on the approved project scope. B. The scope management plan describes how project scope will be managed and controlled and how the WBS will be created and defined. They know that product scope is measured against the product requirements and that the scope management plan is based on the approved project scope. C. The scope management plan is deliverables-oriented and includes cost estimates and stakeholder needs and expectations. They understand that project scope is measured against the project management plan and that the scope management plan is based on the approved project charter. D. The project scope statement describes how the high-level deliverables and requirements will be defined and verified. They understand that product scope is measured against the project management plan and that the scope management plan is based on the approved project charter.

B. The scope management plan describes how project scope will be defined and validated, how the scope statement will be developed, how the WBS will be created and defined, and how project scope will be managed and controlled. Project scope is measured against the project management plan, whereas product scope is measured against the product requirements. It is based on the approved project scope.

Unanimity, majority, plurality, and autocratic are four examples of which of the following techniques? A. Interpersonal and team skills, which is a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process B. Interviews, which is a tool and technique of the Define Scope process C. Facilitated workshops technique, which is a tool and technique of the Define Scope process D. Decision-making techniques, which is a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process

D. These four decision-making techniques belong to the Collect Requirements process and are part of the decision-making tool and technique in this process.

Which of the following is true regarding the project scope statement? A. The project scope statement includes a change control system that describes how to make changes to the project scope. B. The project scope statement further elaborates the details from the Initiating and Planning processes and serves as a basis for future project decisions. C. The project scope statement describes how the team will define and develop the work breakdown structure. D. The project scope statement assesses the reliability of the project scope and describes the process for verifying and accepting completed deliverables.

B. The project scope statement further elaborates the project deliverables and documents the product scope description, acceptance criteria, and project exclusions. It serves as a basis for future project decisions.

You are a project manager for an agricultural supply company. You have interviewed stakeholders and gathered requirements. Which of the following is true regarding the process to which this question refers? A. The requirements document lists the requirements and describes how they will be analyzed, documented, and managed throughout the project. B. Requirements documentation consists of formal, complex documents that include elements such as the business need of the project, functional requirements, nonfunctional requirements, impacts to others inside and outside the organization, and requirements assumptions and constraints. C. The requirements documentation details the work required to create the deliverables of the project, including deliverables description, product acceptance criteria, exclusions from requirements, and requirements assumptions and constraints. D. The requirements traceability matrix ties requirements to project objectives, business needs, WBS deliverables, product design, test strategies, and high-level requirements and traces them through to project completion.

D. The requirements traceability matrix links requirements to their origin and traces them throughout the project. Option A describes the requirements management plan, not the requirements document. Option B is partially true with the exception of the first statement. Requirements documents do not have to be formal or complex. Option C refers to the project scope statement, not the requirements.

Which of the following makes up the scope baseline when using a predictive life-cycle approach? A. The approved project scope statement B. The approved scope management plan and WBS C. The WBS, approved project scope statement, work packages, planning packages, and WBS dictionary D. The approved scope management plan, the WBS, work packages, planning packages, and the WBS dictionary

C. The scope baseline consists of the approved project scope statement, the WBS, work packages, planning packages, and the WBS dictionary.

Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming and lateral thinking? A. They are forms of expert judgment used to help define and develop requirements and develop the project scope statement. B. They are tools and techniques used to elaborate the product scope description. C. They are decision-making techniques, which are a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process. D. They are types of alternatives analysis techniques, which are a tool and technique of the Define Scope process.

D. Alternatives analysis is a part of the data analysis tool and technique of the Define Scope process that includes brainstorming and lateral thinking techniques.

Your company, Kick That Ball Sports, has appointed you as project manager for its new Cricket product line introduction. This is a national effort, and all the retail stores across the country need to have the new products on the shelves before the media advertising blitz begins. The product line involves three new products, two of which will be introduced together and a third one that will follow within two years. You are ready to create the WBS. All of the following are true except for which one? A. The WBS may be structured using each product as a level one entry. B. The WBS should be elaborated to a level where costs and schedule are easily estimated. This is known as the work package level. C. Rolling wave refers to how all levels of the WBS collectively roll up to reflect the work of the project and only the work of the project. D. Each level of the WBS represents verifiable products or results.

C. You could use each product as a level one entry on the WBS so Option A is correct, but you may choose to construct the WBS differently. Option C is not correct because rolling wave planning is the process of fully elaborating near-term WBS work packages and expanding others, like the third product in this question, at a later time when all information is known.

You are a project manager for Giraffe Enterprises. You’ve recently taken over for a project manager who lied about his PMI® certification and was subsequently fired. Unfortunately, he did a poor job of defining the scope. Which of the following could happen if you don’t correct this? A. The stakeholders will require overtime from the project team to keep the project on schedule. B. The poor scope definition will adversely affect the creation of the work breakdown structure, and costs will increase. C. The project management plan’s process for verification and acceptance of the deliverables needs to be updated as a result of the poor scope definition. D. The project costs could increase, there might be rework, and schedule delays might result.

D. Option A might seem like a correct answer, but Option D is more correct. There isn’t enough information to determine whether stakeholders will require overtime. We do know that poor scope definition might lead to cost increases, rework, schedule delays, and poor morale.

You are the project manager for Lucky Stars nightclubs. They specialize in live country and western band performances. Your newest project is in the Planning processes group. You are working on the WBS. The finance manager has given you a numbering system to assign to the WBS. Which of the following is true? A. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the WBS dictionary, which is used to assign quality control codes to the individual work elements. B. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the WBS dictionary, which is used to track the descriptions of individual work elements. C. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the control account, which is used to track time and resource assignments for individual work elements. D. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the code of accounts identifier, which is used to track the costs of the WBS elements.

D. Each element in the WBS is assigned a unique identifier called a code of accounts identifier. Typically, these codes are associated with a corporate chart of accounts and are used to track the costs of the individual work elements in the WBS.

You are a project manager working on a large, complex project. You’ve constructed the WBS for this project, and all of the work package levels are subprojects of this project. You’ve requested that the subproject managers report to you in three weeks with their individual WBSs constructed. Which statement is not true regarding your WBS? A. The work package level is decomposed to create the activity list. B. The work package level is the lowest level in the WBS. C. The work package level facilitates resource assignments. D. The work package level facilitates cost and time estimates.

A. The work package level is the lowest level in the WBS and facilitates resource assignment and cost and time estimates. In this question, the work package level contains four subprojects, so it would not be used to create the activity list. The activity list will be created from the work package level for each WBS created for each subproject.

You are a project manager working on a new software product your company plans to market to businesses. The project sponsor told you that the project must be completed by September 1. The company plans to demo the new software product at a trade show in late September and, therefore, needs the project completed in time for the trade show. However, the sponsor has also told you that the budget is fixed at $85,000, and it would take an act of Congress to get it increased. You must complete the project within the given time frame and budget. Which of the following is the primary constraint for this project? A. Budget B. Scope C. Time D. Quality

C. The primary constraint is time. Since the trade show demos depend on project completion and the trade show is in late September, the date cannot be moved. The budget is the secondary constraint in this example.

Which of the following statements about decomposition is the least true? A. Decomposition involves structuring and organizing the WBS so that deliverables are always listed at level one. B. Decomposition requires a degree of expert judgment and also requires close analysis of the project scope statement. C. Decomposition is a tool and technique used to create a WBS. D. Decomposition subdivides the major deliverables into smaller components until the work package level is reached.

A. Decomposition subdivides the major deliverables into smaller components. It is a tool and technique of the Create WBS process and is used to create a WBS. Level two components might be deliverables, phases, subprojects, or some combination.

You are in the process of translating project objectives into tangible deliverables and requirements. All of the following are techniques used in the product analysis tool and technique of the Define Scope process except which one? A. Value engineering and value analysis B. Product configuration and specification analysis C. Systems analysis and systems engineering D. Product breakdown and functional analysis

B. Product analysis includes techniques such as value engineering, value analysis, systems analysis, systems engineering, product breakdown, and functional analysis.

You are a project manager for a documentary film company. In light of a recent regional tragedy, the company president wants to produce a new documentary on the efforts of the heroic rescue teams to air as soon as possible. She’s looking to you to make this documentary the best that has ever been produced in the history of this company. She guarantees you free rein to use whatever resources you need to get this project done quickly. However, the best photographer in the company is currently working on another assignment. Which of the following is true? A. The primary constraint is time because the president wants the film done quickly. She told you to get it to air as soon as possible. B. Resources are the primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on resource use, you assume she didn’t mean those actively assigned to projects. C. The schedule is the primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on resource use, you assume she didn’t mean those actively assigned to projects. The photographer won’t be finished for another three weeks on his current assignment, so schedule adjustments will have to be made. D. The primary constraint is quality because the president wants this to be the best film ever produced by this company. She’s given you free rein to use whatever resources are needed to get the job done.

D. The primary constraint is quality. If you made the assumption as stated in Options A, B, and C, you assumed incorrectly. Clarify these assumptions with your stakeholders and project sponsors.

Your project depends on a key deliverable from a vendor you’ve used several times before with great success. You’re counting on the delivery to arrive on June 1. This is an example of a/an _______________ . A. constraint B. objective C. assumption D. requirement

C. This is an example of an assumption. You’ve used this vendor before and haven’t had any problems. You’re assuming there will be no problems with this delivery based on your past experience.

What limits the options of the project team? A. Technology B. Constraints C. Deliverables D. Assumptions

B. Constraints restrict the actions of the project team.

Your company provides answering services for several major catalog retailers. The number of calls coming into the service center per month has continued to increase over the past 18 months. The phone system is approaching the maximum load limits and needs to be upgraded. You’ve been assigned to head up the upgrade project. Based on the company’s experience with the vendor who worked on the last phone upgrade project, you’re confident they’ll be able to assist you with this project as well. Which of the following is true? A. You’ve made an assumption about vendor availability and expertise. The project came about because of a business need. B. Vendor availability and expertise are constraints. The project came about because of a business need. C. You’ve made an assumption about vendor availability and expertise. The project came about because of a market demand. D. Vendor availability and expertise are constraints. The project came about because of a market demand.

A. The project came about because of a business need. The phones have to be answered because that’s the core business. Upgrading the system to handle more volume is a business need. An assumption has been made regarding vendor availability. Always validate your assumptions.

Which of the following is not a major step of decomposition? A. Identify major deliverables. B. Identify resources. C. Identify components. D. Verify correctness of decomposition.

B. The steps of decomposition include identify major deliverables, organize and determine the structure, identify lower-level components, assign identification codes, and verify correctness of decomposition.

You are the project manager for Changing Tides video games. You have gathered the inputs for the Estimate Activity Durations process. Which of the following tools and techniques will you employ to produce the outputs for this process? A. Activity list, expert judgment, alternatives analysis, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three-point estimating, and meetings B. Activity list, expert judgment, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, bottom-up estimating, decision-making techniques, and three-point estimating C. Expert judgment, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three-point estimating, bottom-up estimating, data analysis, decision making, and meetings D. Expert judgment, data analysis, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three point estimating, bottom-up estimating, and decision making

C. The tools and techniques for Estimate Activity Durations are expert judgment, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three-point estimating, bottom-up estimating, data analysis (alternatives analysis, reserve analysis), decision making, and meetings.

