Policies 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the clearinghouse for citizens complaints?

A

Operations and administrative services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who is allowed to take or contact the complaint?

A

Lieutenant or higher officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is the 1st notification made in the chain of command for complaints?

A

Verbally to the DC or supervisor.
If not available then BC.for the complaints battalion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a customer inquiry?

A

Inquiry - Request for information -
Lost item
Securing property
Gratitude
Obtain inform

GIS

Gratitude

Information

Securing property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a customer complaint?

A

Misconduct
Taking of property of value
Dissatisfaction with policy or procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When are statements with regards to citizens complaints necessary?

A

Statements are needed :

  1. Damage or loss of property
  2. Poor treatment
  3. Patient wishes- ie. Not securing residence or wrong transport location
  4. When the officer needs statements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who gets contacted with finding of an investigation with regards to citizens complaints?

A

DC get contacted for findings of Citizens complaints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who holds the records for citizens complaints and inquiries?

A

Fire rescue administrative secretary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Customer complaints regarding fire safety includes what types?

A

Codes
Overcrowding
Parking in fire lanes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Customer complaints with regards to matters of fire safety are ha fled by?

A

Community risk reduction and notification to DC or BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Customer complaints concerning communication center go to who?

A

Communications center supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Reportable events are defined as:

A

An occurrence during emergency calls, training, pub ed, emergency or non emergency situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An IRE is defined as:
With regards to any Citizen, patient, fire rescue personnel:

A
  1. Harm caused by action or inaction
  2. Caused by equipment failure
  3. Immoral, unethical , or illegal action
  4. Cause for litigation
  5. Poltically sensitive
  6. Media scrutinization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An IRE is reported immediately to whom?

A

Supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For expediency of an IRE notification is made how?

A

By telephone or face to face to the BC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who can place an unit OOS for an IRE?

A

BC or equivalent supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A “DRE” is defined as:

A

Events that occur during emergency calls, training, pub ed, emergency or non emergency situations:

Potential to cause harm
Equipment failure that had potential but did not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who is responsible completing and submitting the DRE form and where does it go?

A

First person to report event and uploaded to sharepoint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who can participate in ride alongs ?

A

Students and observers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Definition of Student in regards to ride times?

A

Enrolled in an education program at an accredited facility that has an agreement with fire rescue.
To include: EMT and paramedic programs
Emergency medical responder
Training programs at secondary school of palm beach county.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Limitations of Student riders?

A

Only perform or assist in activities where proficiency has been verified by training facility.

No riding alone with pt’s in pt compartment

Logged in station log book

Wear uniform that training facility has issued

Not subject to duties outside of agreement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

prior to riding, First time students on ride alongs must provide the following items:

A

Written verification of name, year/ class and status in program.

Background check and criminal hx

Written verification of. Proficiency in BSI

Have stethoscope, eye protection, mask and fit tested.

Written confirmation of vaccinations

Written verification of skill proficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Students may ride at what times?

A

School Students: 0700-1600
EMR students only 0900-1600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What forms are required by students to ride - legal documents?

A

Copy of Student/ observer ride time

Release of Liability and covenant not to sue.

Indemnification agreement

HIPPA confidentiality agreement

Insurance coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who may ride as an observer?

A

Local Dr’s, nurses, PA’s, Nurse practitioners, and other medical students or professionals.

EMT’s or paramedics with other local agencies from their chief on letterhead

Individuals seeking employee or are in training

Others approved by the fire rescue administrator and FR HIPPA compliance officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Observers paperwork differs from students in one way?

A

Application signed by FR HIPPA compliance officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The preferred location for observers to ride is:

A

Battalion HQ’s unless otherwise specified in the approval process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Students unable to keep ride times :

A

MUST notify the clinical coordinator of their facility in advance

And coordinator MUST notify the recruitment and human resource development officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Observers unable to keep ride times:

A

MUST notify the recruitment and human resource development officer in advance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Upon arrival the student or observer MUST report to who?

A

Operational captain and then paired with the LT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Who may terminate a student or observers ride time?

A

Operational Captain
EMS captain
BC or DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If a student or observers ride time is terminated who is then notified?

A

Deputy chief of operations is notified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the dress code for Student riders?

A

Designated uniform by training facility
Badge or other identifying means

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Observer dress code is:

A

White shirt- SS or LS
Black, dark blue pants
Black closed shoes w/ dark socks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Guidelines for Operational Capt and Lt with Students/ observers?

