Pneumonia Flashcards
(180 cards)
1
Q
Question 1: What are the three main criteria used for classifying pneumonia?
A
Answer: classified based on microbes involved, how it is acquired, and its location.
2
Q
Question 2: List the three types of pathogens that can cause inflammation/infection of lung tissue in pneumonia.
A
Answer: bacterial, viral, and fungal.
3
Q
Question 3: Explain oropharyngeal aspiration as a cause of pneumonia.
A
Answer:
- Oropharyngeal aspiration occurs when secretions from the nasal cavity, oral cavity, and pharynx are drained into the airway.
- Pathogens within these secretions can enter the bronchial tubes or alveoli, leading to lung tissue damage, inflammation, and ultimately causing pneumonia.
4
Q
Question 4: What is the process of gastric aspiration and its connection to pneumonia?
A
Answer:
- Gastric aspiration involves the entry of gastric secretions from the esophagus and stomach into the airway.
- The natural flora present in these areas can reach the lung tissue, causing injury, inflammation, and infection, thus contributing to the development of pneumonia.
5
Q
Question 5: How does bacterial pneumonia primarily occur, and why is it the most common type?
A
Answer:
- Bacterial pneumonia often occurs through the aspiration of pathogens from the oropharynx or stomach into the airway.
- This is the most common type of pneumonia due to the abundance of bacteria in these areas and their potential to cause inflammation and infection in the lung tissue.
6
Q
Question 6: Mention the three factors that form the basis for pneumonia classification.
A
Answer:
Pneumonia classification is based on microbes involved, mode of acquisition, and the location of the infection.
7
Q
Question 7: What are the consequences of pathogens reaching the bronchial tubes or alveoli?
A
Answer:
When pathogens reach the bronchial tubes or alveoli, they can cause damage to lung tissue, leading to inflammation and infection that result in pneumonia.
8
Q
Question 8: Describe how gastric aspiration can contribute to pneumonia development.
A
Answer:
- Gastric aspiration involves the entry of stomach contents into the airway.
- The normal microorganisms present in the stomach and esophagus can cause inflammation, injury, and infection in the lung tissue, eventually leading to pneumonia.
9
Q
Question 9: Why is bacterial pneumonia more prevalent compared to other types?
A
Answer:
Bacterial pneumonia is more common due to the frequent aspiration of pathogens from the oropharynx and stomach into the airway, where they can cause inflammation and infection in the lung tissue.
10
Q
Question 10: What is the common result of pathogens causing inflammation in the lung tissue?
A
Answer:
- lead to infection and pneumonia, characterized by the inflammation and infection of the lung tissue itself.
11
Q
Question 1: What are the three natural protective reflexes that prevent pathogens from entering the airway and lung tissue?
A
Answer: The three natural protective reflexes are the gag reflex, cough reflex, and swallowing reflex.
12
Q
Question 2: How does the gag reflex function as a protective mechanism?
A
Answer:
The gag reflex is triggered when the back of the tonsil or throat is touched, leading to the reflexive contraction of muscles to prevent the entry of foreign material into the airway.
13
Q
Question 3: Describe the cough reflex and its purpose.
A
Answer:
- The cough reflex is activated when something irritates the proximal airway, causing tissue agitation.
- Its purpose is to forcefully expel the irritant and prevent it from entering deeper into the respiratory system.
14
Q
Question 4: What is the role of the swallowing reflex in protecting the respiratory system?
A
Answer:
- The swallowing reflex ensures that oropharyngeal secretions andsubstances from the gastrointestinal tract are directed downward into the gastrointestinal tract
- through the normal swallowing process, preventing their entry into the airway.
15
Q
Question 5: What conditions can lead to the loss or decrease of protective reflexes like gag, cough, and swallowing?
A
Answer:
- CNS diseases such as stroke, seizures, Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis,
- as well as CNS depression due to factors like opioids, benzodiazepines, alcohol, sedation, neuromuscular blockade, and being on a ventilator.
16
Q
Question 6: Which bacteria are commonly associated with aspiration-related pneumonia?
A
Answer:
- Klebsiella is common in patients with alcohol use or aspiration due to CNS disease.
- Anaerobes, which originate from the GI tract, are also significant.
- Staphylococcus aureus is another bacterium to consider.
17
Q
Question 7: What are some CNS diseases that can lead to the loss of protective reflexes and subsequent aspiration?
A
Answer:
CNS diseases such as stroke, seizures, Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis can lead to the loss or impairment of protective reflexes.
18
Q
Question 8: How can aspiration of pathogens occur through inhalation?
A
Answer:
- Pathogens can be inhaled through close contact with infected individuals in high-volume populations, from soil or dust exposure, and through contact with droppings from specific animals.
- Water sources like hot tubs, pools, showers, and AC units in densely populated areas can also contribute to inhalation of pathogens.
19
Q
Question 1: How does the mucociliary clearance system work as a respiratory defense mechanism?
A
Answer:
- The mucociliary clearance system involves cilia beating within the bronchi and trachea, which helps move bacteria and mucus upwards.
- This process allows us to either spit out or swallow the trapped pathogens and mucus, preventing their retention within the respiratory tract.
20
Q
Question 2: What are some conditions or factors that can lead to increased mucus production and impair mucociliary clearance?
A
Answer:
cystic fibrosis, malignancy, primary ciliary dyskinesia, and airway inflammation such as bronchiectasis.
21
Q
Question 3: How does damage to cilia contribute to vulnerability to pathogens?
A
Answer:
- Damage to cilia, often seen in conditions like COPD, smoking, and in elderly individuals,
- provides an opportunity for pathogens to become trapped in the lower airways.
- This can lead to inflammation, infection, and the development of pneumonia.
22
Q
Question 4: Which pathogens are commonly associated with impaired mucociliary clearance due to conditions like COPD, smoking, and bronchiectasis?
A
Answer:
Haemophilus influenzae,
Moraxella catarrhalis,
Pseudomonas aeruginosa,
Legionella, and
Streptococcus pneumoniae
23
Q
Question 5: How can pathogens spread to the lungs through hematogenous means?
A
Answer:
Hematogenous spread occurs when pathogens enter the bloodstream and then spread to the lungs.
- This can be a risk for IV drug abusers, where pathogens can be introduced through dirty needles,
- or after a post-influenza infection when the immune system is compromised.
