Pothi Book2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary purpose of earthing in a telecommunication system?
a. To prevent corrosion of equipment
b. To provide stability of voltage regulations
c. To divert stray RF energy
d. To facilitate single-pole switching

A

To divert stray RF energy

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2
Q

What is the maximum acceptable resistance for the earth electrode system in electronic exchanges?
a. I ohm
b. 2 ohms
c. 0.5 ohms
d. 5 ohms

A

0.5 ohms

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3
Q

How are earthing systems classified based on their purpose?
a. Positive and Negative
b. Service and Protective
c. Low and High
d. Ground and Air

A

Service and Protective

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4
Q

What must be ensured for a service earthing system to prevent interference in telecommunication circuits?
a. High D.C. resistance
b. Low surge impedance
c. Potential difference below 2 ohms
d. No resistance requirements

A

High D.C. resistance

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5
Q

Why should an earth protecting against excessive current have a low resistance?
a. To prevent excessive potential difference
b. To enable over-current protective devices to operate
c. To facilitate galvanic corrosion
d. To reduce resistance throughout the year

A

To enable over-current protective devices to operate

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6
Q

Why is a common earthing system preferred over different earthing systems for various purposes?
a. It reduces galvanic corrosion currents
b. It eliminates potential differences
c. It allows higher resistance values
d. It increases surge Impedance

A

It eliminates potential differences

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7
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Parallel Battery Float Scheme?
a. To increase floating voltage
b. To reduce battery capacity
c. To facilitate parallel connection of batteries
d. To provide emergency power

A

To provide emergency power

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8
Q

What should be done if the resistance of the earth electrode system exceeds 2 ohms in winter?
a. Install more earth electrode systems
b. Space existing systems far apart
c. Use heavier gauge conductors
d. Parallel the systems to achieve a resistance below 2 ohms

A

Parallel the systems to achieve a resistance below 2 ohms

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9
Q

In the Mobile Network Hardware section, what functions can be performed by CSR terminals?
a. Only data feeding and creation of accounts
b. Service provisioning, activation, billing, and trouble ticketing
c. Messaging and value-added service activations
d. Roaming charges calculation and network troubleshooting

A

Service provisioning, activation, billing, and trouble ticketing

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10
Q

How are Basic Level CSRs and Higher Level CSRs differentiated in their functions?
a. Basic Level CSRs handle service provisioning, while Higher Level CSRs handle billing.
b. Basic Level CSRs handle billing, while Higher Level CSRs handle customer queries.
c. Basic Level CSRs handle data feeding, creation of accounts, and trouble ticketing.
d. Basic Level CSRs handle high-level functions such as activation and billing.

A

Basic Level CSRs handle data feeding, creation of accounts, and trouble ticketing.

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11
Q

When is the Lead Strip Electrode System used?
- a) In areas with low soil resistivity
- b) When rock is encountered
- c) When space is limited
- d) All Of the above

A

When rock is encountered

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12
Q

What is the primary condition for choosing the type of Earth Electrode System?
- a) Soil resistivity
b) Space availability
- c) Budget constraints
- d) Type of telecommunication equipment

A

Space availability

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13
Q
  1. factor should be considered when choosing the location for Earth Electrodes?**
    - a) Availability of space
    - b) Proximity to metal pipes or cables
    - c) Distance from future building extensions
    - d) All Of the above
A

All Of the above

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14
Q
  1. What is the primary responsibility of Basic Level CSRs in CSCs?
    a. Service provisioning and activation
    b. Billing and collections
    c. Troubleshooting network issues
    d. Receipt of order forms, feeding them, and handling customer queries
A

Receipt of order forms, feeding them, and handling customer queries

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15
Q

Where are Higher Level CSRs located, and what functions do they handle?
a. Located at CSCs, handling basic customer needs
b. Located at the SSA HQs, handling responsible activities like service provisioning and billing
c. Located at Circle Level, handling brand building exercises
d. Located at zonal billing centers, handling billing discrepancies

A

Located at the SSA HQs, handling responsible activities like service provisioning and billing

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16
Q

What is the purpose of network access segmentation from CSR terminals?
a. To restrict access based on the level and role assigned to the user
b. To provide free access to all functionalities for all CSR terminals
c. To limit access to commercial activities only
d. To facilitate roaming charges calculations

A

To restrict access based on the level and role assigned to the user

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17
Q
  1. What does the role of Customer Service Centers (CSCs) include?
    a. Direct sales of BSNL mobile products
    b. Predominantly serving as sales outlets
    c. Providing first-level customer care with escalation procedures
    d. Allowing free access to channel partners
A

Providing first-level customer care with escalation procedures

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18
Q

How is the circle for CMTS Services identified, and what responsibility center exists at the Circle Level?
a. Identified based on the geographical area; responsible for billing and collections
b. Identified as a Strategic Business Unit (SBU); responsibility center for revenue-tariff correlation analysis
c. Identified based on customer density”, responsibility center for marketing and sales
d. Identified by the number of dealers; responsibility center for network troubleshooting

A

Identified as a Strategic Business Unit (SBU); responsibility center for revenue-tariff correlation analysis

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19
Q

What is the purpose of post-verification of customers, and who conducts this verification?
a. To check customer identities; conducted by CSR terminals
b. To verify fixed line details; conducted by higher-level CSRs
c. To validate payment receipts; conducted by dealers and distributors
d. To confirm address and credit worthiness; conducted by external agencies