A

Let to obtain proper paperwork for student

Safe place to observe with seat belt

Introduce person to others in the station

Familiarity with apparatus

Log person in station logbook

Log person on ePCR’s for calls and treatments performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Students will arrive at ride time with what equipment?

A

Stethoscope
Eye protection
Respiratory protection
Clinical and skills documentation able to perform.
Copy of state EMT and BLS cards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Who has the responsibility to call for a fire investigator?

A

IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Who is responsible for securing and maintaining scene integrity for a fire investigation?

A

Operations personnel. Not LE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How is a fire investigator requested?

A

The IC requests through the communications center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When must a fire investigator be called?

A
  1. Fire is suspicious or crime related-
  2. Loss of injury or life
  3. accidental fire w/ substantial monetary loss or structural damage.
  4. Juvenile related incidents
  5. Explosive devices/ explosion
  6. Undetermined
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Evidence that a fire is suspicious in nature or crime related means:

A

Incendiary fires/ explosive devices
Firebombs
Stolen vehicles
Burglaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Loss of life/ injury definition for fire investigator call out?

A

Fire or explosion related deaths
Fire or explosion related injuries which require transport by FR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Definition of Accidential fire with substantial monetary loss or structural damage?

A

Monetary fire loss of $70,000 or structural damage exceeding 20%

Any suspicious or crime related incident regardless of dollar value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Definition of Juvenile related incidents for fire investigation?

A

Suspected to be the result of juvenile involvement in the ignition process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

For which of the following fire investigatory incidents shall a Fire investigator be contacted via radio or cell phone?

A

Juvenile related incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of work related injuries must be reported?

A

All injuries no matter how minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What must the employee have in order to go to the OHC?

A

A completed employee injury /illness report. Form FRH-302

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Who and where does PPE go if an injury occurs on an emergency incident?

A

BC secures PPE and training AMS safety division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Who fills,out report for minor injuries and where does it go?

A

Immediate supervisor and forwarded to BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

An example of injury while wearing PPE would be?

A

Burns to the hands while wearing gloves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the options for a minor injury requiring treatment?

A
  1. shall report to the OHC for further evaluation
  2. if OHC is closed then may go to the nearest hospital or wait till OHC opens.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When does notification of an injury need to,be reported to the state?

A
  1. one or more FF are hospitalized for,more than 24hrs
  2. LODD
  3. serious injury related to an equipment failure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Notification of a serious injury meeting criteria for the state gets reported to who and when?

A

Bureau of,fire standards and training- FF Safety and health section within 4 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Employees with work related injuries must be cleared by the OHC before what?

A

Traveling out of the area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Injury tracking is entered by who ? And then forwarded to who?

A

Training and safety division

Wellness coordinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How often is injury tracking analyzed

A

On a quarterly basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Clearance from the OHC prior to returning to work must of,had what types of conditions?

A
  1. work related injury that resulted in being off duty from WC or LD
  2. Out patient surgery or hospitalization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Responsibility for,returning to work is who’s?

A

The employee to notify the BC/ supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the order for clearance by the OHC prior to returning to work?

A

Obtain the day before returning to work and if unable notify the BC/supervisor they are reporting to,the OHC for clearance .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

If an employee cannot,obtain clearance to return to work because the OHC is closed what happens?

A

The BC MAY allow the employees to return to work if not I’ll and without limitations but must still receive clearance from the OHC before Their next day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

If allows to return to work with the BCs permission when must the employee go,to the OHC for clearance?

A

Before the next work day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When must an employee be required to complete a medical exam and fitness assessment?

A

Prior to returning to full duty from any injury or illness or any leave greater than 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

For employees returning to full duty who must clearance be obtained from other than the OHC/?

A

Compliance officer and training division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the time frame employees can be held to complete target solutions and other identified training?

A

1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

If the reporting system is down how shall the incident report be documented?

A

Should be documented on the a “field report”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Report writing will be in accordance with which type of code?

A

“Dispatched code”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Who can enter information on a medical report?

A

Any crew member as ;long as it’s consistent with the authors level of training and certification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What information is needed to finalize a medical report?

A

“Report author”
HIPPA or PPA signed
Signature of patient or witness
“Transfer of care “ by hospital staff
MRN
Any students or observers must be listed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How does a reservist get entered in the causality page?

A

RESERVE1 is the ID number
PBCFR is the first name
RESERVIST was the last name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What information is to be entered on a level 1 or 2 MCI?

A

Name
DOB
Phone number
Brief narrative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Security of all medical supplies applies to what type?