24
Q
Question 6: What are some risk factors for hematogenous spread of pathogens to the lungs?
A
Answer:
- Risk factors include IV drug abuse (Staphylococcus aureus), and post-influenza infection where the immune system is weakened, leading to an increased risk of infection, especially with Staphylococcus aureus.
25
Question 7: In what scenarios might immunocompromised patients be at a higher risk of developing pneumonia?
Answer:
Immunocompromised patients, such as those with HIV, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, a history of transplantation, or those taking immunosuppressive medications, have a weakened immune system that reduces their ability to clear infections effectively.
26
Question 8: What are some microbial pathogens commonly associated with pneumonia in immunocompromised patients?
Answer:
Pseudomonas, Legionella, Pneumocystis jirovecii, and Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can be more prevalent due to the compromised immune response.
27
Question 9: How does impaired immune function contribute to susceptibility to pneumonia?
Answer:
Impaired immune function reduces the ability of macrophages and other immune cells to clear infections effectively, allowing pathogens to proliferate and cause inflammation and infection in the lungs.
28
Question 10: What is the key role of macrophages in the immune response against respiratory pathogens?
Answer:
Macrophages engulfing and eliminating pathogens and infected materials from the lungs, preventing the development of infections like pneumonia.
29
Question 1: What are the primary ways patients can develop pneumonia?
Answer:
* Patients can develop pneumonia through aspiration, inhalation, and when impaired mucociliary clearance allows pathogens to proliferate in the lungs.
* Additionally, pathogens can spread to the lungs via the bloodstream if the immune system is not competent enough to clear the infection.
30
Question 2: What is the key characteristic of community-acquired pneumonia?
Answer:
* acquired from the community and
* typically occurs within two days of hospital admission.
* The most common pathogen associated with this type is Streptococcus pneumoniae, often affecting elderly patients.
31
Question 3: Describe hospital-acquired pneumonia and its most common subtype.
Answer:
* Hospital-acquired pneumonia develops in patients who have been hospitalized for more than 48 hours.
* The most common subtype is ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP).
32
Question 4: What is the defining factor that characterizes ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
Answer:
VAP occurs in patients who have an endotracheal tube in their airway for more than 48 hours, commonly seen in intensive care units (ICUs).
33
Question 5: Name two types of bacteria associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia.
Answer:
* Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and
* Pseudomonas are bacteria commonly associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia.
34
Question 6: How can proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) and histamine 2 receptor antagonists (H2RA) contribute to hospital-acquired pneumonia?
Answer:
* In patients receiving these drugs, gastric acid production is suppressed, leading to an increase in gastric pH.
* This change in pH allows bacteria to survive better.
* If reflux occurs around the endotracheal tube and enters the lungs, it can cause pneumonia.
35
Question 7: Explain how sedation and increased paralysis can contribute to hospital-acquired pneumonia.
Answer:
* Sedation can reduce patients' ability to cough and clear secretions, while increased paralysis can further inhibit the natural mechanisms for clearing secretions.
* This can lead to the buildup of secretions, the formation of a film, and ultimately result in infection.
36
Question 8: Which type of pneumonia should be considered if a patient has been on an endotracheal tube for more than two days?
Answer:
Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) should be considered in such cases, especially if the patient shows signs of infection.
37
Question 9: What are some factors that increase the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia?
Answer:
* The presence of an endotracheal tube for more than 48 hours,
* the use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) and histamine 2 receptor antagonists (H2RA),
* sedation, and increased paralysis all increase the risk of developing ventilator-associated pneumonia.
38
Question 10: Summarize the main concepts related to hospital-acquired pneumonia, including its subtypes and contributing factors.
Answer:
* Hospital-acquired pneumonia occurs in patients who have been hospitalized for more than 48 hours.
* Its subtypes include ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP).
* Contributing factors can include endotracheal tubes, the use of drugs like PPIs and H2RAs, sedation, and increased paralysis.
39
Question 1: What are some factors from a patient's past medical history that can influence the risk of developing pneumonia?
Answer:
Patients with underlying lung disease, those in tight controlled crowds, those with immunosuppressive conditions, and IV drug abusers may be at higher risk of developing pneumonia.
40
Question 2: Name some bacteria and viruses associated with atypical pneumonia.
Answer:
Bacteria such as
Mycoplasma,
Chlamydia/Chlamydophila, and
Legionella, a
long with viruses like Parainfluenza, Cytomegalovirus (CMV), and SARS-CoV-2, are associated with atypical pneumonia.
41
Question 3: How can atypical pneumonia be differentiated from typical pneumonia?
Answer:
Atypical pneumonia often presents with upper respiratory tract infection-like symptoms such as
headache,
nasal congestion,
rhinorrhea,
sore throat,
low-grade fever,
myalgia,
arthritis, and
earache.
* These symptoms are in contrast to the classic features of typical pneumonia.
42
Question 4: List some microbes associated with typical pneumonia.
Answer:
Microbes commonly associated with typical pneumonia include
Streptococcus pneumoniae,
Klebsiella,
Haemophilus influenza,
Staphylococcus aureus, and
Pseudomonas.
43
Question 5: What are the clinical features commonly observed in patients with typical pneumonia?
Answer:
* Patients with typical pneumonia often exhibit high-grade fever and rigors due to the massive inflammatory process in the lungs, leading to the release of cytokines like IL-1 and IL-6.
* These cytokines affect the central nervous system, causing fever and rigors as part of the body's defense response.
44
Question 6: How does V/Q mismatch contribute to hypoxemia in pneumonia?
Answer:
* V/Q mismatch occurs when alveoli are filled with pus, impairing ventilation.
* Despite normal perfusion (blood flow through pulmonary vessels), the ability to oxygenate the blood is compromised due to the decreased ventilation, leading to hypoxemia.
45
Question 7: Describe the concept of V/Q mismatch.
Answer:
* V/Q mismatch occurs when alveoli are filled with pus, causing ventilation to decrease while perfusion remains normal.
* This mismatch impairs oxygenation and can lead to hypoxemia.
46
Question 8: Why does high-grade fever occur in typical pneumonia?
Answer:
* High-grade fever in typical pneumonia is a response to the massive inflammation in the lungs, which triggers the release of cytokines like IL-1 and IL-6.
* These cytokines affect the central nervous system, raising body temperature to create an environment less conducive for bacterial survival.