You are the project manager for Changing Tides video games. You have produced a project schedule network diagram and have updated the project documents, including the activity list, activity attributes, assumption log, and milestone list. Which process have you just finished? A. The Define Activities process, which identifies all the specific activities of the project B. The Sequence Activities process, which identifies all the activity dependencies C. The Develop Schedule process, which diagrams project network time estimates D. The Estimate Activity Durations process, which estimates activity durations

B. The Sequence Activities process produces project schedule network diagrams and project documents updates, which include updating the activity list, activity attributes, assumption log, and milestone list. The purpose of this process is to identify all activity dependencies.

Your project’s primary constraint is quality. To make certain the project team members don’t feel too pressed for time and to avoid schedule risk, you decide to use which of the following activity estimating tools? A. Three-point estimates B. Analogous estimating C. Reserve analysis D. Parametric estimating

C. Reserve analysis takes schedule risk into consideration and adds a percentage of time or additional work periods to the estimate to prevent schedule delays.

You have been hired as a contract project manager for Grapevine Vineyards. Grapevine wants you to design an Internet wine club for its customers. One of the activities for this project is the installation and testing of several new servers. You know from past experience it takes about 16 hours per server to accomplish this task. Since you’re installing 10 new servers, you estimate this activity to take 160 hours. Which of the estimating techniques have you used? A. Parametric estimating B. Analogous estimating C. Bottom-up estimating D. Reserve analysis

A. Parametric estimating uses an algorithm or formula that multiplies a known element-such as the quantity of materials needed-by the time it takes to install or complete one unit of materials. The result is a total estimate for the activity. In this case, 10 servers multiplied by 16 hours per server gives you a 160-hour total duration estimate.

All of the following statements describe the activity list except which one? A. The activity list is an output of the Define Activities process. B. The activity list includes all activities of the project. C. The activity list is an extension of and a component of the WBS. D. The activity list includes an identifier and description of the activity.

C. The activity list is a component of the project schedule, not the WBS. The activity list includes all the project activities, an identifier, and a description of the activity. The activity list is an output of the Define Activities process.

D. This is an example of a mandatory dependency, also known as hard logic. Mandatory dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work. Discretionary dependencies, also called preferred logic, preferential logic, and soft logic, are defined by the project management team.

You are the project manager for Design Your Web Site, Inc. Your company is designing the website for a national grocery store chain. You have your activity list in hand and are ready to diagram the activity dependencies using the PDM technique. Which of the following statements is true? A. PDM is also the AON diagramming method, and it uses, one-time estimate. B. PDM is also the AOA diagramming method and uses logical relationships. C. PDM is also the ADM diagramming method, and its most common logical relationship is finish-to-start. D. PDM is also the GERT method, which allows for conditions, branches, and loops.

A. The precedence diagramming method is also known as the activity on node (AON) diagramming method. GERT stands for Graphical Evaluation and Review Technique, a diagramming method that allows for conditions, branches, and loops.

You are working on a project that requires resources with expertise in the areas of hospitality, management, and entertainment. You are preparing your project schedule network diagram and know that you will use only finish-to-start dependencies. Which of the following diagramming methods does this describe? A. PDM B. ADM C. AON D. Network template

B. The arrow diagramming method uses only finish-to-start dependencies.

Which logical relationship does the PDM use most often? A. Start-to-finish B. Start-to-start C. Finish-to-finish D. Finish-to-start

D. Finish-to-start (FS) is the most commonly used logical relationship in PDM and the default relationship in most project management software packages.

You are a project manager for Picture Shades, Inc. Your company manufactures window shades that have replicas of Renaissance-era paintings for hotel chains. Picture Shades is taking its product to the home market, and you’re managing the new project. It will offer its products at retail stores as well as on its website. You’re developing the project schedule for this undertaking and have determined the critical path. Which of the following statements is true? A. You calculated the most likely start date and most likely finish dates, float time, and weighted average estimates. B. You calculated the activity dependency and the optimistic and pessimistic activity duration estimates. C. You calculated the early and late start dates, the early and late finish dates, and float times for all activities. D. You calculated the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely duration times and the float times for all activities.

C. CPM calculates a single early and late start date and a single early and late finish date for each activity. Once these dates are known, float time is calculated for each activity to determine the critical path. The other answers contain elements of PERT calculations.

B. The only information you have for this example is activity duration; therefore, the critical path is the path with the longest duration. Path A-D-E-H with a duration of 34 days is the critical path.

Use the following graphic to answer this question. If the duration of activity B was changed to 10 days and the duration of activity G was changed to 9 days, which path is the critical path? (See Pic 4-2) A. A-B-C-E-H B. A-D-E-H C. A-F-G-H D. A-F-G-E-H

D. The only information you have for this example is activity duration, so you must calculate the critical path based on the durations given. The duration of A-B-C-E-H increased by 3 days, for a total of 35 days. The duration of A-F-G-H and A-F-G-E-H each increased by 3 days. A-F-G-E-H totals 36 days and becomes the new critical path.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the critical path? A. It should not be compressed. B. It allows for looping and branching. C. The critical path technique is the same as PERT. D. It’s the duration of all tasks with zero or negative float.

D. You calculate the critical path by adding together the durations of all the tasks with zero or negative float. The critical path can be compressed using crashing techniques.

You are a project manager for Move It Now trucking company. Your company specializes in moving household goods across the city or across the country. Your project involves upgrading the nationwide computer network for the company. Your lead engineer has given you the following estimates for a critical path activity: 60 days most likely, 72 days pessimistic, 48 days optimistic. What is the weighted average or expected value? A. 54 B. 66 C. 60 D. 30

C. The calculation for PERT is the sum of optimistic time plus pessimistic time plus four times the most likely time divided by 6. The calculation for this example is as follows: [48 + 72 + (4 × 60)] / 6 = 60.

D. You calculate the standard deviation by subtracting the optimistic time from the pessimistic time and dividing the result by 6. The calculation for this example is as follows: (72 – 48) / 6 = 4.

If you know the expected value is 500 and the standard deviation is 12, you can say with approximately a 95 percent confidence rating which of the following? A. The activity will take from 488 to 512 days. B. The activity will take from 464 to 536 days. C. The activity will take from 494 to 506 days. D. The activity will take from 476 to 524 days.

D. There is a 95 percent probability that the work will finish within plus or minus two standard deviations. The expected value is 500, and the standard deviation times 2 is 24, so the activity will take from 476 to 524 days.

If your expected value is 110 and the standard deviation is 12, which of the following is true? A. There is approximately a 99 percent chance of completing this activity in 86 to 134 days. B. There is approximately a 68 percent chance of completing this activity in 98 to 122 days. C. There is approximately a 95 percent chance of completing this activity in 98 to 122 days. D. There is approximately a 75 percent chance of completing this activity in 86 to 134 days.

B. A 68 percent probability is calculated using plus or minus one standard deviation, a 95 percent probability uses plus or minus two standard deviations, and a 99 percent probability uses plus or minus three standard deviations.

You are the project manager working on a research project for a new drug treatment. Your preliminary project schedule runs past the due date for a federal grant application. The manager of the R&D department has agreed to release two resources to work on your project to meet the federal grant application date. This is an example of ___________. A. Crashing B. Fast tracking C. Resource leveling D. Adjusting the resource calendar

A. Crashing the schedule includes tasks such as adding resources to the critical path tasks or speeding up deliveries of materials and resources.

You are the project manager for Rivera Gourmet Adventure Vacations. Rivera combines the wonderful tastes of great gourmet food with outdoor adventure activities. Your project involves installing a new human resources software system. Your stakeholders understand this is a large undertaking and that you might experience some schedule slippage. Jason, the database analyst working on this project, is overallocated. He is critical to the success of the project and you don’t want to burn him out by overscheduling him. Which of the following actions should you take? A. You should use fast tracking to smooth out resource overallocation. B. You should use crashing to resource level the critical path tasks. C. You should use resource leveling to balance out resource assignments. D. You should use resource smoothing to smooth out resource assignments.

C. Resource leveling is used for overallocated resources and allows for changes to the schedule completion dates. Crashing and fast tracking are schedule compression techniques that shorten the schedule. Resource smoothing techniques will not allow for changes to the critical path or project end date, and since you are concerned about not overusing this resource, lengthening the schedule is a better option.

What is one of the problems with project management software? A. The project manager manages the software instead of the project. B. Project duration calculations are sometimes approximate. C. You cannot override the project management software decisions regarding schedules. D. It’s expensive and difficult to use.

A. Project management software is a useful tool for the project manager, and it automates project scheduling, allowing for what-if analysis and easy changes. But if you focus too much on the tool and ignore the project, the tool becomes a hindrance.

All of the following are true regarding the stakeholder engagement plan except for which one? A. The stakeholder engagement plan helps to define and manage the flow of information to the stakeholders. B. The stakeholder engagement plan is developed by analyzing needs, interests, and potential impacts of the stakeholders. C. The stakeholder engagement plan includes details regarding the distribution of information, reasons for distributing information, and timing of the information. D. The stakeholder engagement plan is created using tools and techniques such as expert judgment, meetings, and analytical techniques.

B. Ambiguity risk is addressed using gap analysis or benchmarking. Document what you know, and identify what is uncertain or not understood and work with experts outside of the organization to fill in the gaps in knowledge.

This document is used to establish the criteria for planning, estimating, budgeting, and controlling costs. A. Cost baseline, an output of the Determine Budget process. The cost baseline is based on the approved project charter, project scope, schedule, resources, and human resource management plan in order to manage project costs. B. Performance management baseline, an output of the Plan Cost Management process. The performance management baseline is based on the project scope, schedule, resources, and human resource management plan to manage project costs. C. Project funding requirements, an output of the Determine Budget process. Project funding is based on the project scope, schedule, resources, and other information in order to manage project costs. D. Cost management plan, an output of the Plan Cost Management process. The cost management plan is based on the approved project charter, schedule, and risk management plan in order to manage project costs.

C. The purpose of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is to determine what impact the identified risk events will have on the project and the probability they’ll occur. It also puts risks in priority order according to their effects on the project objectives and assigns a risk score for the project.

You are a project manager working for iTrim Central and you’re preparing your cost management plan. You know that all of the following are true regarding this plan except for which one? A. The WBS provides the framework for this plan. B. Units of measure should be described in the plan usually as hours, days, weeks, or lump sum. C. This plan is a subsidiary of the project management plan. D. Control thresholds should be described in the plan as to how estimates will adhere to rounding ($100 or 1,000, and so on).

B. The risk management plan details how risk management processes will be implemented, monitored, and controlled throughout the life of the project. The risk management plan does not include responses to risks or triggers. Responses to risks are documented in the risk register as part of the Plan Risk Responses process.