A

All non controlled substances , medications, fluids , and medical equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Fire rescue has an agreement with who for purchasing all pharmaceutical supplies and medications?

A

Health care district of Palm beach county.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Battalion level procurement of equipment will go through who?

A

Medical supplies warehouse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Storing of medications in the station supply room are to be kept at what temperature?

A

70-75 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Storing of medication on the rescue truck need to be kept at what temperature?

A

65-80 degrees Fahrenheit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Rotations of medications are to happen on what day ? AND who is responsible the inspection ?

A

On the first day of each month and the operational captain or designee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where are adulterated or expired medications kept?

A

In a designated “quarantine “ are within the supply closets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the 6 rights to medications?

A

Right Patient
Right medication
Right Dose
Right Route
Right time and Frequency
Right indication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

All medication errors and immediate and delayed outcomes for errors gets reported to who?

A

EMS captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The exposure control manual provides information on 5 areas. What are they?

A

Risk
Prevention
Determination
Care and cleaning
Biomedical waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Significant exposures are defined as and are what type?

A

Exposure through a needle stick , sharps to the following body fluids:

Blood or and body fluid containing visible blood
Semen
Vaginal secretions
CSF
Synovial fluid
Peritoneal fluid
Plueral fluid
Pericardial fluid
Amniotic fluid.
Body fluids to mucus membranes
Chapped or a braided skin
Exposure to Airborne contagions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Measures to be taken immediately after a significant exposure?

A

Clean the wound
Notify the EMS captain
Accompany the source patient to the hospital
Fill out the hospitals exposure log book using the Case number
Report to the OHC immediately or the next business day
Discontinue and treatment after being notified by the OHC of a negative result.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

EMS captains responsibility post significant exposure are?

A

Make sure exposed employee requests patient source testing at the hospital
Consult with the ER physician
Notify the exposure control officer during normal hours unless employee receives post exposure treatment-
Then have the communications center page the control officer at any time

84
Q

The definition of a newborn to be left at a fire station is defined as?

A

7 days old or less left by the parent

85
Q

What is the difference between “Safe Haven” and “Safe Place”

A

Safe haven is referencing new borns
Safe Place is for teenagers

86
Q

Under the “Safe Haven “ parents may not be pursued unless?

A

The parents are seeking to reclaim the new born infant

87
Q

Parents under the “Safe Haven “ law can regain custody as longs as what?

A

The infant shows no signs of abuse

88
Q

Under the safe haven law, Law enforcement should not be contacted unless?

A

Signs of physical abuse are present at the time of surrender.

89
Q

Who get notified when a newborn infant is surrendered at a fire station?

A

PIO

90
Q

How does the newborn infant get entered in the PCR if it is unclear the safe haven law?

A

“Safe Haven Baby”

91
Q

Who gets notified for a Safe place incident?

A

The communications center and that the a unit is OOS until a Safe harbor representative arrives.

92
Q

Under the safe place law, when should law enforcement be contacted?

A
  1. Child is followed by and angry parent to the fire station
  2. Abuse is ssuspected
  3. Suicidal/ homicidal
  4. Teen is hallucinating and out of control
93
Q

Medical supply warehouse record keeping inventory items are stored where?

A

On the “G:” drive in the support services folder

94
Q

Expired medications shall not be held in quarantine for more than?

A

30 days

95
Q

If an employee is having training issues how should it be documented?

A

On a professional development form

96
Q

Who can complete a Professional development form ?

A

Any employee

97
Q

Where is professional development form submitted ?

A

To the affected employees battalion chief

98
Q

Professional development needs assessments include:

A

Additional research in the questionable subject
Reading combined with per and post assessments
Attendance on training sessions
Performance training and evaluations
Attendance at courses provided by vendors
Other

99
Q

What is considered successful professional development?

A

Acceptable job performance as described within the plan

100
Q

Where do completed professional development forms get submitted to ?

A

The compliance officer electronically

101
Q

What is the maximum amount of time allotted for professional development remediation?

A

Maximum 18 shifts

102
Q

Property and damage reports are defined as?

A

Damage to fore rescue property and or property belonging to the members of the public. NOT RESULTING FROM A VEHICLE ACCIDENT.

103
Q

When damage does occur from a fire rescue vehicle and DOES NOT sustain damage who is notified?

A

Battalion chief

104
Q

Where can phone numbers for contacting parties be found?

A

Fire Rescue intranet (share point) under phone list

105
Q

Documentation for Property loss, damage, or theft includes?