47
Question 9: How do upper respiratory tract infection-like symptoms differentiate atypical pneumonia?
Answer:
* Atypical pneumonia is characterized by upper respiratory tract infection-like symptoms such as headache, nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, sore throat, low-grade fever, myalgia, arthritis, and **earache**.
* These symptoms contrast with the classic features of typical pneumonia.
48
Question 10: In patients with V/Q mismatch due to pneumonia, how does perfusion compare to ventilation?
Answer:
* perfusion (blood flow through pulmonary vessels) remains normal, while ventilation (the ability to move air in and out of alveoli) is decreased.
* This leads to a compromised ability to oxygenate the blood and results in hypoxemia.
49
Question 1: How does a V/Q mismatch contribute to the respiratory symptoms observed in pneumonia?
Answer:
* In pneumonia, alveoli filled with pus lead to a V/Q mismatch, where ventilation is decreased and perfusion remains normal.
* This mismatch results in hypoxemia, leading to reflexive physiological reactions such as increased heart rate, increased respiratory depth, and rate.
50
Question 2: Explain how chemoreceptors and the central nervous system respond to hypoxemia in pneumonia.
Answer:
* Chemoreceptors in the aorta and carotid bifurcation detect low oxygen concentrations and send impulses to the medulla in the central nervous system.
* The medulla responds by increasing heart rate, respiratory depth, and rate to improve oxygenation.
51
Question 3: What are the reflexive vital sign reactions commonly observed in patients with pneumonia?
Answer:
Patients with pneumonia often present with high-grade fever, rigors, low oxygen saturation on pulse oximetry, increased heart rate, increased respiratory depth, and rate due to the V/Q mismatch and resultant hypoxemia.
52
Question 4: How does pneumonia lead to productive cough?
Answer:
* Inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles in pneumonia stimulates nociceptors and cough receptors.
* This inflammation triggers the cough reflex as a defense mechanism to clear the excess secretions and mucus, leading to a productive cough.
53
Question 5: Why do patients with pneumonia experience pleuritic chest pain?
Answer:
* Inflammation of the lung parenchyma near the pleura triggers pain receptors, leading to the sensation of pleuritic chest pain.
* This occurs when the pleura, which has somatic motor fibers, becomes agitated or inflamed.
54
Question 6: What symptoms and physical examination findings are common in patients with typical pneumonia?
Answer:
* Patients with typical pneumonia may exhibit pleuritic chest pain, productive cough, hypoxemia, reflexive tachypnea and tachycardia, high-grade fevers, and rigors.
* Physical examination findings include dullness to percussion, positive bronchophony, positive egophony, positive whispered pectoriloquy, and increased tactile fremitus due to lung consolidation.
55
Question 7: Describe the rationale behind positive bronchophony, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy in pneumonia.
Answer:
* In pneumonia, lung consolidation with fluid amplifies sound transmission.
* Positive bronchophony involves the clear transmission of spoken words, positive egophony involves the sound "e" changing to "a" due to amplification, and whispered pectoriloquy involves whispered words being clearly heard due to increased sound conduction through consolidated lung tissue.
56
Question 8: How does increased tactile fremitus help diagnose pneumonia?
Answer:
* Increased tactile fremitus occurs when sound waves move through fluid-filled consolidation, intensifying vibrations.
* By placing the hypothenar eminence on the chest wall, physicians can feel more intense vibrations in areas of consolidated lung tissue, aiding in diagnosing pneumonia.
57
Question 9: How does pneumonia-related consolidation affect physical examination findings such as percussion and auscultation?
Answer:
* In pneumonia, lung consolidation results in dullness to percussion due to the presence of fluid-filled tissue.
* During auscultation, positive bronchophony, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy occur due to the increased sound conduction through consolidated lung tissue.
58
Question 10: How can the presence of typical pneumonia-related physical examination findings assist in diagnosis?
Answer:
Physical examination findings such as dullness to percussion,
positive bronchophony,
positive egophony,
positive whispered pectoriloquy, and
increased tactile fremitus in areas of lung consolidation.
59
Question 1: What are the two potential complications associated with the presence of fluid and bacteria in the pleural space around pneumonia?
Answer:
* parapneumonic effusion, which is sterile inflammation around the pneumonia resulting in fluid accumulation in the pleural space, and
* empyema, which involves inflammation with localized bacteria and pus within the pleural cavity.
60
Question 2: How does the presence of anaerobes like Staphylococcus or Klebsiella contribute to lung abscess formation?
Answer:
* Anaerobes can cause lung abscesses when they infect the lung, leading to the formation of a large cavity filled with pus.
* This process is known as lung cavitation.
61
Question 3: Describe the relationship between bronchopneumonia, diffuse alveolar damage, and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Answer:
* In bronchopneumonia, inflammation and infection spread across multiple alveoli and bronchioles.
* This can lead to diffuse alveolar damage, which is a common occurrence in ARDS.
* The inflammatory damage to the alveoli can result in ARDS, a severe respiratory condition.
62
Question 4: How does sepsis develop as a complication of pneumonia?
Answer:
* Bacteria from the pneumonia can enter the bloodstream, causing bacteremia.
* If the infection spreads and starts affecting multiple organs, potentially leading to organ failure, the patient may meet the criteria for sepsis.
* Symptoms such as hypoxemia, low blood pressure, tachycardia, tachypnea, and fever are often indicators of sepsis.
63
Question 5: What are the key steps in the pathophysiology of sepsis?
A
nswer: The pathophysiology of sepsis involves several steps:
* Vasodilation: Blood vessels dilate, leading to decreased mean arterial blood pressure.
* Increased capillary permeability: This can cause fluid leakage and reduced organ perfusion.
* Altered coagulation system: Platelet count decreases, potentially leading to bleeding and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
* These steps can collectively lead to multisystem organ failure.
64
Question 6: How can parapneumonic effusion and empyema arise as complications of pneumonia?
Answer:
* Parapneumonic effusion occurs when inflammation around pneumonia causes fluid to leak into the pleural space.
* If bacteria spread into the pleural space, it can lead to empyema, which involves localized infection and pus accumulation in the pleural cavity.
65
Question 7: What distinguishes lung abscess from other pneumonia complications?
Answer:
* Lung abscess involves the formation of a large cavity filled with pus within the lung.
