POLS Midterm Flashcards

(154 cards)

1
Q

What is an Interest Group?

A

A formal organization of persons who share common attitudes on some matter and make demands on others in society to promote or protect that matter.

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2
Q

What are the two types of goals that interest groups pursue?

A
  • Seek new benefits
  • Defend existing benefits
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3
Q

Why do interest groups have an inherent conservative advantage?

A

They are more effective at defending existing benefits, as policy change requires success at multiple decision points, which can be blocked.

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4
Q

What constitutional amendment protects interest group activities?

A

First Amendment

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5
Q

What are the three types of benefits that motivate people to join interest groups?

A
  • Material benefits
  • Solidary benefits
  • Purposive benefits
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6
Q

Define Public Goods in the context of interest groups.

A

Non-excludable goods that cannot be withheld from anyone, and non-rivalrous, meaning one person’s enjoyment does not prevent others from benefiting.

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7
Q

What is the Free Rider Problem?

A

The dilemma where individuals benefit from resources, goods, or services without paying for them, leading to under-provision of public goods.

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8
Q

How do interest groups overcome the Free Rider Problem?

A
  • Selective benefits
  • Government coercion
  • Social ostracism
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9
Q

What is Direct Lobbying?

A

Direct contact with a policy maker to influence public policy.

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10
Q

What is Indirect Lobbying?

A

Working through intermediaries such as constituents or influential people in the district.

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11
Q

What is Logrolling in the context of interest groups?

A

Coalitions of uncommon interests based on mutual support, or ‘you scratch my back, I’ll scratch yours.’

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12
Q

What is the primary power of interest groups in American politics?

A

They mainly serve as a conservative force, blocking significant changes and preserving the status quo.

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13
Q

What role do interest groups play in the communication between citizens and government?

A

They aggregate and communicate demands from citizens to government and watch government actions to report back.

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14
Q

What is the Niche Theory as it applies to interest groups?

A

It explains the explosive growth of groups by partitioning into small segments representing narrower interests.

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15
Q

True or False: Interest groups generally have the power to push through big changes in policy.

A

False

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16
Q

What is the effect of multiple decision points on policy change?

A

Big policy change requires winning at each decision point, while blocking change requires winning at only one.

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17
Q

What are Amicus Curiae briefs?

A

Legal documents filed in court cases by non-litigants who have a strong interest in the subject matter.

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18
Q

What is the purpose of lobbying?

A

To influence public policy to promote or protect group interests.

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19
Q

Fill in the blank: Interest groups facilitate a ______ flow of communication between citizens and government.

A

2-way

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20
Q

What are the three types of benefits in Rational Choice Theory?

A
  • Material benefits
  • Solidary benefits
  • Purposive benefits
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21
Q

What is the concept of countervailing power?

A

Groups regulate each other through countervailing power

This involves scrutiny of opponents and reporting negative information.

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22
Q

Give an example of two opposing groups that utilize countervailing power.

A

Business vs. labor; pro-life vs. pro-choice

These examples illustrate how different interests oppose each other.

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23
Q

What are the necessary components for effective countervailing power?

A

Organization, resources, & vigorous debate from all sides

Effective regulation requires interests to be organized on both sides.

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24
Q

What is a challenge to effective countervailing power?

A

Some interests not organized

This lack of organization can weaken the regulatory process.