You are a project manager working for iTrim Central. Your organization has developed a new dieting technique that is sure to be the next craze. One of the deliverables of your feasibility study was an analysis of the potential financial performance of this new product, and your executives are very pleased with the numbers. You will be working with several vendors to produce products, marketing campaigns, and software that will track customers’ progress with the new techniques. For purposes of performing earned value measurements for project costs, you are going to place which of the following in the WBS? A. Chart of accounts B. Code of accounts C. Control account D. Reserve account

C. Continuous probability distributions graphically display the probability of risk to the project objectives as well as the time or cost elements.

Which of the following options is the key component of determining cost estimates and should be completed as early in the project as possible? A. Scope definition B. Resource requirements C. Activity cost estimates D. Basis of estimates

D. The data representation tool and technique called a bubble chart is a way to graphically display three factors of risk characteristics.

You want to improve your cost estimates by taking into account estimation uncertainty and risk. Which of the following tools and techniques will you use? A. Analogous estimates B. Three-point estimating C. Parametric estimates D. Bottom-up estimates

C. Criticality analysis determines the risk impact to critical path tasks on the project schedule.

You have received estimates for activity costs associated with one work package of the WBS. Additional contingencies have been added to the estimates to account for cost uncertainty. Which of the following tools and techniques of Estimate Costs does this describe? A. Reserve analysis B. Three-point estimates C. Vendor bid analysis D. Analogous estimates

C. Forecasted results of the project schedule and costs as determined by the outcomes of risk analysis is an update that is produced from the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process.

You have received the following estimates for a complex activity that is critical to the success of your project. The three-point estimates are as follows: The most likely estimate is $42, the optimistic estimate is $35, and the pessimistic estimate is $54. What is the expected activity cost of this activity using the beta distribution formula (rounded to the nearest dollar)? A. 49 B. 39 C. 43 D. 44

B. This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it’s an opportunity, and the appropriate strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy.

You are the project manager for a custom home-building construction company. You are working on the model home project for the upcoming Show Homes Tour. The model home includes smart home connections, talking appliances, and wiring for home theaters. You are working on the cost baseline for this project. All of the following statements are true except which one? A. This process aggregates the estimated costs of project activities. B. The cost baseline will be used to measure variances and future project performance. C. This process assigns cost estimates for expected future period operating costs. D. The cost baseline is the time-phased budget at completion for the project.

D. This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs. Sharing involves using a third party to help ensure that the opportunity occurs.

Your project sponsor has requested a cost estimate for the project. She would like the cost estimate to be as accurate as possible because this might be her one and only chance to secure the budget for this project because of recent cuts in special projects. You decide to use ____________. A. Analogous estimating techniques B. Bottom-up estimating techniques C. Top-down estimating techniques D. Expert judgment techniques

A. The best answer is A. Triggers are warning signs of an impending risk event.

You are the project manager for a custom-home-building construction company. You are working on the model home project for the upcoming Show Homes Tour. The model home includes smart home connections, talking appliances, and wiring for home theaters. You are working on the Determine Budget process. All of the following statements are true except which one? A. You document the funding limit reconciliation to include a contingency for unplanned risks. B. You discover that updates to the risk register are needed as a result of performing this process. C. You document that funding requirements are derived from the cost baseline. D. The performance measurement baseline will be used to perform earned value management calculations.

C. The probability and impact matrix multiplies the probability and impact to determine a risk score. Using this score and a predetermined matrix, you determine if the score is a high, medium, or low designation.

Which of the following is displayed as an S-curve? A. Funding requirements B. Cost baseline C. Cost estimates D. Expenditures to date

B. Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique that computes project costs many times in an iterative fashion.

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Determine Budget process except for which one? A. Data analysis (reserve analysis) B. Expert judgment C. Financing D. Data analysis (cost of quality)

C. Mitigation attempts to reduce the impact of a risk event should it occur. Making plans to arrange for the leased equipment reduces the consequences of the risk.

Your project sponsor has requested a cost estimate for the project on which you’re working. This project is similar in scope to a project you worked on last year. She would like to get the cost estimates as soon as possible. Accuracy is not her primary concern right now. She needs a ballpark figure by tomorrow. You decide to use ___________. A. Analogous estimating techniques B. Bottom-up estimating techniques C. Parametric estimating techniques D. Three-point estimating techniques

B. Risk appetite and risk threshold are the components of risk attitude.

You have eight key stakeholders (plus yourself) to communicate with on your project. Which of the following is true? A. There are 36 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications technology tool and technique. B. There are 28 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications requirements analysis tool and technique. C. There are 28 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications technology tool and technique. D. There are 36 channels of communication, and this should be a consideration when using the communications requirements analysis tool and technique.

A. This question describes risk threshold levels of the stakeholders. Risk triggers are recorded in the risk register during the Plan Risk Responses process. The risk of buying a machine from a new supplier would pose a threat to the project, not an opportunity. Interviewing might have been used, but this question wasn’t describing the Identify Risks process.

All of the following are true regarding Plan Communications Management except for which one? A. The communications management plan is a component plan of the project management plan. B. This process should be completed as early in the project as possible. It is used to define and manage the flow of project information. C. It’s tightly linked with enterprise environmental factors, and all organizational process assets are used as inputs for this process. D. Data gathering, communication technology, communication methods, and expert judgment are some of the tools and techniques of this process.

B. The question describes sensitivity analysis, which is a tool and technique of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. Tornado diagrams are often used to display sensitivity analysis data.

You are preparing your communications management plan and know that all of the following are true except for which one? A. Decode means to translate thoughts or ideas so they can be understood by others. B. Transmit concerns the method used to convey the message. C. Acknowledgment means the receiver has received and agrees with the message. D. Encoding and decoding are the responsibility of both the sender and receiver.

B. This question describes a prompt list, used in the Identify Risks process as a tool and technique to help the team determine risks for the project.

Which of the following ensures that information is distributed but does not acknowledge or certify that it was understood by the intended receiver(s)? A. Push communication B. Interactive communication C. Transmit D. Message and feedback message

D. The RBS describes risk categories, and the lowest level can be used as a prompt list to help identify risks. Risk owners are not assigned from the RBS but typically are assigned as soon as the risk is identified.

You need to communicate information in a multidirectional fashion with several stakeholders. Which of the following is true? A. This describes push communication, which is a communication model. B. This describes interactive communication, which is a communication method. C. This describes communication requirements analysis, which is a communication model. D. This describes pull communication, which is a communication method.

D. This is a response strategy known as passive acceptance because the team has decided to take no action and make no plans for the risk. This is a strategy that can be used for either positive or negative risks.

Communication technology takes into account all of the following factors that can affect the project except for which one? A. Urgency of the need for information B. Project environment C. Reasons for the distribution of information D. Duration of the project

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is a fast and easy method of determining probability and impact.

You are the project manager for an upcoming outdoor concert event. You’re working on the procurement plan for the computer software program that will control the lighting and screen projections during the concert. You’re comparing the cost of purchasing a software product to the cost of your company programmers writing a custom software program. You are engaged in which of the following? A. Procurement planning B. Using expert judgment C. Creating the procurement management plan D. Make-or-buy analysis

D. Make-or-buy analysis is determining whether it’s more cost effective to purchase the goods or services needed for the project or more cost effective for the organization to produce them internally.

You are the project manager for an outdoor concert event scheduled for one year from today. You’re working on the procurement documents for the computer software program that will control the lighting and screen projections during the concert. You’ve decided to contract with a professional services company that specializes in writing custom software programs. You want to minimize the risk to the organization, so you’ll opt for which contract type? A. FPIF B. CPFF C. FFP D. CPIF

C. Firm fixed-price (FFP) contracts have the highest risk to the seller and the least amount of risk to the buyer. However, the price the vendor charges for the product or service will compensate for the amount of risk they’re assuming.

You are the project manager for the Heart of Texas casual clothing company. Your company is introducing a new line of clothing called Black Sheep Ranch Wear. You will outsource the production of this clothing line to a vendor. The vendor has requested a procurement SOW. All of the following statements are true except for which one? A. The procurement SOW contains a description of the new clothing line. B. As the purchaser, you are required to write the procurement SOW. C. The procurement SOW contains the objectives of the project. D. The vendor requires a procurement SOW to determine whether it can produce the clothing line given the detailed specifications of this product.

B. Either the buyer or the seller can write the SOW. Sometimes the buyer will write the SOW and the seller might modify it and send it back to the buyer for verification and approval.

You are the project manager for the Heart of Texas casual clothing company. Your company is introducing a new line of clothing called Black Sheep Ranch Wear. You will outsource the production of this clothing line to a vendor. Your legal department has recommended you use a contract that reimburses the seller’s allowable costs and builds in a bonus based on the vendor achieving the performance criteria they’ve outlined in their memo. Which of the following contract types will you use? A. CPIF B. CPFF C. CPF D. FPIF

A. The cost plus incentive fee (CPIF) contract reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs and includes an incentive or bonus for exceeding the performance criteria laid out in the contract.

All of the following statements are true regarding the Plan Resource Management process except for which one? A. The Plan Resource Management process involves determining roles and responsibilities. B. Included in the Plan Resource Management output are project organization charts that show the project’s reporting relationships. C. The resource management plan created in this process describes how and when resources will be acquired and released. D. A RAM (or RACI chart) is an output of this process that allows you to see all the people assigned to an activity.

D. The RAM and RACI charts are part of the data representation tool and technique of this process.

Sally is a project manager working on a project that will require a specially engineered machine. Only three manufacturers can make the machine to the specifications Sally needs. The price of this machine is particularly critical to this project. The budget is limited, and there’s no chance of securing additional funds if the bids for the machine come in higher than budgeted. She’s developing the source selection criteria for the bidders’ responses and knows all of the following are true except for which one? A. Sally will use understanding of need and warranties as two of the criteria for evaluation. B. Sally will review the project management plan, requirements documents, and risk register as some of the inputs to this process. C. Sally will base the source selection criteria on price alone because the budget is a constraint. D. Sally will document an SOW, the desired form of response, and any required contractual provisions in the RFP.

C. Source selection criteria can be based on price alone when there are multiple vendors who can readily supply the goods or services. The question states that only three vendors make the machine, which means source selection criteria should be based on more than price.

Which of the following are constraints that you might find during the Plan Resource Management process? A. Organizational structures, collective bargaining agreements, and economic conditions B. Organizational structures, technical interfaces, and interpersonal interfaces C. Organizational interfaces, collective bargaining agreements, and economic conditions D. Organizational interfaces, technical interfaces, and interpersonal interfaces

A. A constraint can be anything that limits the option of the project team. Organizational structures, collective bargaining agreements, and economic conditions are all constraints that you might encounter during this process.

You have been hired as a contract project manager for Grapevine Vineyards. Grapevine wants you to design an Internet wine club for its customers. Customers must register before being allowed to order wine over the Internet so that legal age can be established. You know this project will require new hardware and an update to some existing infrastructure. You will have to hire an expert to help with the infrastructure assessment and upgrades. You also know that the module to verify registration must be written and tested using data from Grapevine’s existing database. This new module cannot be tested until the data from the existing system is loaded. You are going to hire a vendor to perform the programming and testing tasks for this module to help speed up the project schedule. The vendor will be reimbursed for all their costs, and you want to use a contract type that will allow you to give the vendor a little something extra if you are satisfied with the work they do. You know all of the following apply in this situation except for which one? A. Contract type is determined by the risk shared between the buyer and seller. B. You’ll use an FPIF contract for the programming vendor. C. Fixed-price contracts can include incentives for meeting or exceeding performance criteria. D. Each procurement item needs an SOW.