* This is often caused by anaerobic bacteria like Staphylococcus or Klebsiella and results in lung cavitation.
66
Question 8: How do the symptoms of hypoxemia, low blood pressure, tachycardia, tachypnea, and fever relate to the development of sepsis?
Answer:
* These symptoms often indicate that an infection has spread beyond the original site, leading to systemic involvement.
* In the context of pneumonia, these symptoms can signify the development of sepsis, especially if organ failure begins to occur.
67
Question 9: Why do patients who develop pneumonia have a high risk of sepsis?
Answer:
* Patients who develop pneumonia are at a high risk of sepsis due to the potential for bacteria to enter the bloodstream, leading to bacteremia.
* If this infection progresses to affect multiple organs and meets specific criteria, it can result in sepsis.
68
Question 10: How can parapneumonic effusion and empyema affect the pleural space in pneumonia?
Answer:
* Parapneumonic effusion involves sterile inflammation around pneumonia leading to fluid accumulation in the pleural space.
* Empyema involves localized infection and pus accumulation within the pleural cavity, causing a loculated appearance.
69
Question 1: Describe the common symptoms associated with both typical and atypical pneumonia presentations.
Answer:
include cough, shortness of breath, fever, low oxygen saturation (SaO2), tachypnea, increased heart rate, evidence of consolidation on physical exam, productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain.
70
Question 2: Why is determining whether pneumonia is community-acquired or hospital-acquired important in diagnosis?
Answer:
* because it influences the choice of antibiotic treatment.
* Different pathogens are more likely in each category, so knowing the source helps guide antibiotic selection.
71
Question 3: What is the most common pathogen associated with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?
Answer:
The most common pathogen associated with CAP is
* Streptococcus pneumoniae. (M/C)
* Haemophilus influenzae and
* Moraxella catarrhalis are also common in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
72
Question 4: What are the differences between lobar pneumonia and bronchopneumonia?
Answer:
* Lobar pneumonia typically occurs in community-acquired cases and involves consolidation in specific lung lobes.
* Bronchopneumonia, commonly seen in hospital-acquired cases like ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), involves scattered inflammation in the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli.
73
Question 5: Which pathogens are most specific to hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)?
Answer: MRSA and Pseudomonas.
74
Question 6: What is the purpose of a respiratory viral panel in diagnosing pneumonia?
Answer:
* helps identify respiratory viruses like Influenza, SARS-CoV2, and RSV.
* This is important when patients present with upper respiratory tract symptoms or an atypical presentation of pneumonia.
75
Question 7: How does pneumonia affect white blood cell counts?
Answer:
* Pneumonia activates the immune system, leading to increased cytokine release and bone marrow activation.
* This results in an increased white blood cell count, with a rise in neutrophils for bacterial infections and lymphocytes for viral infections.
76
Question 8: Which type of white blood cell count elevation is associated with bacterial infections, and which is associated with viral infections?
Answer:
* Neutrophil count elevation is associated with bacterial infections, while
* lymphocyte count elevation is associated with viral infections.
77
Question 9: Why might an elevated white blood cell count be observed in a patient with pneumonia?
Answer:
* Pneumonia triggers an immune response, leading to increased cytokine release and bone marrow activity.
* This, in turn, causes an elevation in white blood cell count as the body tries to combat the infection.
78
Question 10: How does the choice of antibiotic regimen vary between community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)?
Answer:
* The choice of antibiotic regimen varies based on whether pneumonia is CAP or HAP. For CAP, antibiotics that target common pathogens like Streptococcus pneumoniae are typically used.
* In HAP, especially VAP, broader-spectrum antibiotics may be needed to cover pathogens like MRSA and Pseudomonas.
79
Question 1: Why is a basic metabolic panel (BMP) useful in diagnosing pneumonia?
Answer:
* A BMP can provide information about potential multisystem organ failure, particularly sepsis.
* It helps detect signs of acute kidney injury, often seen in severe infections, and assess electrolyte imbalances like low sodium (hyponatremia), which might be indicative of Legionella infection.
80
Question 2: How does a urinary antigen test assist in diagnosing pneumonia?
Answer:
* The urinary antigen test can identify specific antigens of pathogens like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Legionella.
* These antigens can be filtered by the kidneys into the urine, allowing for a non-invasive way to diagnose these types of pneumonia.
81
Question 3: Why might CRP and liver function tests (LFT) be increased in pneumonia patients?
Answer:
* CRP (C-reactive protein) and LFT might increase due to inflammation caused by the infection.
* CRP is produced by the liver in response to inflammation, while increased LFT might indicate liver injury caused by bacterial pathogens like Legionella.
82
Question 4: What is the purpose of blood culture in diagnosing pneumonia?
Answer:
* Blood culture is important when there's concern about sepsis, as it helps identify whether the pathogen has entered the bloodstream.
* This information is crucial for determining appropriate antibiotic treatment.
83
Question 5: How does sputum culture contribute to the diagnosis and treatment of pneumonia?
Answer:
* Sputum culture helps identify the specific pathogen causing the pneumonia.
* This information guides treatment decisions, allowing for targeted antibiotic therapy rather than relying solely on empirical treatment.
84
Question 6: Why is imaging important in diagnosing pneumonia?
Answer:
* Imaging is crucial for identifying the location and type of pneumonia.
* Different types of pneumonia, such as lobar, bronchopneumonia, and interstitial pneumonia, have distinct imaging patterns that can help determine the underlying pathogens and guide treatment decisions.
85
Question 7: How does lobar pneumonia differ from bronchopneumonia in terms of location and imaging features?
Answer:
* Lobar pneumonia occupies one of the lung lobes and appears as hazy opacities with a clear border on imaging.
* In contrast, bronchopneumonia involves bronchi and bronchioles, leading to bilateral patchy opacities on imaging.
86
Question 8: What is the main feature of interstitial pneumonia, and which pathogens are commonly associated with it?
Answer:
* Interstitial pneumonia involves the interstitial spaces of the lung, not the lung parenchyma.
* It often presents as fine reticular (net-like) opacities on imaging.
* Common pathogens associated with interstitial pneumonia include atypical agents like Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella, and certain viruses.
87
Question 9: How can imaging help differentiate between hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) and community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?
Answer:
Imaging can help differentiate HAP from CAP based on the location and pattern of opacities.