A

Property and liability report
Employee statements
Law enforcement report if necessary
Photographs with digital color
Property damage tracking number

106
Q

Who is notified via email once a property damage tracking number is pulled ?

A

Training and safety division
ALL Deputy Chiefs
ALL Division chiefs
ALL District chiefs
ALL Battalion chiefs
Risk management

107
Q

Incidents involving bodily injury sustained by the pubic at a fire rescue facility what happens?

A

Render appropriate treatment
Notify the communications center
Officers to notify the battalion chief

108
Q

Stretcher malfunctions are handled how?

A

Render appropriate treatment
Call for an additional rescue
Call for an EMS captain
Take the rescue out of service
Sequester stretcher at battalion HQ
Label the stretcher “Out of Service- do not use”
Place in assetworks as a “HIGH probity”
Report incident to Central shop and CQI

109
Q

What has to be “Clearly” written on the tag for a stretcher malfunction?

A

OUT OF SERVICE- DO NOT USE

110
Q

After securing the malfunctioning stretcher- Where does the item get reported to ?

A

Assetworks as a HIGH priority

111
Q

What is the purpose of paramedic development?

A

Provide a uniform process for new employees attempting to work as a paramedic

Address development for paramedics requiring remediation

112
Q

The Paramedic Development course is for?

A

New employees and
Those needing remediation

113
Q

How are new employees selected for the paramedic development course?

A

Based on Senority

114
Q

What are the requirements to get into the Paramedic development course?

A

Current ACLS card
Current state of Florida or National paramedic certification
Complete sign off skill sheets
Complete IV skill sheet

115
Q

Evaluation material for the paramedic development course include what?

A

Medical protocols
EMS related SOGs
Exposure control manual
PDC skill sheets
Pharmacology
ECG interpretation
Scenario based assessments on Praxctical application of protocols and or patient assessment

116
Q

The Paramedic development entrance exam includes?

A

ON the first day completing a written test at 80% or above

117
Q

IF an employee fails the PDC entrance exam what happens?

A

Returned to shift as soon as possible
Cannot re try until next scheduled PDC
IF the employee fails the 2nd time- must wait 24 month before applying again.

118
Q

Paramedic probation consists of:

A

18 shifts probation period which can me ended at any time with an EMS captains approval.
Memorandum with task book to be sent from the EMS captain to the compliance officer

119
Q

Extensions for paramedic probation are ?

A

Done by the EMS captain and documented on a professional development form for an additional 18 shifts.
If the extension period is still less than satisfactory then the EMS captain. Recommends the person be referred to the medical services division and medical director for further evaluation.

All documentation to be sent to the compliance officer

120
Q

Per CQI and Adverse event is defines as ?

A

Incident causing injury or other medical condition to a patient as a result of treatment rendered by EMS personnel.

121
Q

Per CQI, A near miss is defined as?

A

Incident that had the potential to harm a patient as a result of care rendered by EMS personnel BUT DID NOT actually harm the patient.

122
Q

Per CQI, an ERROR is defined as?

A

Failure of a planned action to be completed as intended or the use of a wrong plan to achieve an aim

123
Q

Reportable adverse, near miss, or errors are sent to who?

A

EMS CQI officer

124
Q

What are the common means of reporting CQI events?

A

Field personnel vis chain of command
Reportable events
Hospitals via complaint as a performance improvement process
Patients vis a complaint to the agency

125
Q

EMS CQI Reportable events are?

A

Airway or ventilation issues or errors
Electrical therapy issues or error
Deviation from EMS protocols with out justification
Advanced procedure issues or errors:
Paralytic use, pleural decompression, Cricothyrotomy
Repetitive minor issues that cannot be resolved on a supervisor level
Any other issue or error that causes harm or has significant potential to do so.

126
Q

MInor CQI errors include?

A

Spelling or topographical errors
TIme delays without patient harm
Lack of detail
Intracranial- report inconsistencies
Protocol deviation without patient harm or potential.

127
Q

Incidents identified by the EMS CQI officer level containing an EMS CQI reportable event are handled how?

A

Emailed to the appropriate EMS captain to be handled.

128
Q

Who are responsible for the accurate inventory, distribution, transfer, documentation, and record keeping of all controlled substances on a unit?

A

All department protocoled Paramedics assigned to a unit.

129
Q

Special events , dignitary details with regard to controlled substances are handled how?

A

Receive written authorization from the division chief of medical services or designee.