B. Fixed-price contracts can include incentives for meeting performance criteria, but the question states the vendor helping with the programming task will be reimbursed for their costs and, depending on your satisfaction with their results, may receive an additional award. This describes a cost plus award fee contract.

You are the project manager for BB Tops, a nationwide toy store chain. Your new project involves creating a prototype display at several stores across the country. You are using an RACI chart to display individuals and activities. What does RACI stand for? A. Responsible, accountable, consult, inform B. Responsible, assignment, control, inform C. Resource, activity, control, identify D. Resource, accountable, consult, identify

A. RACI stands for responsible, accountable, consult, and inform.

Which process has the greatest ability to directly influence the project schedule? A. Plan Resource Management B. Plan Procurement Management C. Plan Communications Management D. Plan Quality Management

B. Plan Procurement Management can directly influence the project schedule, and the project schedule can directly influence this process.

You are the project manager for BB Tops, a nationwide toy store chain. Your new project involves creating a prototype display at several stores across the country. You are hiring a contractor for portions of the project. The contract stipulates that you’ll pay all allowable costs and a 6 percent fee over and above the allowable costs at the end of the contract. Which of the following describes this contract type? A. CPPF B. CPPC C. CPF D. CPIF

B. This is a cost-reimbursable contract that includes a fee as a percentage of allowable costs. This type of contract is known as a cost plus percentage of cost (CPPC) contract.

All of the following are true regarding the Plan Quality Management process except for which one? A. DOE is a tool and technique of this process that provides statistical analysis for changing product or process elements one at a time to optimize the process. B. This is one of the key processes performed during the Planning process group and during the development of the project management plan. C. Changes to the product as a result of meeting quality standards might require cost or schedule adjustments. D. Some of the tools and techniques of this process are cost–benefit analysis, COQ, meetings, benchmarking, and expert judgment.

A. Design of experiments is not a named tool and technique of any process but is commonly used in the Plan Quality Management process to provide statistical analysis for changing key product or process elements all at once (not one at a time) to optimize the process.

Four people are responsible for establishing cost of quality theories. Crosby and Juran are _________ two them, and their theories are , respectively. A. grades of quality and fitness for use B. fitness for use and zero defects C. zero defects and fitness for use D. cost of quality and zero defects

C. Philip Crosby devised the zero defects theory, meaning do it right the first time. Proper Plan Quality Management leads to less rework and higher productivity. Joseph Juran’s fitness for use says that stakeholders’ and customers’ expectations are met or exceeded.

The theory that 85 percent of the cost of quality is a management problem is attributed ___________ to . A. Deming B. Shewhart C. Juran D. Crosby

A. W. Edwards Deming conjectured that the cost of quality is a management problem 85 percent of the time and that once the problem trickles down to the workers, it is outside their control.

All of the following are benefits of meeting quality requirements except which one? A. An increase in stakeholder satisfaction B. Less rework C. Lower risk D. Higher productivity

C. The benefits of meeting quality requirements are increased stakeholder satisfaction, lower costs, higher productivity, and less rework.

Which of the following describes the cost of quality associated with scrapping, rework, and downtime? A. Internal failure costs B. External failure costs C. Prevention costs D. Appraisal costs

A. Internal failure costs are costs associated with not meeting the customer’s expectations while you still had control over the product. This results in rework, scrapping, and downtime.

The quality management plan documents how the project team will implement the quality policy. It should address at least all of the following except which one? A. The resources needed to carry out the quality plan B. The quality metrics and tolerances and what will be measured C. The responsibilities the project team has in implementing quality D. The processes to use to satisfy quality requirements

B. Quality metrics are an output of the Plan Quality Management process and not part of the quality management plan.

You work for a furniture manufacturer. Your project is going to design and produce a new office chair. The chair will have the ability to function as a regular chair and also the ability to move its occupant into an upright, kneeling position. The design team is trying to determine the combination of comfort and ease of transformation to the new position that will give the chair the best characteristics while keeping the costs reasonable. Several different combinations have been tested. This is an example of which of the following tools and techniques of Plan Quality Management? A. Benchmarking B. Quality metrics C. COQ D. DOE

D. This is an example of design of experiments.

Which of the following best characterizes Six Sigma? A. Stipulates that quality must be managed in B. Focuses on process improvement and variation reduction by using a measurement based strategy C. Asserts that quality must be a continuous way of doing business D. Focuses on improving the quality of the people first, then improving the quality of the process or project

B. Six Sigma is a measurement-based strategy that focuses on process improvement and variation reduction by applying Six Sigma methodologies to the project.

Your organization is embarking on a long-term project that will require additional human resources on a contract basis to complete the work of the project. Since the project will span several years, you know one vendor probably can’t supply all the resources you’ll need over the course of the contract. However, you want to work with only one vendor throughout the project to minimize the amount of procurement documents you’ll have to produce. So, you’ll specify in your procurement documents that contractors will have to form partnerships to work on this project. You know all of the following are true regarding this question except for which one? A. You will use an RFP, which is part of the procurement documents output of the Plan Procurement Management process, as your procurement document for this project. B. You’ll use an FP-EPA contract because this project spans several years. C. You should consider teaming agreements, which are an input to the Plan Procurement Management process. D. Some of the quality metrics you’ll use for this project include on-time performance, failure rates, budget control, and test coverage. Quality metrics are an output of the Plan Quality Management process.

C. Teaming agreements are not a named input of the Plan Procurement Management process, but they are an input to all of the Planning processes collectively.

You are a project manager for a growing dairy farm business. It offers organic dairy products regionally and is expanding its operations to the West Coast. It is in the process of purchasing and leasing dairy farm businesses to get operations underway. You are in charge of the network operations part of this project. An important deadline that depends on the successful completion of the testing phase is approaching. You’ve detected some problems with your hardware in the testing phase and discover that the hardware is not compatible with other network equipment. You take corrective action and exchange the hardware for more compatible equipment. Which of the following statements is true? A. This is not a corrective action because corrective action involves human resources, not project resources. B. Corrective action is taken here to make sure the future project outcomes are aligned with the project management plan. C. Corrective action is not necessary in this case because the future project outcomes aren’t affected. D. Corrective action serves as the change request to authorize exchanging the equipment.

B. Corrective action brings anticipated future project outcomes back into alignment with the project management plan. Because an important deadline that depends on a positive outcome of this test is looming, the equipment is exchanged so that the project plan and project schedule are not impacted.

You are a project manager for a growing dairy farm business. It offers organic dairy products regionally and is expanding its operations to the West Coast. It’s in the process of purchasing and leasing dairy farm businesses to get operations underway. The subproject manager in charge of network operations has reported some hardware problems to you. You’re also having problems coordinating and integrating other elements of the project. Which of the following statements is true? A. You are in the Direct and Manage Project Work process. B. Your project team doesn’t appear to have the right skills and knowledge needed to perform this project. C. You are in the norming stage of team development. D. Your project team could benefit from some team-building exercises.

A. The most difficult aspect of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is coordinating and integrating all the project elements. The clue to this question is in the next-to-last sentence.

Which of the following process groups serve as inputs to each other? A. Executing, Monitoring and Controlling B. Executing, Closing C. Planning, Monitoring and Controlling D. Executing, Initiation

A. The Executing process group and Monitoring and Controlling process group serve as inputs to each other.

Your team members have just completed training on specialized equipment. This is one of the work results you’ve gathered and recorded. Which of the following outputs of the Direct and Manage Project Work process does this describe? A. Work performance data B. Deliverable C. Preventive action D. Project documents updates

A. The Executing process group and Monitoring and Controlling process group serve as inputs to each other.

You are reporting on project elements such as schedule status, deliverables completion, lessons learned, and resource utilization. Which of the following outputs of the Direct and Manage Project Work does this describe? A. Project management plan updates B. Project documents updates C. Preventive action D. Work performance data

D. Work performance data includes elements such as schedule status, the status of deliverables completion, lessons learned, and resource utilization.

You are in the process of making project team assignments. You have several candidates for a position on the project team that requires specific qualifications. All the candidates seem to meet the qualifications. You also consider prior experience, their interest in the project, cost rates, and availability of these potential candidates. Which of the following is true? A. You are considering the resource calendars input of the Develop Team process. B. You are considering the project staff assignments input of the Develop Team process. C. You are considering the enterprise environmental factors input of the Acquire Resources process. D. You are considering the project management plan input of the Acquire Resources process.

C. The enterprise environmental factors input of the Acquire Resources process considers elements such as prior experience, interest in working on the project, cost rates, and availability of potential team members.

During a recent team meeting, you reached a resolution to an issue that’s been troubling the team for several weeks. It turned out that there was a problem with one of the manufactured parts required for the project. Once this was corrected, the remaining production run went off without a hitch. You took responsibility for searching out the facts of this problem and implemented a change request to resolve the issue. Which of the following is true regarding this question? A. This is a defect repair, which is performed during the Direct and Manage Project Work process. B. This is a corrective action, which is performed during the Direct and Manage Project Work process. C. This is a preventive action, which is performed during the Direct and Manage Project Work process. D. This is an unapproved change request and must first go through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

A. This question describes a defect repair that was discovered and implemented. Defect repairs come about as a result of approved changes. Approved changes are implemented in the Direct and Manage Project Work process. The question implies that the change request was approved because the problem was corrected and the rest of the production run went smoothly.

You are the project manager for a cable service provider. Your team members are amiable with each other and are careful to make project decisions jointly. Which of the following statements is true? A. They are in the forming stage of team development. B. They are in the norming stage of team development. C. They are in the storming stage of team development. D. They are in the adjourning stage of team development.

B. Teams in the norming stage of team development exhibit affection and familiarity with one another and make joint decisions.

You are the project manager for a cable service provider. Your project team is researching a new service offering. They have been working together for quite some time and are in the performing stage of team development. A new member has been introduced to the team. Which of the following statements is true? A. The team will start all over again with the storming stage. B. The team will continue in the performing stage. C. The team will start all over again with the forming stage. D. The team will start all over again at the storming stage but quickly progress to the performing stage.

C. The introduction of a new team member will start the formation and development of the team all over again with the forming stage.

You are the project manager for a cable service provider. Your project team is researching a new service offering. They have been working together for quite some time and have a good understanding of the task at hand. They will not likely need any direction from you to complete this task. According to Blanchard, what type of leadership style does this describe? A. Supporting B. Autocratic C. Laissez-faire D. Delegating

D. Delegating is a situational leadership style that is used when team members have performed the task before and need little to no input from the manager. The supporting style requires some input from the leader. An autocratic manager makes all the decisions with no input from the team, and the laissez-faire leader lets the team make all the decisions and has little involvement with the team. Neither the autocratic nor laissez-faire leadership style is a named style in the Blanchard Situational Leadership II Model.