* HAP, particularly ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), often presents as bronchopneumonia with involvement of MRSA and Pseudomonas.
* CAP may involve lobar pneumonia caused by pathogens like Streptococcus pneumoniae or bronchopneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, and more.
88
Question 1: When should a chest X-ray be the initial test ordered for a patient WITH pneumonia
Answer:
A chest X-ray should be the initial test ordered when a patient presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and purulent cough. This is due to its ease of access and quick turnaround time.
89
Question 2: What are the indications for obtaining a CT scan in the context of diagnosing pneumonia?
Answer:
* When the chest X-ray is inconclusive, and there is a high degree of suspicion of pneumonia.
* When a patient being treated for pneumonia is not showing improvement.
* In immunocompromised patients.
90
Question 3: Describe the interpretation and characteristics of bronchopneumonia on a chest X-ray.
Answer:
* Not being situated to a specific lobe.
* Bilateral patchy consolidation.
* It is associated with pathogens like
* Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Klebsiella
* in outpatients, and MRSA, Pseudomonas in hospital-acquired pneumonia.
91
Question 4: In what clinical scenarios should interstitial pneumonia be considered, and how does it appear on a chest X-ray?
Answer:
Interstitial pneumonia should be considered in patients who present with symptoms such as headache, nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, sore throat, and low-grade fever.
* It is common in young individuals living in close-contact environments like dormitories.
* On a chest X-ray, it appears as fine reticular markings moving from the hilum outward toward the pleura.
* Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella, and viruses are potential pathogens associated with interstitial pneumonia.
92
Question 5: Explain the choice of chest X-ray positions (PA, lateral) and their interpretations in the context of lobar pneumonia.
Answer:
* In lobar pneumonia, the choice of chest X-ray positions is important.
* The PA (posteroanterior) chest X-ray provides a good picture of the chest wall and pathology, including upper and middle-lobe pathology.
* The lateral chest X-ray is useful to visualize lower lobes that may be obscured on the PA view.
* Interpretation of a PA chest X-ray might involve describing the condition of different lobes, such as upper, middle, and lower lobes, and identifying any opacities or consolidation.
* Lateral X-ray provides a view that may reveal consolidated areas in specific lobes.
93
Question 6: What is the significant pathogen associated with lobar pneumonia, and how might it appear on a chest X-ray?
Answer:
* Lobar pneumonia is often associated with Streptococcus pneumoniae.
* On a chest X-ray, lobar pneumonia might appear as hazy opacities with a clear border, situated in one of the lobes of the lung.
94
Question 1: Describe the interpretation and characteristics of left upper lobe pneumonia on a chest X-ray.
Answer:
* Hazy opacity in the left upper lobe.
* It obscures the left portion of the mediastinum, including the aorta and pulmonary knob.
* The right upper and lower lobes appear clean, and the right heart border is visible.
95
Question 2: What is the significance of an opacity obscuring the right heart border in the context of right middle lobe pneumonia on a chest X-ray?
Answer:
* An opacity obscuring the right heart border on a chest X-ray indicates right middle lobe pneumonia.
* This opacity corresponds to hazy consolidation in the right middle lobe of the lung.
96
Question 3: Explain the interpretation of right upper lobe pneumonia on a chest X-ray.
Answer:
* Opacities involving the right upper lobe.
* Horizontal fissure bulging due to the involvement of the right upper lobe.
* The left upper and lower lobes appear clean, and the right heart border is visible.
97
Question 4: When is a CT scan recommended for diagnosing pneumonia, and what key feature might be observed in a CT scan image of pneumonia?
Answer:
* A CT scan is recommended for diagnosing pneumonia in cases where the chest X-ray is inconclusive, the patient is not improving with antibiotics, or the patient is immunocompromised.
* A key feature often observed in CT scan images of pneumonia is the presence of air bronchograms.
* These are air-filled cavities within areas of consolidation, indicating significant lung involvement and characteristic of pneumonia.
98
Question 1: What is the primary focus when treating pneumonia?
Answer 1: The primary focus of pneumonia treatment is on antibiotics to target the infection.
99
Question 2: Alongside antibiotics, what are some supportive measures that might be considered in pneumonia treatment?
Answer 2:
* Supportive measures for pneumonia treatment may include addressing potential hypoxemia, which was discussed in the Acute Respiratory Failure lecture.
100
Question 3: How does the choice of antibiotics depend on the type of pneumonia?
Answer 3:
* Antibiotic choice is determined by the specific type of pneumonia and how patients are stratified based on their risk level.
101
Question 4: What does CURB-65 help determine in pneumonia cases?
Answer 4:
* CURB-65 is used to stratify patients with community-acquired pneumonia and guide decisions regarding the appropriate level of care.
102
Question 5: Explain the components of the CURB-65 scoring system.
Answer 5: The CURB-65 scoring system includes confusion, uremia, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age as criteria to assess the severity of pneumonia.
103
Question 6: Why might confusion or altered mental status occur in pneumonia patients, especially in the elderly?
Answer 6: Confusion or altered mental status in pneumonia patients, particularly the elderly, can result from bacteria entering the bloodstream, causing decreased perfusion and multi-system organ failure.
104
Question 7: How does uremia relate to pneumonia and what level of urea is considered significant?
Answer 7:
Uremia, indicated by a urea level > 20mg/dL, suggests acute kidney injury due to decreased kidney perfusion in pneumonia patients.
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Question 8: What respiratory rate value is used as a criterion in the CURB-65 scoring system?
Answer 8: A respiratory rate > 30 breaths per minute is considered a criterion in the CURB-65 scoring system for pneumonia.
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Question 9: Describe the blood pressure criteria used in the CURB-65 scoring system.
Answer 9:
* In the CURB-65 scoring system, hypotension is indicated by systolic blood pressure < 90mmHg or diastolic blood pressure < 60mmHg.
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Question 10: How does the age of a patient affect their risk and severity in pneumonia?
Answer 10:
Older age, particularly 65 years and above, due to compromised immune function, impaired mucociliary clearance, and comorbidities.
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Question 11: How does CURB-65 scoring guide decisions for different levels of care in community-acquired pneumonia?
Answer 11:
CURB-65 scoring helps determine whether a patient with community-acquired pneumonia should be managed as an outpatient, admitted to a non-ICU hospital setting, or placed in the ICU based on their cumulative score.