130
Q

What kind of lock can be used for the EMS captains Storage container of controlled substances?

A

Key, coded, or biometric lock

131
Q

When must controlled substances be inventoried?

A

Begin and end of shift
Custody change
When locked tag seal is changed

132
Q

If the paramedic who signed the controlled substance log can longer keep possession and no relief is available who do they go to?

A

Lieutenant or operational captain or designee

133
Q

IF trauma hawk is taken out of service where are the controlled substances kept?

A

In a department issued lockable safe

134
Q

What shall be recorded on the controlled substance inventory log?

A

Total amount in Mg, MCG, etc
NDC or Lot number
Expiration date

135
Q

How long before the expiration date are crews to notify the EMS captain that the controlled substance is about to expire?

A

7 days

136
Q

How are explained discrepancies handled with controlled substances?

A

Report to Lt or operational captain
Single line strike though with initials next to change

137
Q

How are UNexplained discrepancies handled for a unit?

A

Notification to the EMS captain and EMS captain contact the Division chief of medical services

138
Q

How are UNexplained discrepancies handled for the EMS captains stock?

A

Notification to the division chief of medical services

139
Q

One a controlled substance is removed from the container how long till it needs to be re-sealed?

A

Immediately following or as soon as reasonably possible

140
Q

Distribution of controlled substances from the EMS captain to a unit are signing in what spaces in the book?

A

EMS captain signs Given/ Issued by and Unit sign received by section .

141
Q

Damage of a controlled substance from a a unit is handled how?

A

Notification t o the EMS captain
Property loss form and tracking number
“Broken/ damaged” written in the case# spot
The EMS captain notifies the division chief of medical services

142
Q

Damage from the EMS captains stock are handled how?

A

Notification to Chief of medical services
Property loss and tracking number

143
Q

H ow are lost or stolen controlled substances handled from a unit?

A

Notification to the EMS captain
Property loss form and tracking number
Law Enforcement report attached
EMS captain then to notify the Division chief of medical services
EMS captain to Ensure all paperwork is completed

144
Q

If theft or loss of a controlled substance from the EMS captains stock- how is it handled?

A

The same as a unit loss except the EMS captain contacts the division chief of medical services 1st.

145
Q

Disposal, Destruction of controlled substances are handled how by a unit?

A

Draw upon Unused medication and dispose of it “as directed by the medical services division,.
Record disposal in log book using 2 different employees.

146
Q

How are expired controlled substances handled by the unit?

A

Unit gives the expired medication to the EMS captain and records “Expired” in the logbook for the case #

147
Q

How are the collected expired controlled substances handled?

A

Hand delivered to an authorized member of the medical services division for proper disposal.

148
Q

Definition of a “PAR” level?

A

The “ideal quantity of each controlled substance carried by a unit in order to maintain sufficient operations.

149
Q

Who sets the running par level at the battalion for controlled substances?

A

The EMS captain.

150
Q

Where can the “Running “ par level for a controlled substance for each unit be found?

A

Front cover of the units controlled substance logbook
And
EMS captains logbook

151
Q

Minimum par levels with controlled Substances can be found where?

A

PBC portal/ PBCFR/medical services under the quick link- Controlled substances minimum quantities.

152
Q

A serious injury not requiring state notification get reported to who and within how many hours

A

OHC and 48 hours

153
Q

Who delivers all investigative material for an IRE?

A

DC to the Division chief of operations

154
Q

the investigative material fro an IRE has to be sent when?

A

ASAP during normal business hours

155
Q

what is the time frame for completing a customer complant file and by who?

A

30 days

DC / Supervisor

156
Q

how far in advance should paperwork for students/ observers be completed?

A

3 weeks

157
Q

who contacts to State Bureau of standanrds and training for reportable events?

A

FOO with authorization by DC

158
Q

inspection of controlled substances includes?

A

medication condition

NDC

lot number

expiration date

cointainer breakage

alteration

tampering

159
Q

What is the minimum time for logs and records with regards to controlled substances kept?

A

2 years

160
Q

With regards to reporting, what are code numbers identified as “FIres”?

A

100-173

161
Q

Who is responsible for completing all fire related pages?

A

Individual with the most knowledge of the incidentr

162
Q

Who is responsible for checking completeness of fire reports and notifies who how and by when?

A

BC Via email to captain Changes completed by end of next shift

163
Q

what are the EMS CQI areas (7)?