You’ve promised your team two days of paid time off plus a week’s training in the latest technology of their choice if they complete their project ahead of schedule. This is an example of which of the following? A. Achievement Theory B. Expectancy Theory C. Maslow’s Theory D. Contingency Theory

B. The Expectancy Theory says that people are motivated by the expectation of good outcomes. The outcome must be reasonable and attainable.

Your team is split between two buildings on either side of town. As a result, the team isn’t very cohesive because the members don’t know each other very well. The team is still in the storming stage because of the separation issues. Which of the following should you consider? A. Corrective action B. Colocation C. Training D. Conflict resolution

B. Colocation would bring your team members together in the same location and allow them to function more efficiently as a team. At a minimum, meeting in a common room, such as a war room, for all team meetings would bring the team closer together.

Which conflict resolution technique offers project managers the best option for resolution? A. Smooth/accommodate B. Collaborate/problem solve C. Compromise/reconcile D. Force/direct

B. Collaborate/problem solve is a problem-solving technique that seeks to determine the facts and find solutions based on the facts. It involves hearing multiple viewpoints and examining several perspectives. This results in a win-win resolution for all parties.

You are a fabulous project manager, and your team thinks highly of you. You are well respected by the stakeholders, management team, and project team. When you make decisions, others follow your lead as a result of which of the following? A. Referent power B. Expert power C. Legitimate power D. Punishment power

A. Referent power is power that is inferred on a leader by their subordinates as a result of the high level of respect for the leader.

Theory Y managers believe which of the following? A. People are motivated only by money, power, or position. B. People will perform their best if they’re given proper motivation and expectations. C. People are motivated to achieve a high level of competency. D. People are motivated by expectation of good outcomes.

B. Theory Y managers believe that people will perform their best if they’re provided with the proper motivation and the right expectations.

When working in a matrix environment, all of the following are true regarding the Manage Team process except for which one? A. Improving competencies, team interactions, and the team environment can help enhance project performance. B. Managing project teams in a matrix environment is often a critical success factor for the project. C. It’s the project manager’s responsibility to make certain this dual reporting relationship is managed effectively. D. Loyalty issues might arise when managing projects in a matrix environment.

A. Improving competencies, team interactions, and the team environment are characteristics of the Develop Team process, not the Manage Team process.

You are preparing project performance appraisals and have decided you’d like each team member to receive feedback regarding their performance from several sources, including peers, superiors, and subordinates. Which of the following is true? A. This is called 360-degree feedback and is part of the input to the organizational project performance appraisals, which is part of the organizational process assets updates input of the Manage Team process. B. This is called 360-degree feedback and is considered part of the team performance assessment input of the Manage Team process. C. This is called 360-degree feedback and is considered part of the work performance data input of the Manage Team process. D. This is called 360-degree feedback and is part of the project performance appraisals tool and technique of the Manage Team process.

D. This technique is called 360-degree feedback. It’s part of the project performance appraisals tool and technique of the Manage Team process.

Specific team members were promised for your project as part of the project proposal. You speak with the functional managers to assure their availability. All of the following are true regarding this question except for which one? A. This is a pre-assignment, which is a tool and technique of the process to which this question refers. B. Team members promised as part of the project proposal should be noted in the project charter. C. The other tools and techniques of the process this question refers to are negotiation, virtual teams, and resource availability. D. Team members might be promised as part of a project that’s put out for bid or consists of internal projects.

C. This question refers to preassignments, which are a tool and technique of the Acquire Resources process. The other tools and techniques of this process are decision making, interpersonal and team skills, and virtual teams.

19. These two conflict resolution techniques are known as lose-lose techniques. A. Accommodating and forcing B. Smoothing and withdrawal C. Compromise and reconcile D. Avoidance and forcing

B. Smoothing (also known as accommodating) and withdrawal (also known as avoidance) are both lose-lose techniques. Forcing is a win-lose technique. Compromise and reconcile is where neither side wins or loses.

You are a project manager who believes people will have high productivity, morale, and satisfaction if offered a job for life. Which theory do you subscribe to? A. Theory X B. Hygiene Theory C. Theory Y D. Theory Z

D. Theory Z encourages employee loyalty because jobs are offered for life. This leads to increased productivity, morale, and high employee satisfaction.

You are a project manager for Fountain of Youth Spring Water bottlers. Your project involves installing a new accounting system, and you’re performing the risk-planning processes. You have identified a variability risk and ambiguity risk. Which of the following is not true regarding these risks? A. Variability risk is uncertainty about the event or activity. B. Ambiguity risk is addressed using data analysis. C. These are types of non-event risks. D. Unexpected weather or unexpected resource availability is a type of ambiguity risk.

Assessing the probability and consequences of identified risks to the project objectives, assigning a risk score to each risk, and creating a list of prioritized risks describe which of the following processes? A. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis B. Identify Risks C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Plan Risk Management

Each of the following statements is true regarding the risk management plan except for which one? A. The risk management plan is an output of the Plan Risk Management process. B. The risk management plan includes a description of the responses to risks and triggers. C. The risk management plan includes thresholds, scoring and interpretation methods, responsible parties, and budgets. D. The risk management plan is an input to all the remaining risk-planning processes.

You are using the representations of uncertainty technique of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. All of the following statements are true regarding this technique except for which one? A. Beta and triangular distributions are commonly used in this process. B. Normal and lognormal distributions use mean and standard deviation to quantify risks. C. Continuous probability distributions are graphically displayed and depict the impact of the risk event. D. Triangular distributions rely on optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to quantify risks.

C. Continuous probability distributions graphically display the probability of risk to the project objectives as well as the time or cost elements.

You are performing the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process and want to display proximity and connectivity and their impacts on the project. Which of the following methods will you use? A. Tornado diagram B. Influence diagram C. Histogram D. Bubble chart

D. The data representation tool and technique called a bubble chart is a way to graphically display three factors of risk characteristics.

You are using criticality analysis to determine risk impact. You have calculated an index for each risk and realize the more activities the risk impacts, the higher the index. The index is used as an input to a simulation. Which risk does criticality analysis assess? A. Cost B. Resource C. Schedule D. Quality

C. Criticality analysis determines the risk impact to critical path tasks on the project schedule.

You are the project manager for a new website for the local zoo. You need to perform the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process. When you’ve completed this process, you’ll produce all of the following as part of the project documents updates output except which one? A. Risk priority level B. Watch list of low-priority risks C. Forecasted results of the project schedule and costs D. Risks grouped by categories

C. Forecasted results of the project schedule and costs as determined by the outcomes of risk analysis is an update that is produced from the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process.

You’ve identified a risk event on your current project that could save $100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following is true based on this statement? A. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project. B. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited. C. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings. D. This is a risk event that should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings.

B. This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it’s an opportunity, and the appropriate strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy.

You’ve identified a risk event on your current project that could save $500,000 in project costs if it occurs. Your organization is considering hiring a consulting firm to help establish management techniques in order to ensure it realizes these savings. Which of the following is true based on this statement? A. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project. B. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited. C. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings. D. This is a risk event that should be shared to take full advantage of the potential savings.

D. This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs. Sharing involves using a third party to help ensure that the opportunity occurs.

Your hardware vendor left you a voicemail saying that a snowstorm in the Midwest might prevent your equipment from arriving on time. She wanted to give you a heads-up and asked that you return the call. Which of the following statements is true? A. This is a trigger. B. This is a contingency plan. C. This is a residual risk. D. This is a secondary risk.

A. The best answer is A. Triggers are warning signs of an impending risk event.

You are constructing a probability and impact matrix for your project. Which of the following statements is true? A. The probability and impact matrix multiplies the risk’s probability by the cost of the impact to determine an expected value of the risk event. B. The probability and impact matrix multiplies the risk’s probability—which falls from 0.0 to 1.0—and the risk’s impact for each potential outcome and then adds the result of the potential outcomes together to determine a risk score. C. The probability and impact matrix are predetermined thresholds that use the risk’s probability multiplied by the impact of the risk event to determine an overall risk score. D. The probability and impact matrix multiplies the risk’s probability by the risk impact—which both fall from 0.0 to 1.0—to determine a risk score.

Your stakeholders have asked for an analysis of the cost risk. All of the following are true except for which one? A. Monte Carlo analysis is the preferred method to use to determine the cost risk. B. Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique that computes project costs one time. C. A traditional work breakdown structure can be used as an input variable for the cost analysis. D. Monte Carlo usually expresses its results as probability distributions of possible costs.

B. Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique that computes project costs many times in an iterative fashion.

Your hardware vendor left you a voicemail saying that a snowstorm in the Midwest will prevent your equipment from arriving on time. You identified a risk response strategy for this risk and have arranged for a local company to lease you the needed equipment until yours arrives. This is an example of which risk response strategy? A. Transfer B. Acceptance C. Mitigate D. Avoid

C. Mitigation attempts to reduce the impact of a risk event should it occur. Making plans to arrange for the leased equipment reduces the consequences of the risk.

Risk attitude is an enterprise environmental factor that you should evaluate when performing the Plan Risk Management process. Risk attitude consists of all of the following elements except for which one? A. Risk appetite and risk urgency B. Risk threshold and risk appetite C. Risk urgency and risk threshold D. Risk tolerance and risk appetite

B. Risk appetite and risk threshold are the components of risk attitude.

You work for a large manufacturing plant. You are working on a new project to release an overseas product line. This is the company’s first experience in the overseas market, and it wants to make a big splash with the introduction of this product. The stakeholders are a bit nervous about the project and historically proceed cautiously and take a considerable amount of time to examine information before making a final decision. The project entails producing your product in a concentrated formula and packaging it in smaller containers than the US product uses. A new machine is needed to mix the ingredients into a concentrated formula. After speaking with one of your stakeholders, you discover this will be the first machine your organization has purchased from your new supplier. Which of the following statements is true given the information in this question? A. The question describes risk threshold levels of the stakeholders, which should be considered when performing the Plan Risk Management process. B. This question describes the interviewing tool and technique used during the Identify Risks process. C. This question describes risk triggers that are derived using interviewing techniques and recorded in the risk register during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process. D. This question describes a risk that requires a response strategy from the positive risk category.

Your project team has identified several potential risks on your current project that could have a significant impact if they occurred. The team examined the impact of the risks by keeping all the uncertain elements at their baseline values. Which of the following will the team use to display this information? A. S-curve B. Tornado diagram C. Influence diagram D. Histogram

B. The question describes sensitivity analysis, which is a tool and technique of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. Tornado diagrams are often used to display sensitivity analysis data.

You are using a defined set of risk categories to determine both individual risks and overall project risks. You will also use PESTLE, a strategic analysis tool to assist in determining overall project risk. You are also using the lowest level of the RBS to help in constructing which of the following based on the information in this question? A. Checklist B. Prompt list C. RCA D. Decision tree analysis

B. This question describes a prompt list, used in the Identify Risks process as a tool and technique to help the team determine risks for the project.