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Question 1: What are the antibiotic options for treating community-acquired pneumonia in an outpatient setting?
Answer 1:
For outpatient treatment of community-acquired pneumonia, consider macrolides (e.g., azithromycin) or doxycycline. Respiratory fluoroquinolones are an option but usually reserved for cases with specific risk factors.
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Question 2: In a non-ICU hospital setting, what antibiotic regimen can be considered for treating community-acquired pneumonia?
Answer 2: For non-ICU inpatients, a combination of a beta-lactam antibiotic (such as ceftriaxone) with a macrolide or doxycycline, or the use of a respiratory fluoroquinolone as monotherapy, can be effective.
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Question 3: What are the recommended antibiotic options for treating community-acquired pneumonia in the ICU?
Answer 3: In the ICU, consider using a combination of a macrolide and a beta-lactam antibiotic or a combination of a respiratory fluoroquinolone and a beta-lactam antibiotic. Alternatives like Augmentin or Unison can also be used.
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Question 4: What antibiotics are typically used to target MRSA in hospital-acquired pneumonia cases?
Answer 4: For hospital-acquired pneumonia with MRSA concern, antibiotics like vancomycin or linezolid are commonly used.
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Question 5: What are the treatment options for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections in hospital-acquired pneumonia?
Answer 5: To treat Pseudomonas aeruginosa in hospital-acquired pneumonia, antibiotics like piperacillin-tazobactam (Piptazo/zosin), cefepime, aminoglycosides (e.g., tobramycin, gentamicin, amikacin), and sometimes respiratory quinolones (levofloxacin or moxifloxacin) can be considered.
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Question 6: What antibiotic is recommended for HIV-positive patients with CD4+ counts less than 200 who are at risk of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia?
Answer 6: In cases of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia risk in HIV-positive patients with CD4+ counts less than 200, Bactrim (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) is commonly used.
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Question 7: What antibiotic treatment approach is recommended for aspiration pneumonia?
Answer 7: For aspiration pneumonia, antibiotics that cover anaerobes are considered, such as clindamycin, Augmentin (amoxicillin-clavulanate), and metronidazole combined with a beta-lactam.
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Question 8: What are the key pneumococcal vaccines used to prevent pneumonia?
Answer 8: PCV-13 is administered to children at 2, 4, 6, and 12-15 months of age. PPSV-23 is recommended for individuals aged 65 and older or those with underlying conditions that increase pneumonia risk.
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Question 1: What is pneumonia characterized by?
Answer 1: Pneumonia is a common lower respiratory tract infection characterized by inflammation of the lung tissue (lung parenchyma).
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Question 4: In what situations is aspiration most common?
Answer 4:
Aspiration is more common in situations such as
* regurgitation due to underlying swallowing issues (achalasia, Zinger's diverticulum)
* aspiration pneumonia (more common with anaerobic bacterial etiology), and
* IV drug users via hematogenous spread (Staphylococcus aureus).
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Question 5: What are the four defense mechanisms of the lungs?
Answer 5:
* cilia ("muco-ciliary escalator"),
* cough reflex,
* antibodies, and
* alveolar macrophages.
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Question 6: What is the mechanism of the cough reflex?
Answer 6:
* The irritant receptors in bronchi activate afferent fibers via the vagus nerve,
* which transmit the signal to the respiratory center in the medulla.
* Efferent fibers of intercostal and phrenic nerves trigger the cough reflex.
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Question 7: What are some common causative agents of community-acquired pneumonia?
Answer 7:
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and Staphylococcus aureus.
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Question 8: How is Legionella typically transmitted?
Answer 8:
through the inhalation of contaminated water droplets.
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Question 9: How can Legionella infection be identified?
Answer 9:
* Legionella infection can cause hyponatremia (low sodium) by causing SIADH.
Symptoms may include
* gastrointestinal issues,
* elevated liver enzymes, and
* a history of recent exposure, such as a cheap hotel holiday.
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Question 10: How can Mycoplasma pneumonia be identified?
Answer 10:
* Mycoplasma pneumonia can cause a rash called
"erythema multiforme" with varying sized "target lesions."
* It can also cause neurological symptoms in young patients.
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Question 11: What type of pneumonia is associated with birds (pets)?
Answer 11:
Chlamydia psittaci causes Psittacosis, often associated with exposure to birds (pets).
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Question 12: Which type of pneumonia is seen in farmers and is associated with animals?
Answer 12: Coxiella burneti (Q fever) is often seen in farmers and is associated with animals.
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Question 13: What kind of organism is Coxiella burneti?
Answer 13: intracellular parasite.
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Question 14: What type of pneumonia is common in chronic alcoholics and aspirators?
Answer 14:
Klebsiella pneumonia
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Question 15: What is another name for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, and in which population is it most commonly seen?
Answer 15: P
* Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) and
* is most commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals, such as AIDS patients.
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Question 16: What does SPRU stand for in the context of immune deficiency?
Answer 16:
* SPRU stands for Sever Persistence Resistance Unusual, and
* it refers to various opportunistic infections like viruses (CMV), bacteria (Mycobacterium avium intracellulare), fungi (aspergillus, candida, pneumocystis), and protozoa (cryptosporidia, toxoplasma)
* that can affect immunocompromised individuals.
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Question 17: What test can be performed to diagnose genetic disorders like cystic fibrosis?
Answer 17:
**A sweat test** is commonly used for diagnosing genetic disorders like cystic fibrosis.
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Question 18: What is FBC used for in the context of immune deficiency?
Answer 18:
FBC refers to Full Blood Count and is used to assess immune deficiency and related conditions.
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Question 1: What are the five causes of atypical pneumonia, and how can you remember them?
Answer 1:
* Legionella pneumophila
Chlamydia psittaci
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)
* You can remember them using the mnemonic "legions of psittaci MCQs."
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Question 2: Which bacterium is associated with "walking pneumonia" and typically affects children and young adults?
Answer 2:
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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Question 3: Describe the pathophysiology of pneumonia in terms of pathogen invasion and its consequences.
Answer 3:
* infection leading to inflammatory exudation and consolidation.
* Bacteria release endotoxins that trigger a tissue damage response, including the release of various substances like leukotrienes, histamine, and cytokines.
* These substances lead to increased vascular permeability, vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and recruitment of immune cells to the site of infection.