A

EMS CQI reportable events

EMS excellence awards

EMS CQI committee

EMS CQI studies and goals

EMS CQI Surveys

EMS CQI best practices

EMS CQI Hospital outcomes

164
Q

What are the FIRE CQI Areas (4)

A

Fire CQI

Fire CQI committee

Fire CQI Studies

FIRE CQI Best practicea

165
Q
A
166
Q

What are the 4 possible outcomes from EMS CQI?

A

System Faults

lessons learned

remedial training

CQI officer level

167
Q

who does the administrative secretary or FOO contact after a complaint tracking number is issued?

A

Deputy chief and or Division chief supervisor

168
Q

once discipline is warrented or may a the result during a customer complaint who should be consulted?

A

DC or supervisor

169
Q

the documents generated in a customer complaint are refered to as?

A

Inquiry logs

170
Q

who initiates the primary investigation for an IRE

A

BC or supervisor

171
Q

Who are the IRE forms fowarded to by the end of the shift ?

A

Divison chief of operations

DC’s

internal affairs

Litigation officer

EMS CQI

FIRE CQI

safety committee

172
Q

DREs are handled by the _______ and notifies the _______

via ___________ before the end of the day.

A

BC

DC

email

173
Q

who initiates a meeting with the involved supervisory staff to ascertain the need for an investigation?

A

Division Chief of operations

174
Q

What is the age for observers?

A

18

175
Q

examples of undetermed cause for a fire and fire investigator response are:

A

Fire sprinkler activation

overcrowding

when the IC determines a significant life safety issue

176
Q

Who determines is the PBSO bomb squad is required?

A

Fire investigator

177
Q

work related injures and incidents is inclusive of ?

A

employeees

Reservists performing offical duites.

DOES NOT APPLY TO CADETS

178
Q

who is responsible for their employees safe working performance and environment?

A

Each supervisor

179
Q

who adjusts leave types for an injury?

A

Payroll section

180
Q

who approves workers compensation?

A

OHC

181
Q

when an employee is transported to the hosptial who is responsible completed paperwork

A

BC

182
Q

When does the employee report to the OHC after an injury?

A

ASAP or within 48hrs.

183
Q

who assists the employee in completing the appropriate dept of labor forms for processing medical claims?

A

OHC

184
Q

If hospitalization of an employee is required due to a serious injury who is required to complete the required forms?

A

Risk management

185
Q

who enters injury tracking data information into the computer database?

A

Training and safety division

186
Q

For and exposure, when must the employee report to OHC?

A

immediately or next business day if occured after business hours

187
Q

Who contacts the hospital ICC to verify source patient testing?

A

Exposure control officer

188
Q

Who is responsible for determing workers compensation coverage?

A

OHC

189
Q

the logbook in reagrds to the controlled substances policy is also known as ?

A

record keeping binder

190
Q

who is responsible for designating who will complete the data entry for a fire report?

A

Highest ranking IC

191
Q

Vehicle accident reports with occupants who are denying injures will have their demographic information completed in which program?

A

ePCR

192
Q

The safe haven prgram is based on what statue?

A

Florida

193
Q

In what situations can parents attempt to regain custody of a newborn?

A

no signs of physical abuse

parents state of mind

can contact the selected hospital

194
Q

who shall provide the teen with a safe enviornment ?

A

Lt or operational captain

195
Q

who notifies the communcications center that thir station is OOS for a safe place incident?

A

Lt or operational captain

196
Q

who creates the professional development plan?

A

Batallion command staff

197
Q

The employee with meet with who to discuss progress of a proffesional development plan?

A

supervisor and DC

198
Q

completed professional developmetn forms are fowarded to who and how?

A

complaince offcer

electronically

199
Q

Future updates to the property damage and injury policy is the responibily of who?

A

Division Chief of safety and training

200
Q

who amd when are notified when a unit is involved with property damage but the vehicle does not sustain damage?

A

BC prior to leaving scene

immediately

201
Q

who is notified if the BC is unreacable for property loss or damage?

A

FOO

202
Q

Who can be assigned portions of the property damage/ injury report?

A

Lt

operational captain

203
Q

What are the DCs responsibilty for property damage/ injury reports?

A

ensure all documentaion is accurate and complete

Inital report indicating the report id complete

Ensure discipline

foward all documentation to the training and safety divsion

204
Q

EMS CQI reportable events should not be confused with what other reports?

A

an IRE or DRE

205
Q

Best practices from the FIRE CQI side are submited to who?

A

Deputy chief of operations

206
Q

Paramedic development class is how many hours?

A

80 hrs