All of the following statements are true regarding the RBS except for which one? A. The RBS is contained in the risk management plan. B. It describes risk categories, which are a systematic way to identify risks and provide a foundation for understanding for everyone involved in the project. C. The lowest level of the RBS can be used as a prompt list, which is a tool and technique of the Identify Risks process. D. The RBS is similar to the WBS in that the lowest levels of both are easily assigned to a responsible party or owner.

Your team has identified the risks on the project and determined their risk score. The team is in the midst of determining what strategies to put in place should the risks occur. After some discussion, the team members have determined that the risk of losing their network administrator is a risk they’ll just deal with if and when it occurs. Although they think it’s a possibility and the impact would be significant, they’ve decided to simply deal with it after the fact. Which of the following is true regarding this question? A. This is a negative response strategy. B. This is a positive response strategy. C. This is a response strategy for either positive or negative risk known as contingency planning. D. This is a response strategy for either positive or negative risks known as passive acceptance.

All of the following are true regarding the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process except which one? A. Probability and impact and expert interviews are used to help correct biases that occur in the data you’ve gathered during this process. B. The probability and impact matrix is used during this process to assign red, yellow, and green conditions to risks. C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is an easy method of determining risk probability and impact and usually takes a good deal of time to perform. D. Risk urgency assessment is a tool and technique of this process used to determine which risks need near-term response plans.

C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is a fast and easy method of determining probability and impact.

B. Either the buyer or the seller can write the SOW. Sometimes the buyer will write the SOW and the seller might modify it and send it back to the buyer for verification and approval.

You are the project manager for the Heart of Texas casual clothing company. Your company is introducing a new line of clothing called Black Sheep Ranch Wear. You will outsource the production of this clothing line to a vendor. Your legal department has recommended you use a contract that reimburses the seller’s allowable costs and builds in a bonus based on the vendor achieving the performance criteria they’ve outlined in their memo. Which of the following contract types will you use? A. CPIF B. CPFF C. CPF D. FPIF

D. The RAM and RACI charts are part of the data representation tool and technique of this process.

A. RACI stands for responsible, accountable, consult, and inform.

B. Plan Procurement Management can directly influence the project schedule, and the project schedule can directly influence this process.

B. This is a cost-reimbursable contract that includes a fee as a percentage of allowable costs. This type of contract is known as a cost plus percentage of cost (CPPC) contract.

Four people are responsible for establishing cost of quality theories. Crosby and Juran ar two them, and their theories are ________ , respectively. A. grades of quality and fitness for use B. fitness for use and zero defects C. zero defects and fitness for use D. cost of quality and zero defects

The theory that 85 percent of the cost of quality is a management problem is attributed to ________. A. Deming B. Shewhart C. Juran D. Crosby

A. W. Edwards Deming conjectured that the cost of quality is a management problem 85 percent of the time and that once the problem trickles down to the workers, it is outside their control.

All of the following are benefits of meeting quality requirements except which one? A. An increase in stakeholder satisfaction B. Less rework C. Lower risk D. Higher productivity

C. The benefits of meeting quality requirements are increased stakeholder satisfaction, lower costs, higher productivity, and less rework.

Which of the following describes the cost of quality associated with scrapping, rework, and downtime? A. Internal failure costs B. External failure costs C. Prevention costs D. Appraisal costs

A. Internal failure costs are costs associated with not meeting the customer’s expectations while you still had control over the product. This results in rework, scrapping, and downtime.

B. Quality metrics are an output of the Plan Quality Management process and not part of the quality management plan.

D. This is an example of design of experiments.

B. Six Sigma is a measurement-based strategy that focuses on process improvement and variation reduction by applying Six Sigma methodologies to the project.

C. Teaming agreements are not a named input of the Plan Procurement Management process, but they are an input to all of the Planning processes collectively.

Which of the following processes is responsible for reporting and comparing actual project results against the project management plan, analyzing performance data to determine if action needs to be taken, and monitoring approved change requests among other functions? A. Perform Integrated Change Control B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement C. Monitor Communications D. Monitor and Control Project Work

D. The Monitor and Control Project Work process involves reporting actual project results and how they compare to the project management plan, analyzing performance data, monitoring change requests, and more.

You are working on a project and discover that one of the business users responsible for testing the product never completed this activity. She has written an email requesting that one of your team members drop everything to assist her with a problem that could have been avoided if she had performed the test. This employee reports to a stakeholder, not to the project team. You estimate that the project might not be completed on time as a result of this missed activity. Which of the following actions should you take? A. You should recommend a corrective action to bring the expected future project performance back into line with the project management plan because of this employee’s failure to perform this activity. B. You should recommend a preventive action to reduce the possibility of future project performance veering off track because of this employee’s failure to perform this activity. C. You should recommend a change request, which is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process, to get the project performance back in alignment with the project management plan. D. You need to develop a risk response plan to deal with the impacts of this incomplete task.

C. You are in the Monitor and Control Project Work process and should recommend a change request that can take the form of a corrective action. Preventive actions reduce the possibility of negative impacts from risk events and do not apply to this situation.

Which one of the following is the most preferred method of settling claims and disputes according to the PMBOK® Guide? A. Arbitration B. Collaboration C. Claims administration D. Negotiation

D. Negotiation, using ADR, is the preferred method of settling claims or disputes in the Control Procurements process.

What is the difference between inspections and audits in the Control Procurements process? A. Inspections are a tool and technique of this process, and audits are an output. B. Inspections are a structured review of the procurement process, and audits are structured reviews of the work performed by the contractor. C. Inspections are an input of this process and an output of this process, and audits are a tool and technique. D. Inspections are a structured review of the work performed by the contractor, and audits are structured reviews of the procurement process.

D. Inspections and audits are both tools and techniques of the Control Procurements process.

You are a project manager for an engineering company. Your company won the bid to add ramp-metering lights to several on-ramps along a stretch of highway at the south end of the city. You subcontracted a portion of the project to another company. The subcontractor’s work involves digging the holes and setting the lamp poles in concrete. The subcontractor’s performance to date does not meet the contract requirements. Which of the following is not a valid option? A. You document the poor performance in written form and send the correspondence to the subcontractor. B. You terminate the contract for cause and submit a change request through Control Procurements. C. You submit a change request through the Control Procurements process demanding that the subcontractor comply with the terms of the contract. D. You agree to meet with the subcontractor to see whether a satisfactory solution can be reached.

C. The contract change control system describes the processes you’ll use to make changes to the contract; it is not a means of communication. The changes might include contract term changes, date changes, and termination of a contract.

The Control Procurements process is closely integrated with all of the following processes except for which one? A. Direct and Manage Project Work B. Monitor Communications C. Perform Integrated Change Control D. Monitor Risks

B. According to the PMBOK ® Guide, the Control Procurements process is closely coordinated with the Direct and Manage Project Work, Control Quality, Perform Integrated Change Control, and Monitor Risks processes

You are holding a regularly scheduled status meeting for your project. You know all of the following are true regarding status meetings except which one? A. Status meetings are a component of work performance information. B. Status meetings are a type of interactive communication. C. Status meetings are a way to formally exchange information and update the stakeholders regarding project status. D. Status meetings should be held throughout the project and at regularly scheduled intervals.

A. Status review meetings are a type of work performance report, which is an output of Monitor and Control Project Work.

You are performing actions such as collecting and reporting information regarding the progress of the project and ensuring that the right information is delivered to the right people at the right time. Which process are you performing? A. Monitor Communications B. Perform Integrated Change Control C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Control Procurements

A. This question describes the Monitor Communications process, which is concerned with collecting and reporting information regarding project progress and project accomplishments to the stakeholders.

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Monitor Communications process except which one? A. Data analysis (performance reviews, earned value analysis, trend analysis) B. PMIS C. Expert judgment D. Meetings

A. The tools and techniques of the Monitor Communications process are: expert judgement, PMIS, data representation (stakeholder engagement assessment matrix), interpersonal and team skills (observation/conversation), and meetings. Data analysis listed in Option A is from the Control Procurements process.

The Delphi method, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy are examples of what category of forecasting methods? A. Time series B. Judgmental C. Causal D. Econometric

B. The Delphi method, technology forecasting, scenario building, and forecast by analogy are all in the judgmental methods category of forecasting.

Your project is progressing as planned. You are conducting a status meeting and are reviewing items that need resolution. You have asked the owners of these items to report their progress and are tracking the due dates for their resolution. Which input of the Monitor Communications process does this describe? A. PMIS B. Issue log C. Meetings D. Work performance data

B. This question describes the project documents–issue log input of the Monitor Communications process. It is used to track issues, assign owners, track due dates, and more. Options A and C are tools and techniques of this process, and Option D is an input.

You are in the Conduct Procurements process. You and your vendor are in the midst of contested changes and cannot reach a resolution. Which of the following methods should be your first course of action to resolve this issue? A. Meet with the vendor until you resolve this on your own. B. Use ADR techniques. C. Take the vendor to court. D. Terminate the contract.

B. When you are dealing with contested changes, ADR (alternative dispute resolution) is the technique you should use first to try to reach resolution. The other options are alternatives after you’ve tried ADR.

You are a project manager for Bluebird Technologies. Bluebird writes custom billing applications for several industries. A schedule change has been requested. From the perspective of the Perform Integrated Change Control, change is concerned with all of the following except which one? A. Influencing factors that circumvent the change control process B. Issuing change requests C. Reviewing change D. Maintaining the integrity of baselines

B. Change requests are submitted through other processes like the Monitor and Control Project Work process, and they are reviewed, tracked, managed, analyzed, and documented in this process.

You are a project manager for Bluebird Technologies. Bluebird writes custom billing applications for several industries. One of your users verbally requests changes to one of the screen displays. You explain to her that the change needs to go through the change control system, which is a subset of the configuration management system. You explain that a change control system does all of the following except for which one? A. Documents procedures for change requests B. Tracks the status of change requests C. Describes the management impacts of change D. Determines whether changes are approved or denied

D. Change control systems are documented procedures that describe how to submit change requests. They track the status of the change requests, document the management impacts of change, track the change approval status, and define the level of authority needed to approve changes. Change control systems do not approve or deny the changes—that’s the responsibility of the change control board (CCB).

You are a project manager for Star Light Strings. Star Light manufactures strings of lights for outdoor displays. Its products range from simple light strings to elaborate lights with animal designs, bug designs, memorabilia, and so on. Your newest project requires a change. You have documented the characteristics of the product and its functionality using which of the following tools and techniques? A. Change control system B. Corrective action C. Configuration management D. Updates to the project management plan

C. The key to this question was that the characteristics of the product were documented with this tool. Configuration management documents the physical characteristics and the functionality of the product of the project.

You are a project manager for Star Light Strings. Star Light manufactures strings of lights for outdoor display. Its products range from simple light strings to elaborate lights with animal designs, bug designs, memorabilia, and so on. Your newest project requires a change. One of the business unit managers submitted a change through the change control system, which utilizes a CCB. Which of the following is true regarding the CCB? A. The CCB describes how change requests are managed. B. The CCB requires all change requests in writing. C. The CCB approves or denies change requests. D. The CCB requires updates to the appropriate management plan.