* This process results in manifestations like edema, fever, dyspnea, and shortness of breath.
* The inflammatory response is crucial for recruiting immune cells and complement proteins to fight off bacteria.
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uestion 1: What are the four stages of pneumonia and their characteristics?
Answer 1:
First Stage: Congestion (Day 1-2)
Second Stage: Red hepatization (Day 3-4)
Third Stage: Gray hepatization (Day 4-7)
Fourth Stage: Resolution (Day ≥8)
* During these stages, the lung tissue undergoes changes due to inflammation, fluid leakage, exudates formation, and the breakdown of accumulated materials.
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Question 2: What is consolidation in the context of pneumonia?
Answer 2:
* Consolidation refers to the filling of lung tissue with alveolar exudates, including protein, water, plasma components, and congestion components like white blood cells (WBCs), red blood cells (RBCs), and fibrin.
* This can lead to hypoxia and manifest as lung tissue becoming denser and less aerated.
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Question 3: What causes consolidation and what is the mechanism behind it?
Answer 3:
* Consolidation occurs due to the inflammatory response triggered by bacteria or viruses.
* This response leads to damage of lung tissue or alveoli, causing them to fill with exudates and inflammatory components.
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Question 5: Name some fungal causes of pneumonia and their association.
Answer 5:
Pneumocystis jiroveci
Histoplasmosis capsulatum
Coccidioides
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Question 6: What are the subtypes of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?
A
Answer 6:
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
M. pneumoniae
Chlamydia
Legionella
Moraxella catarrhalis
Klebsiella
S. aureus
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Question 9: Name some subtypes of HAP.
Answer 9: Subtypes of HAP include:
MRSA
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Actinobacteria
Serratia
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Question 8: What characterizes hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) and what can increase the risk?
Answer 8:
HAP is acquired after being in the hospital for more than two days.
The risk of developing multidrug-resistant pathogenic bacteria increases in HAP cases.
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Question 10: What is the most common bacterium causing community-acquired pneumonia?
Answer 10: Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Question 1: What is lobar pneumonia, and which bacterium is most commonly associated with it in community-acquired cases?
Answer 1:
* Lobar pneumonia involves the complete consolidation of a lung lobe.
* The most common bacterium associated with lobar pneumonia in community-acquired cases is Streptococcus pneumoniae.
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Question 2: What are the complications of lobar pneumonia?
Answer 2: The complications of lobar pneumonia include:
Organisation (fibrous scarring)
Abscess formation
Bronchiectasis
Empyema (accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity)
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Question 3: Describe bronchopneumonia and its usual context of occurrence.
Answer 3:
* Bronchopneumonia starts in the airways and then spreads to adjacent alveolar lung tissue.
* It is most often seen in the context of pre-existing diseases.
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Question 4: What are the complications of bronchopneumonia?
Answer 4:
COPD exacerbation
Cardiac failure (particularly in the elderly)
Complication of viral infection, such as influenza
Aspiration of gastric contents
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Question 5: What types of chest X-ray findings can indicate pneumonia?
Answer 5:
* Pneumonia can be seen as consolidation on a chest X-ray. Different types of pneumonia show distinct patterns:
* Lobar pneumonia: Consolidation of alveoli and associated bronchi, often involving complete lung lobes.
* Bronchopneumonia: Diffuse, patchy, reticular (lines & nodes) opacities, often located at the base of the lungs.
* Interstitial pneumonia (Atypical): Primarily reticular pattern, located in the interstitial space between pulmonary capillaries, alveoli, and surrounding bronchioles.
149
Question 1: How does Mycoplasma pneumonia contribute to a protracted paroxysmal cough?
Answer 1:
due to ciliary dysfunction, which affects the normal functioning of the cilia in the respiratory tract responsible for clearing mucus and debris.
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Question 2: What are the clinical symptoms of Mycoplasma pneumonia?
Answer 2:
* Dyspnea (shortness of breath)
* Pleuritic chest pain (pain when breathing or moving the lungs, due to inflammation of the parietal pleura)
* Productive cough, often with sputum (more common in younger patients)
* High fever
* In older patients, atypical symptoms such as confusion, diarrhea, reduced mobility, and less pronounced cough might be observed.
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Question 3: Define "sepsis" in the context of Mycoplasma pneumonia.
Answer 3:
* Sepsis is a type of shock caused by low oxygen reaching the body's tissues due to blockage caused by infection.
* It can be a severe complication of infections like Mycoplasma pneumonia.
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Question 1: What are the signs associated with pneumonia that can be heard during a physical examination?
Answer 1:
* Rigors (shivering or chills)
* Bronchial breath sounds (harsh breath sounds equally loud on inspiration and expiration)
* Focal coarse crackles and rub (caused by air passing through sputum in the airways)
* Dullness to percussion (due to lung tissue collapse and/or consolidation)
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Question 2: How do typical and atypical symptoms of pneumonia differ?
Answer 2: The main difference lies in the nature of the cough:
* Typical pneumonia: Patients usually have a productive cough with mucopurulent sputum production.
* Atypical pneumonia: Patients often have a dry cough, which means there is little to no sputum production.
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Question 3: What are the symptoms of typical pneumonia?
Answer 3: Symptoms of typical pneumonia include:
Dyspnea (shortness of breath)
Hypoxia (later presentation)
Increased heart rate (Tachycardia)
Increased respiratory rate (Tachypnea)
Increased CO2 accumulation in the blood, stimulating peripheral chemoreceptors and respiratory center
Fever or pyrexia
Productive cough with mucopurulent sputum production
Extrapulmonary symptoms such as fatigue and shortness of breath
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Question 4: What are the symptoms of atypical pneumonia?
Answer 4::
Increased respiratory rate (↑ RR)
Increased heart rate (↑ HR)
Extrapulmonary symptoms like headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fatigue, malaise, and myalgia (muscle pain)
Low-grade fever
Dry cough
156
Question 1: When should a sputum sample be sent for analysis in patients with pneumonia?
Answer 1:
A sputum sample should be sent for analysis in patients with pneumonia if they have recurrent pneumonia or if there is treatment resistance.
157
Question 2: What are the color characteristics of sputum associated with certain bacterial infections?