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25
What is the most effective strategy for managing conflicts according to Schattschneider?
Contain scope of conflict ## Footnote This strategy involves working with allies behind the scenes.
26
What type of benefits are most successfully obtained in conflict management?
Small, narrow benefits w/ no organized opposition or public attention ## Footnote This approach minimizes resistance and maximizes success.
27
What is the median value of the given data set?
82 ## Footnote The median is the middle value when the data set is ordered.
28
What does a low organization of interests imply for countervailing power?
Weakens the effectiveness of countervailing power ## Footnote Without organization, interests are less able to regulate each other.
29
What is a Political Party?
An organization that nominates & runs candidates for office under a party label to win governmental offices and enact policies favored by the party.
30
What are the two main goals of a Political Party?
* Win governmental offices * Enact policies favored by the party
31
How do Political Parties differ from Interest Groups?
* Parties nominate & run candidates for office * Interest groups do not run candidates * Parties take positions on a broad range of issues * Interest groups focus on a narrow range of issues
32
What is the membership structure of American Political Parties according to V.O. Key?
* Party in the electorate * Party in government * Party organization
33
What are the three ways Political Parties facilitate participation in democracy?
* Aggregate individual interests into broad coalitions * Simplify alternatives * Stimulate interest in government & public affairs
34
What is the difference between misinformation and disinformation?
* Misinformation: purposely presenting false information * Disinformation: nonsense that bears no relation to any reality
35
What is a one-party system?
A system where one dominant party controls all offices in government.
36
What characterizes a two-party system?
Only two major parties effectively compete for power, with minor parties having little chance of winning significant offices.
37
What is Duverger's Law?
Winner-take-all rules lead to a two-party system, while multi-member districts and proportional representation lead to a multi-party system.
38
What historical reasons contribute to the two-party system in the U.S.?
* Early division into Federalists vs. Anti-Federalists * Consensus on fundamental values * Electoral rules
39
What is the Responsible Party Government Model?
A model where cohesive parties present coherent platforms to voters, and party leaders choose candidates who support the party's platform.
40
How do U.S. parties compare to parliamentary democracies?
U.S. parties are ideologically diverse with relatively low cohesion and less power for leaders to enforce party discipline.
41
What is meant by 'strength of partisanship'?
The degree to which party structures behavior, indicated by party identification and voting patterns.
42
What factors indicate the strength of Party in the Electorate?
* Party identification * Vote choice * Straight Ticket Voting
43
What are the indicators of strength of Party in Government?
* Divided Government * Party voting in Congress
44
What historical reforms weakened political machines in the early 1900s?
* Merit system * Direct primary * Secret ballot
45
What role do modern party organizations play in politics?
They recruit candidates, provide campaign support, and link party members in different offices and levels of government.
46
Fill in the blank: A _______ system is characterized by one dominant party controlling all offices in government.
one-party
47
True or False: Minor parties in the U.S. often win elections.
False
48
What is the primary mechanism to make government responsive & accountable to the will of the people?
Elections ## Footnote Elections allow citizens to choose representatives in a representative democracy.
49
What are the two steps involved in electing the President and Congress?
1. Nomination of candidates by Political Parties 2. Election in the General Election
50
What is the 'Magic Number' needed to win a nomination?
Majority of delegates (50% + 1) ## Footnote Democrats need 2,348 delegates; Republicans need 1,215.
51
What factors affect how many delegates each state party sends?
* Population * Party Loyalty ## Footnote Larger states have larger delegations; states that support a party's candidates have larger delegations.
52
What are the two methods of choosing delegates?
* Caucus method * State presidential primary
53
What is the role of Superdelegates in the Democratic Party?
Automatic (unelected) delegates who are not bound by voter preferences ## Footnote There are 776 Superdelegates in 2024.
54
What is 'frontloading' in the context of delegate selection?
State legislatures move the date of their contest earlier to influence who wins the nomination.
55
What are the four stages of the nomination campaign?
* Stage One: Invisible Primary * Stage Two: Initial Contests * Stage Three: Mist Clearing * Stage Four: Convention
56
What happens during the 'Invisible Primary'?
Candidates test the waters by raising money, building campaign organizations, and getting mentioned.
57
Why are the Iowa Caucuses and New Hampshire Primary considered important?
* First official events to select delegates * Focus of national attention
58
What criteria shifts during the 'Mist Clearing' stage?
Criteria shifts to delegate counts.
59
What is the main function of the convention during the nomination process?