C. Change control boards (CCBs) review change requests and have the authority to approve or deny them. Their authority is defined by the configuration control and change control process.

All of the following are activities of the configuration management system except for which one? A. Variance analysis B. Identification C. Status accounting D. Verification and auditing

A. The three activities associated with configuration management are configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and auditing.

Which system centrally manages approved changes to the specifications of the deliverables or the project management processes? A. Records management system B. Change control system C. Work authorization system D. Configuration management system

D. Configuration management systems are a way to manage approved changes and baselines.

You are performing the following activities: comparing actual performance against the project plan, assessing performance to determine if a corrective action is necessary, identifying new risks, providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule data, and monitoring implementation of approved changes. Which process are you in? A. Perform Integrated Change Control B. Monitor Communications C. Monitor and Control Project Work D. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

C. These are elements with which the Monitor and Control Project Work process is concerned.

All of the following are acronyms for other boards that fulfill the same responsibilities as a change control board except for which one? A. TAB B. TRB C. ARB D. ERB

C. The other names for CCB’s may include TAB, which stands for technical assessment board; TRB, which is a technical review board; and ERB, which is an engineering review board.

You are working on a project that was proceeding well until a manufacturing glitch occurred that requires corrective action. It turns out the glitch was an unintentional enhancement to the product, and the marketing people are absolutely crazy about its potential. The corrective action is canceled, and you continue to produce the product with the newly discovered enhancement. As the project manager, you know that a change has occurred to the product scope because the glitch changed the characteristics of the product. Which of the following statements is true? A. Changes to product scope should be reflected in the project scope. B. Changes to product scope should be documented in the scope management plan. C. Changes to product scope will result in cost changes. D. Changes to product scope are a result of corrective action.

A. Changes to product scope should be reflected in the project scope.

You are working on a project that was proceeding well until a manufacturing glitch occurred that requires corrective action. It turns out the glitch was an unintentional enhancement to the product, and the marketing people are absolutely crazy about its potential. The corrective action is canceled, and you continue to produce the product with the newly discovered enhancement. As the project manager, you know that a variance has occurred. Which of the following is true? A. Common causes of variance, also known as special-cause variances, are situations that are unique and not easily controlled at the operational level. B. Random variances, known or predictable variances, and variances that are always present in the process are known as common causes of variance. C. Attribute inspection determines whether measurements fall within tolerable results. D. Scatter diagrams display the relationships between an independent and a dependent variable to show variations in the process over time.

D. Scatter diagrams display the relationship between an independent and dependent variable over time.

Your project has experienced some changes to the agreed-on WBS elements. The changes were approved through the proper change control process. The WBS changes might in turn require which of the following? A. Scope changes B. Cost changes C. Schedule revisions D. Risk response changes

C. WBS element changes are scope changes. According to the PMBOK ® Guide, schedule revisions are often required as a result of scope changes.

You are a project manager for Dakota Software Consulting Services. You’re working with a major retailer that offers its products through mail-order catalogs. It is interested in knowing customer characteristics, the amounts of first-time orders, and similar information. The stakeholders have accepted the project scope. Work has begun on the project, and you’re confirming some of the initial work results with the stakeholders. You’ve asked for acceptance of the work results. Which process are you performing? A. Monitor Risks B. Control Quality C. Validate Scope D. Control Scope

C. The Validate Scope process is concerned with the acceptance of work results. It also formalizes the acceptance of the project scope.

You are the project manager for a top-secret software project for an agency of the United States government. Getting top-secret clearances for contractors takes quite a bit of time, and waiting for clearances would jeopardize the implementation date. Your mission—should you choose to accept it—is to complete the project using internal resources. Your programmers are 80 percent of the way through the programming and testing work when your agency appoints a new executive director. Your programmers are siphoned off this project to work on the executive director’s hot new project. Which of the following addresses the purpose of Validate Scope in this case? A. Validate Scope determines the correctness and completion of all the work. B. Validate Scope documents the level and degree of completion. C. Validate Scope determines whether the project results comply with quality standards. D. Validate Scope documents the correctness of the work according to stakeholders’ expectations.

B. Validate Scope should document the level and degree of completion of the project given the circumstances in this question. If you come back at a later date and restart this project, Validate Scope will describe how far the project progressed and give you an idea of where to start.

Which of the following statements is true regarding schedule variances? A. Schedule variances impact scope, which impacts the schedule. B. Schedule variances sometimes impact the schedule. C. Schedule variances always impact the schedule. D. Schedule variances never impact the schedule.

B. Schedule variances will sometimes—but not always—impact the schedule. Changes to non-critical path tasks will not likely impact the schedule, but changes to critical path tasks will always impact the schedule.

You are a project manager for Laurel’s Theater Productions. Your new project is coming in over budget and requires a cost change through the cost change control system. You know all of the following statements are true regarding Control Costs except for which one? A. A description of how cost changes should be managed and controlled is found in the cost management plan. B. Approved cost changes are reflected in the cost baseline. C. EVM is used to determine the cost performance that must be realized for the remaining work of the project to meet the BAC goal. D. This equation, EAC = BAC / cumulative CPI, is used to forecast an estimate at completion assuming future project performance will be the same as past performance.

C. The To-complete performance index determines the cost performance that must be realized for the remaining work of the project to meet a goal such as BAC or EAC.

Which of the following might require re-baselining of the cost baseline? A. Corrective action B. Revised cost estimates C. Updates to the cost management plan D. Budget updates

D. Budget updates might require cost re-baselining.

What are the performance measurements for the Control Schedule process? A. SV = (EV – PV) and SPI = (EV / PV) B. SV = (EV – AC) and SPI = (EV / AC) C. SV = (EV – BAC) and SPI = (EV / BAC) D. SV = (PV – EV) and SPI = (PV / EV)

A. Schedule variance is (EV – PV) and the schedule performance index is (EV / PV).

This measurement is the value of the work that has been completed to date compared to the budget. A. PV B. AC C. EV D. EAC

C. Earned value is referred to as the value of the work that’s been completed to date compared to the budget.

You are a contract project manager for a wholesale flower distribution company. Your project is to develop a website for the company that allows retailers to place their flower orders online. You will also provide a separate link for individual purchases that are ordered, packaged, and mailed to the consumer directly from the grower’s site. This project involves coordinating the parent company, growers, and distributors. You are preparing a performance review and have the following measurements at hand: PV = 300, AC = 200, and EV = 250. What do you know about this project? A. The EAC is a positive number, which means the project will finish under budget. B. You do not have enough information to calculate CPI. C. The CV is a negative number in this case, which means you’ve spent less than you planned to spend as of the measurement date. D. The CV is a positive number in this case, which means you’re under budget as of the measurement date.

D. The CV is a positive number and is calculated by subtracting AC from EV as follows: 250 – 200 = 50. A positive CV means the project is coming in under budget, meaning you’ve spent less than you planned as of the measurement date.

A negative result from an SV calculation means which of the following? A. PV is higher than EV. B. PV equals 1. C. EV is higher than PV. D. EV is higher than AC.

A. The SV calculation is EV – PV. If PV is a higher number than EV, you’ll get a negative number as a result.

B. CPI is calculated as follows: EV / AC. In this case, 250 / 200 = 1.25.

You have accepted project performance to date and assume future work (ETC) will be performed at the budgeted rate. If BAC = 800, ETC = 275, PV = 300, AC = 200, EV = 250, and CPI = 1.25, what is the EAC? A. 640 B. 750 C. 600 D. 550

B. When you accept project performance to date and assume future ETC work will be performed at the budgeted rate, EAC is calculated as follows: AC + (BAC – EV). Therefore, the calculation for this question looks like this: 200 + (800 – 250) = 750.

You know that EAC = 375, PV = 300, AC = 200, and EV = 250. You expect the work of the project to continue as planned. What is the ETC? A. 300 B. 125 C. 175 D. 50

C. The correct formula for ETC for this question is as follows: EAC – AC. Therefore, ETC is as follows: 375 – 200 = 175.

You expect future project performance to be consistent with the project performance experienced to date for this work component. If BAC = 800, ETC = 275, PV = 300, AC = 200, EV = 250, and CPI = 1.25, what is the EAC? A. 640 B. 750 C. 600 D. 550

A. When project performance is expected to behave like past performance, EAC is calculated as follows: EAC = BAC / CPI. Therefore, the calculation for this question looks like this: 800 / 1.25 = 640.

You know that BAC = 500, PV = 325, AC = 275, CPI = 0.9, and EV = 250, and you are using actual costs to date and assuming ETC uses the budgeted rate. Variance at completion tells you which of the following? A. 25 B. –52 C. 52 D. –25

D. You first have to calculate EAC in order to calculate VAC. EAC for variances that are atypical is AC + (BAC – EV). So, our numbers are 275 + (500 – 250) = 525. VAC is calculated this way: BAC – EAC. Therefore, 500 – 525 = –25. Our costs are not doing as well as anticipated.

You know that BAC = 2500, PV = 1250, AC = 1275, EV = 1150, and that you are experiencing typical cost variances. What is ETC? A. 1467 B. 2625 C. 1500 D. 2778

C. You must first calculate CPI in order to calculate ETC. CPI is EV / AC. We have 1150 / 1275 = .90. ETC with typical cost variances is (BAC –EV) / CPI. Our numbers are (2500 – 1150) / .90 = 1500.

Your project progressed as planned until yesterday. Suddenly, an unexpected risk event occurred. You quickly devised a response to deal with this negative risk event using which of the following? A. Risk management plan updates B. Workarounds C. Corrective action D. Additional risk identification

B. Workarounds are unplanned responses. They deal with negative risk events as they occur. As the name implies, workarounds were not previously known to the project team. The risk event was unplanned, so no contingency plan existed to deal with the risk event, and thus it required a workaround.

Which of the following describes the Control Resources process? A. This process ensures all resources are available at the time they are needed and at the location they are needed. B. This process documents all the resources needed for the project including their reporting relationships. C. This process ensures physical resources are available at the time they are needed and at the location they are needed. D. This process concerns attaining and assigning resources to the project and obtaining equipment, supplies, facilities, and other items you might need to perform the work of the project.

C. Control Resources ensures physical resources are available at the time they are needed and at the location they are needed. It also ensures the resources are released when their job is completed and that corrective actions are taken when resources are not utilized as planned.

You are the project manager for a top-secret software project for an agency of the United States government. Your mission—should you choose to accept it—is to complete the project using internal resources. Finding contractors with top-secret clearances takes quite a bit of time, and waiting for clearances would jeopardize the implementation date. Your programmers are 80 percent of the way through the programming and testing work when your agency appoints a new executive director. Slowly but surely your programmers are taken off this project and reassigned to the executive director’s hot new project. Which of the following types of project ending is this? A. Starvation B. Extinction C. Addition D. Integration

D. Integration occurs when resources, equipment, or property are reassigned or redeployed back to the organization or to another project.

You are a project manager for Cinema Snicker Productions. Your company specializes in producing comedy films for the big screen. Your latest project has just been canceled because of budget cuts. Which of the following statements is true? A. This project ended due to starvation because the funding was cut off. B. This project ended due to integration because the resources were distributed elsewhere. C. This project ended due to starvation because the resources were distributed elsewhere. D. This project ended due to integration because the funding was cut off.