Answer 2:
* Streptococcus pneumoniae: Rust-colored sputum
* Pseudomonas, Haemophilus: Green sputum
* Klebsiella: Red currant-jelly sputum
* Anaerobes: Foul-smelling and bad-tasting sputum, sometimes due to aspiration from gastrointestinal contents
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Question 3: What are some common blood work-up findings in patients with pneumonia?
Answer 3:
Increased white blood cell count (↑ WBC)
Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (↑ ESR), indicating non-specific inflammation
Elevated C-reactive protein (↑ CRP), produced by the liver in response to inflammation
Decreased oxygen saturation (↓ O2 saturation)
Serum cold agglutinins, particularly for Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Abnormal liver function tests (↑ LFTs) and hyponatremia, along with positive urinary antigens for Legionella pneumonia
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Question 4: What is the significance of IgG and IgM titers in the context of pneumonia?
Answer 4:
* IgG and IgM titers are used to diagnose pneumonia caused by Chlamydia.
* These titers help detect specific antibodies produced by the immune system in response to the infection, aiding in the diagnosis of the causative agent.
160
Question 1: Where do you apply the CURB65 scoring system?
Answer 1:
The CURB65 scoring system can be applied to assess the severity of pneumonia and predict mortality.
161
Question 2: On what group of patients do we use the CURB65 scoring system?
Answer 2:
* The CURB65 scoring system is used primarily on older patients over the age of 50.
* However, it's important to note that older people over 65 may not have the same score.
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Question 3: What are the four physical examination techniques used in assessing pneumonia?
Answer 3:
Inspection
Palpation
Percussion
Auscultation
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Question 4: What are some physical changes that may be seen in patients with pneumonia during palpation?
Answer 4:
During palpation, increased tactile fremitus (vibrations felt on the chest wall) may be observed due to consolidation and increased lung density in pneumonia.
164
Question 5: What kind of percussion changes might be observed in pneumonia?
Answer 5:
In pneumonia, dullness on percussion may be observed due to increased fluid within the lung tissue.
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Question 6: What other percussion sounds might be heard and in what conditions?
Answer 6:
Hyperresonance: Seen in COPD and asthma
Tympanic: May indicate pneumothorax if heard in the thorax
Flatness: Associated with pleural effusion
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Question 7: What kind of auscultation changes might be noticed during pneumonia assessment?
Answer 7:
* crackles or rales (fine or coarse sounds) due to fluid in the alveoli and bronchial tissue.
* In atypical pneumonia, increased rhonchi might be heard.
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Question 8: What are transmitted voice sounds and where are they usually examined?
Answer 8:
* Transmitted voice sounds are sounds heard when the patient speaks.
* This examination is usually done on the posterior aspect of the chest.
168
Question 1: What is the recommended treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in patients with CURB scores of 0 to 2?
Answer 1:
* For patients with CURB scores of 0 to 2, the recommended treatment for community-acquired pneumonia is usually amoxicillin IV/PO.
* In case of penicillin allergy, doxycycline is an alternative option.
* If IV treatment is required due to penicillin allergy, clarithromycin can be considered.
169
Question 2: What is the suggested treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in patients with CURB scores of 3 to 4?
Answer 2:
* Patients with CURB scores of 3 to 4 and community-acquired pneumonia should be urgently admitted to the hospital.
* The recommended treatment includes amoxicillin or Benzylpenicillin.
170
-Question 3: What is the management approach for hospital-acquired pneumonia with non-severe symptoms?
Answer 3:
* For non-severe hospital-acquired pneumonia, the suggested treatment includes PO amoxicillin.
* In cases of penicillin allergy, PO doxycycline can be used.
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Question 4: How should severe hospital-acquired pneumonia be managed?
Answer 4:
* In cases of severe hospital-acquired pneumonia, IV amoxicillin should be administered along with gentamicin.
* If the patient has penicillin allergy, PO doxycycline along with IV gentamicin can be considered.
* The total course of treatment (PO/IV) is recommended for 7 days.
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Question 5: What is the recommended treatment for aspiration pneumonia?
Answer 5: depends on the severity:
* Non-severe: PO amoxicillin + metronidazole or doxycycline + metronidazole (if penicillin allergic)
* Severe: IV amoxicillin + gentamicin + metronidazole or PO doxycycline + IV gentamicin + metronidazole (if penicillin allergic)
* Step down: PO amoxicillin + metronidazole
173
Question 6: Do we still give antibiotics for aspiration pneumonia even in the presence of acidotic aspiration?
Answer 6: Yes, antibiotics are still administered for aspiration pneumonia even if acidotic aspiration has occurred, as gastrointestinal acids can still be toxic to the lungs.
174
Question 1: What is the preferred treatment for most atypical pneumonias, including Mycoplasma pneumonia and Chlamydia pneumonia?
Answer 1:
* The preferred treatment for most atypical pneumonias, such as Mycoplasma pneumonia and Chlamydia pneumonia, is doxycycline.
* However, for Legionella pneumonia, levofloxacin is preferred, or clarithromycin/erythromycin can also be used.
175
Question 2: What is the recommended treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
Answer 2:
* The treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) is co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole), commonly known as "Septrin."
* Patients with low CD4 counts may receive prophylactic oral co-trimoxazole to protect against PCP.
176
Question 3: What are some potential complications of pneumonia?
Answer 3:
* sepsis, pleural effusion, empyema (collection of pus in the pleural cavity), lung abscess, and even death.
177
Question 4: How is Legionella pneumonia treated?
Answer 4:
* Legionella pneumonia can be treated with respiratory fluoroquinolones (e.g., levofloxacin) or macrolides (e.g., clarithromycin/erythromycin).
178
Question 5: What are the main diagnostic features of Legionella pneumonia?
Answer 5:
Legionella pneumonia is characterized by chest symptoms, gastrointestinal disturbances (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea), and confusion.
179
Question 6: Why is a chest X-ray recommended 6 weeks after diagnosing pneumonia?
Answer 6:
* Performing a chest X-ray 6 weeks after diagnosing pneumonia is important to ensure that there is no underlying malignancy causing the pneumonia-like symptoms.
* This follow-up helps rule out other potential causes.
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Question 7: What is bronchopneumonia?
Answer 7:
* Bronchopneumonia is a type of pneumonia where the infection starts in the airways (bronchi) and spreads to the adjacent alveolar lung tissue.
* It is often seen in the context of pre-existing diseases.