To ratify voters’ choices made in primaries & caucuses.
60
What is the real criteria for selecting a Vice Presidential candidate?
Balance the Ticket ## Footnote This includes ideology, region, insider/outsider status, and gender/race.
61
True or False: Delegates at the convention choose the nominee.
False ## Footnote Delegates ratify the choices made by voters in primaries and caucuses.
62
Fill in the blank: The 'money primary' is a way to determine a candidate's __________.
credibility and viability
63
How is the president elected?
The president is elected by the Electoral College, not by popular vote.
64
What is the nature of the elections for the president in the U.S.?
There are 51 separate elections in each state and DC on the same days.
65
What do voters cast votes for during the presidential election?
Voters cast votes for their preferred party’s slate of electors.
66
How many electors does each state get?
One for each member in Congress.
67
What is the minimum number of electors a state can have?
Three: one House member and two Senators.
68
What is the total number of electoral votes?
538 total electoral votes.
69
How are electors chosen in most states?
Electors are chosen in popular elections.
70
What is required for a candidate to be elected president?
An absolute majority of electoral votes, which is 270 out of 538.
71
What happens if no candidate receives a majority of electoral votes?
The newly elected House elects the president, with each state having one vote.
72
What are core democratic principles?
Political freedom, political equality, majority rule.
73
True or False: The Electoral College is consistent with democratic principles.
False.
74
What did the Framers of the Constitution fear regarding democracy?
They feared majority tyranny.
75
Why does the Electoral College violate political equality?
Small states have disproportionate voting power.
76
What is the rare occurrence of 'faithless' electors?
Electors who do not vote for the candidate they pledged to support.
77
What was the outcome of Chiafalo v. Washington (2020)?
States can enforce elector's pledge in presidential elections.
78
List some states that conduct elections entirely by mail.
* California * Colorado * Hawaii * Nevada * Oregon * Utah * Vermont * Washington
79
What are the proposals to reform the Electoral College?
* Direct Election * Proportional Plan * National Popular Vote Compact
80
What is the purpose of the decennial Census?
Reapportionment of House seats.
81
What is the majority needed in the House to elect a president if no candidate receives a majority of electoral votes?
26 votes.
82
Fill in the blank: Each state appoints electors in such manner as the legislature may _______.
direct.
83
How many votes does the Vice President have in the joint session of Congress to announce electoral results?
The Vice President has no constitutional power to alter the count.
84
What is the small state bias in the Electoral College?
Small states have disproportionate voting power, affecting election outcomes.
85
How many times has the Electoral College chosen a popular vote loser?
Six times.
86
What is the effect of the Electoral College on majority rule?
It can fail to choose the popular vote winner due to built-in biases.
87
What is one way to achieve a direct election of the president?
Tally votes nationally.
88
What is Instant-runoff voting (IRV)?
Voters rank candidates; if no majority, the least candidate is dropped.
89
What is the potential issue with the National Popular Vote Compact?
Success is unlikely and attempts to skirt the Constitution.
90
What happens during the electoral vote counting in January?
Votes are opened before a joint session of Congress.
91
What is the Proportional Plan in the context of the electoral college?
Keep electoral college as is, allocate state’s electoral votes in proportion to popular vote in the state ## Footnote Any state can adopt this plan as per Article II of the Constitution, but no state has yet adopted this reform.
92
Why is the adoption of the Proportional Plan unlikely?
It dilutes state’s power
93
What does the District Plan involve?
Keep electoral college as is, tally popular votes in each House district & statewide, candidate gets one electoral vote for each House district won, candidate with most votes statewide gets state’s other 2 votes ## Footnote This plan can be adopted by any state on its own initiative.
94
Which states currently use the District Plan?
Nebraska and Maine
95
What assumption did the Framers of the Constitution make regarding electors?
Electors would be elected by district
96
In what years did Nebraska divide its electoral votes?
2008, 2020, 2024
97
In what years did Maine divide its electoral votes?
2016, 2020, 2024
98
Which reform achieves majority rule in presidential elections?
Direct election
99
Which electoral reform has the worst record of resolving conflict with majority rule?
Proportional Plan
100
What is the main criticism of the District Plan?
Not much better than Proportional Plan in achieving majority rule
101
What electoral system can deny victory to the popular choice for president?
Any electoral system that aggregates popular votes within states to award electoral votes to candidates
102
True or False: The winner-take-all system is the reason the electoral college fails to achieve majority rule.
False
103
Fill in the blank: The _______ Plan is the only reform that can achieve majority rule and political equality.
Direct election
104
What was the popular vote percentage for Nixon and Kennedy in the 1960 election?