A. Starvation occurs because the project no longer receives the resources needed to continue. Resources include people, equipment, money, and the like.

You are a project manager for Cinema Snicker Productions. Your company specializes in producing comedy films for the big screen. Your latest project has just been completed and accepted. You’ve been given your next project, which starts right away. Which of the following statements is true? A. This project ended due to extinction because it was completed and accepted. B. This project ended due to integration because it was completed and accepted and the project manager moved on to a new project. C. This project ended due to addition because it was completed, accepted, and archived into the company’s catalog of available films. D. This project ended due to integration because it was completed and accepted.

A. Extinction is the best type of project end because it means the project was completed successfully and accepted by the sponsor or customer.

You are a project manager for Dutch Harbor Consulting. Your latest project involves the upgrade of an organization’s operating system on 236 servers. You performed this project under contract. You are in the Close Project or Phase process and know that you should document and file which of the following? A. Administrative documents B. The written notice that the contract is complete C. Formal acceptance of the work of the project D. Product verification of the work of the project

C. Written notice of contract closure is part of the Control Procurements process. This process involves the project manager documenting the formal acceptance of the work of the contract.

You are a project manager for Dutch Harbor Consulting. Your latest project involves the upgrade of an organization’s operating system on 236 servers. You performed this project under contract. You are in the Close Project or Phase process and have reviewed the contracting documents to identify lessons learned. What is the name of the tool and technique you will use to perform this function? A. Document analysis B. Performance reviews C. Performance audits D. Regression analysis

A. Document analysis is performed to identify lessons learned and capture and share knowledge for use on future projects.

Your project was just completed. Because of some unfortunate circumstances, the project was delayed, causing cost overruns at the end of the project. Which of the following statements is true? A. You should pay particular attention to archiving the financial records for this project. B. You should document the circumstances as lessons learned. C. Your project ended because of starvation because of the cost overruns. D. You should document the circumstances surrounding the project completion during the Scope Verification process.

B. Lessons learned document the experiences, successes, and failures that occurred during this project for future reference. There isn’t enough information in the question to determine whether Option A or D is correct. Option C is not correct because the project was completed.

This tool and technique of the Close Project or Phase process looks at project variables and how they contributed to project outcomes. This is for the purpose of improving performance on future projects. A. Variance analysis B. Trend analysis C. Regression analysis D. Document analysis

C. Regression analysis examines project variables and how they contributed to project outcomes for the purpose of improving performance on future projects.

As a project manager, you’re responsible for maintaining and ensuring integrity for all of the following except which one? A. Project management process B. Personal integrity of others C. Personal integrity D. Product integrity

B. You are not responsible for the personal integrity of others, but as project manager you do have influence over others, such as your project team members.

You are a project manager working on contract. You’ve performed earned value analysis and discovered that the project will be completed on time and under the original estimated amount. This means the profit to your company will decrease, as will your personal bonus. Which of the following should you do? A. Add activities to the project to increase the cost enough to meet the original estimated amount. B. Tell the customer you’re adding requirements to the project that were originally cut because of cost constraints. C. Upon completion, inform the customer the project has come in under budget. D. Bill the customer for the full amount of the contract because this was the original agreed-on price.

C. Integrity means you’ll honestly report project outcomes and status. Your personal gain should not be placed above the satisfaction of the customer.

You are a project manager for a manufacturing firm that produces Civil War–era replicas and memorabilia. You discover a design error during a test production run on your latest project. Time is a critical constraint on this project. Which of the following is the most likely response to this problem? A. Reduce the technical requirements so that the error is no longer valid. B. Go forward with production and ignore the error. C. Go forward with production, but inform the customer of the problem. D. Develop alternative solutions to address the error.

D. The best answer to this problem is to develop alternative solutions to address the design error. Reducing technical requirements might be an alternative solution, but it’s not one you’d implement without looking at all the alternatives. Ignoring the error and going forward with production will result in an unsatisfactory product for the customer.

You are a project manager for a telecommunications firm. You’re working on a project that entails upgrading technical hardware and equipment. The estimated cost of the hardware and equipment is $1,725,000. You are reviewing products from three different vendors. One of the competing vendors invites you to lunch. What is the most appropriate response? A. Thank them, but let them know this could be a conflict of interest since you haven’t made a decision about which vendor you’re going to choose. B. Thank them, and decline. You know this could be considered personal gain, which could call your integrity into question. C. Thank them, and accept. You don’t believe there is a conflict of interest or a personal integrity issue. D. Thank them, and decline. You believe this could be a conflict of interest on the part of the vendor, and you don’t want to encourage that behavior.

A. A luncheon date could be considered a conflict of interest prior to awarding a contract to a vendor. Consider what a competitor of this vendor would think if they spotted you having lunch together.

You are a project manager for a telecommunications firm. You’re working on a project that entails upgrading technical hardware and equipment. The estimated cost of the hardware and equipment is $1,725,000. You are reviewing products from three vendors. One of the vendors offers you and your family the use of the company yacht for the upcoming three day weekend. What is the most appropriate response? A. Thank them, and accept. You don’t believe there is a conflict of interest or an integrity issue at stake. B. Thank them, and decline. You know this could be considered personal gain, which could call your integrity into question. C. Thank them, and accept. Immediately report your actions to the project sponsor so that your motives are not called into question after the fact. D. Thank them, and decline. You know this could be considered an integrity issue on the part of the vendor.

B. The best response to this situation is to thank the vendor and decline based on the fact that this could be considered personal gain on your part. Option D might seem correct, but remember, you’re not responsible for the integrity of others. It’s often common business practice for vendors to offer gifts to potential customers.

You are a project manager working on contract with a company in a foreign country. At the project kickoff meeting, you are given an expensive-looking gift. The person who presented this to you said that it is customary in their country to give their business partners gifts. What is the most appropriate response? A. Thank them, and decline. Explain that this is considered personal gain, which is unacceptable in your country. B. Thank them, and accept. You don’t believe there is a conflict of interest or an integrity issue at stake. C. Thank them, and decline. Explain that this is considered a conflict of interest, which is unacceptable in your country. D. Thank them, and accept because you know that it would be considered offensive to decline the gift in their culture. Immediately report the acceptance of the gift to the appropriate parties at your company so that your actions are not called into question later.

D. The best response in this case is to accept the gift because it would cause great offense to the other party if you were to decline. Report the gift and the circumstances as soon as possible to the appropriate parties at your company.

Life seems to be going very well for your close friend, a project manager, who like you has PMP® certification. She has taken a trip to France, purchased a new car, and stocked her wine cellar with a couple dozen expensive bottles of wine, all within the last six months. After a few cocktails one evening, she tells you her secret. The vendor she’s working with on the $4 billion project she’s managing has given her all of these items as gifts. Which scenario is the most appropriate? A. You tell your friend these gifts probably aren’t appropriate and leave it at that. B. You and your friend have a long conversation about the gifts, and she decides to return them (with the exception of the trip) and not accept any more gifts in the future. C. You’re happy for your friend and say nothing. D. Your friend doesn’t see a problem with accepting these gifts at all. You know this is a conflict-of-interest situation and should be reported as an ethical violation.

D. This is a conflict of interest situation, and you should report it as a violation of the PMI® Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.

As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure customer and stakeholder satisfaction is which of the following? A. Documenting and meeting the requirements B. Documenting and meeting the performance measurements C. Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project documents where appropriate D. Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner

A. Documenting the requirements and meeting them is one of the key things you can do to ensure customer satisfaction. The requirements describe what the customer is looking for, and the final product is compared against them to determine whether all of the requirements were met.

Your upcoming project includes project team members from a foreign country. To make certain that cultural differences don’t interfere with team performance, thereby affecting the success of the project, your first course of action is to do which of the following? A. Provide diversity training to all the team members. B. Co-locate the project team. C. Perform team-building exercises. D. Inform the team members of the organization’s rules and standards.

A. The most correct response is to first provide training to your team members to educate them regarding how to respect and work with others from different cultures. Colocation might not be possible when you’re working with team members from two different countries. Team-building exercises are a good idea as well but are not your first course of action.

You are a contract project manager working with the State of Bliss. Your latest project involves rewriting the Department of Revenue’s income tax system. One of the key stakeholders is a huge movie buff, and she has the power to promote you into a better position at the conclusion of this project. She has discovered that one of her favorite superstars lives in the State of Bliss and, therefore, must file income tax returns in that state. She asks you to look up the account of this movie star. What is the most appropriate response? A. Report her to the management team. B. Refuse to comply with the request, citing conflict of interest and violation of confidential company data. C. Look up the information she has requested. Because the data is considered part of the project, there is no conflict of interest. D. You believe that tax records are public information, so you comply with the request.

B. The situation presented here requires you to put the interest of the company and the confidentiality of the data above your own personal interests or those of your stakeholders. Option D is not the most correct response because it says you believe the information is public. This implies you haven’t verified whether the data is private or public. Until you know, treat the data as confidential. In this case, the information is confidential and should be shared only with those who have a valid reason for using it.

You are a contract project manager working with the State of Bliss. Your latest project involves rewriting the Department of Revenue’s income tax system. As project manager, you have taken all the appropriate actions regarding confidentiality of data. One of the key stakeholders is a huge movie buff, and she has the power to promote you into a better position at the conclusion of this project. She’s reviewing some report data that just happens to include confidential information regarding one of her favorite movie superstars. What is the most appropriate response? A. Report her to the management team. B. Request that she immediately return the information, citing conflict of interest and violation of confidential company data. C. Do nothing, because she has the proper level of access rights to the data and this information showed up unintentionally. D. Request that she immediately return the information until you can confirm that she has the proper level of access rights to the data.

C. As project manager, you have taken all the appropriate actions regarding confidentiality of data; this question indicated that you did that. In this case, Option D is not correct because it implies that you did not verify ahead of time that the stakeholder had the proper levels of approval to use the data.

You are a project manager with several years of experience in project management. You’ve accepted your first project in a foreign country. You’ve been in the country a week or two and are experiencing some disorientation. This is known as which of the following? A. Colocation B. Diversity shock C. Global culturing D. Culture shock

D. Culture shock is the disoriented feeling that people might experience when working in a foreign country.

You are a project manager for a software manufacturing firm. The project you just finished created a new software product that is expected to become a number-one seller. All prerelease of software is handled through the marketing department. A friend of yours, who is a certified software instructor, asks you for a copy of the software prior to the beta release so they can become familiar with it. What is the most appropriate response? A. Decline the request because the software is the intellectual property of the company. B. Ask them to sign a nondisclosure agreement before releasing a copy of the software. C. Decline the request because you stand to gain from this transaction by receiving free training. D. Because your friend is certified to teach your company’s brand of software, provide them with a copy of the software.

A. The most appropriate response is to deny the request. Software is considered intellectual property and should not be used for personal gain or given to others without prior consent from the organization. This question states that the release of the beta software is handled through the marketing department, so you should not give your friend a copy of the software outside of this process.