Nixon 49.6%, Kennedy 49.5%
105
What was the outcome of the 2000 presidential election in terms of electoral votes?
Bush 271, Gore 266
106
What was the popular vote percentage for Obama in the 2012 election?
51.1%
107
What percentage of the popular vote did Clinton receive in the 1992 election?
43.0%
108
What is a key conclusion regarding electoral college reforms?
Any electoral system that aggregates popular votes can deny victory to the popular choice for president.
109
What is the main conflict in apportioning seats to states?
Large states (population) vs. small states (equal) ## Footnote The conflict also involves the balance between representation based on people versus geography.
110
What was the outcome of the Great Compromise?
Bi-cameral Legislature: House based on population; Senate with two Senators per state ## Footnote This compromise was reached during the Constitutional Convention.
111
What is the term length for House representatives?
2 years
112
What is the term length for Senators?
6 years
113
When was the direct election of Senators established?
17th Amendment (1913)
114
Which chamber of Congress is more representative of America?
House
115
How are Senate seats distributed regardless of population?
Each state has two Senators
116
What is the primary purpose of the U.S. Census?
Reapportionment of House seats to states
117
How often is the Census conducted?
Once per decade (years ending in '0')
118
What is reapportionment?
Re-allocation of House seats to states
119
What did the Reapportionment Act of 1929 establish?
An automatic system of reapportionment
120
What is redistricting?
Re-drawing House district lines after reapportionment
121
What are the characteristics of single-member districts?
One district for each representative
122
What is malapportionment?
Distribution of legislative seats does not accurately reflect the population distribution
123
What did the Supreme Court rule in Wesberry v. Sanders (1964)?
Each legislative district must contain about the same number of people
124
What is the significance of the 14th Amendment in relation to representation?
Requires states to provide equal protection of the laws
125
What is gerrymandering?
Drawing districts to benefit one interest and hinder another
126
What was the ruling in Shaw v. Reno (1993)?
Race may be a factor in districting, but not the only one
127
What is the concept of popular sovereignty?
Highest political authority in the hands of ordinary citizens
128
What are the two main components of accountability in representation?
Responsiveness and periodic opportunities to assess representatives
129
What must representatives want to create insecurity of tenure?
To be reelected
130
What percentage of House incumbents sought reelection on average?
92%
131
What is the average reelection rate for Senators from 1990-2018?
87%
132
True or False: Gerrymanders can satisfy political equality.
True
133
Fill in the blank: The _______ Amendment requires equal protection of the laws.
14th
134
What is a key characteristic of partisan gerrymanders?
They are drawn to benefit one political party over another
135
What did the Supreme Court rule in Rucho v. Common Cause (2019)?
Excessive partisanship in districting is a political question
136
What was the average re-election rate for the House from 1946-1966?
89%
137
What was the average re-election rate for the Senate from 1990-2018?
87%
138
Why do incumbents have an advantage in elections?
Incumbents may do a good job representing constituents, but also benefit from inherent advantages.
139
What is a marginal district?
A competitive district where constituents are evenly divided, allowing either party to win.
140
What trend occurred regarding marginal districts after 1966?
The number of marginal districts declined, leading to more incumbents winning with larger margins.
141
What are some perks of office that incumbents use for advertising?
* Newsletters * Trips home * Casework
142
What is the negative relationship found in incumbent elections?
Incumbents who hustle the most often perform worse than those who are less attentive.
143
What does high campaign spending by incumbents indicate?
It indicates vulnerability, not strength.
144
What is the first law of electoral politics?
You can't beat somebody with nobody.
145
What is the corollary to the first law of electoral politics?
You can't beat somebody with somebody nobody ever heard of.
146
What happens in open seat races compared to incumbents' races?
Open seat races are more competitive, typically featuring professional candidates against professionals.
147
What are term limits proposed to do?
Create more competitive races in Congress.
148
Why are term limits considered unconstitutional?
States cannot change qualifications for Congress set by the Constitution.
149
What was the outcome of U.S. Term Limits v. Thornton (1995)?
It ruled that states require a constitutional amendment to impose term limits on Congress.
150
What is one argument against term limits being democratic?
They take away voters' power to choose their representatives.
151
What is a common job for former members of Congress?
Professional lobbyist.
152
What is the perception of Congress regarding the age of its members?
It is dominated by 'out of touch octogenarians who’ve been there 30 yrs. or more.'
153
What is the average length of service in Congress compared to the proposed 12-year term limit?
Average length of service is less than 12 years.
154
What does research suggest about members who served 7+ terms?
They scored higher in competence and integrity than those who were defeated.