A

To confirm address and credit worthiness; conducted by external agencies

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20
Q

What is the significance of credit limits, and who approves enhancements to these limits?
a. Credit limits ensure free access to services; enhancements approved by CSR terminals
b. Credit limits are determined by channel partners; enhancements approved by higher-level CSRs
c. Credit limits help minimize losses; enhancements approved by GM (CMTS) in consultation with IFA
d. Credit limits are fixed by Corporate Office; enhancements approved by extemal agencies

A

Credit limits help minimize losses; enhancements approved by GM (CMTS) in consultation with IFA

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21
Q

How are payments accepted for registration, and what actions are taken in case of bounced cheques?
a. Only cash payments accepted; services disconnected immediately for bounced cheques
b. Cash, cheque, and credit card payments accepted; services disconnected after a reminder
c. Only cheque payments accepted; services disconnected if payment not received within 48 hours
d. Only credit card payments accepted; services disconnected for any late payments

A

Only cheque payments accepted; services disconnected if payment not received within 48 hours

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22
Q

How is bill collection through dealers handled, especially in case of
combined PSTN and mobile services?
a. Separate cheques for each service are required
b. Combined cheques are accepted
c. Dealers are not allowed to handle cheque payments
d. Payments through dealers are not encouraged

A

Separate cheques for each service are required

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23
Q

When are SMS reminders sent to customers for non-payment of bills?
a. 15th day
b. 18th day
c. 21st day
d. 26th day

A

18th day

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24
Q

What is the maximum time frame for reconnection after clearance of dues?
a. I week
b. 2 weeks
c. Same day
d. 4 weeks

A

Same day

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25
Q

Who handles billing-related complaints for mobile services?
a. AO (Cash)
b. AO (TR)
c. AO (CMTS)
d. CO (Corporate Office)

A

AO (CMTS)

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26
Q

How are closures and refunds processed for mobile services?
a. Only through online requests
b. Applications received on plain paper and forwarded to higher level CSR
c. No refund process for mobile services
d. Refunds issued within 4 weeks from the date of closure

A

Applications received on plain paper and forwarded to higher level CSR

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27
Q

What unit coordinates Interconnect Settlement for BSNL mobile
services?
a. AO (Cash)
b. AO (TR)
c. AO (CMTS)
d. GM/DGM/1n charge Marketing

A

AO (CMTS)

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28
Q

Which method of accounting is followed for BSNL CMTS Segment?
a. Cash method
b. Accrual method
c. Mixed method
d. No accounting is done

A

Accrual method

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29
Q
  1. What is the abbreviation for the new downlink transport channel introduced in 3GPP Release 5?
    a. HSDPA
    b. HS-DSCH
    c. HS-PDSCH
    d. HSPA+
A

HS-DSCH

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30
Q

How does HS-DSCH transmission differ from DSCH
transmission in Release 99?
a. HS-DSCH supports lower-order modulation.
b. HS-DSCH does not support link adaptation.
c. HS-DSCH uses a shorter TTI.
d. HS-DSCH has a longer TTI.

A

HS-DSCH uses a shorter TTI.

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31
Q

What is the purpose of introducing the MAC-hs sublayer in HS-DSCH transmission?
a. To handle power control
b. To support higher order modulation
c. To reduce retransmission delay for hybrid ARQ
d. To process billing information

A

To reduce retransmission delay for hybrid ARQ

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32
Q
  1. What is the maximum channel ratc for HSDPA?
    a. 1.8 Mbps
    b. 5.76 Mbps
    c. 13.4 Mbps
    d. 14.4 Mbps
A

14.4 Mbps

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33
Q

In HSDPA, what does the shorter TTI aim to reduce?
a. Transmission powcr
b. Channelization codes
c. Air-interface delay
d. Round Trip Times

A

Air-interface delay

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34
Q

What modulation scheme is introduced in HSDPA to support higher data rates?
a. QPSK
b. 8QAM
c. 16QAM
d. 32QAM

A

16QAM

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35
Q

What is the purpose of fast link adaptation in HSDPA?
a. To handle power control
b. To adjust the channel-coding rate
c. To reduce retransmission delay
d, To allocate available resources efficiently

A

To adjust the channel-coding rate

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36
Q

What is fast channel dependent scheduling dependent on in HSDPA?
a. Time of day
b. Instantaneous channel conditions
c. Transmission power
d. Fixed sequence

A

Instantaneous channel conditions

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37
Q

What is the major feature introduced in HSDPA for efficient channel utilization?
a. Code multiplexing
b. Time multiplexing
c. Power control
d. Round Robin scheduling

A

Time multiplexing

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38
Q

Which channel provides control information on how to decode information on HS-PDSCH in HSDPA?
a. HS-DSCH
b. HS-SCCH
c. HS-DPCCH
d. HS-PDSCH

A

HS-SCCH

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39
Q

What does HSUPA stand for?
a. High Speed Downlink Packet Access
b. High Speed Uplink Packet Access
c. Hybrid Service Uplink Packet Access
d. High Spectral Uplink Packet Access

A

High Speed Uplink Packet Access

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40
Q

What is the peak uplink data rate provided by HSUPA?
a. 5.76 Mbps
b. 13.4 Mbps
c. 14.4 Mbps
6. 69 Mbps

A

5.76 Mbps

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41
Q

What are the approaches used by HSUPA to achieve its performance gains?
a. New downlink channels
b. Enhanced power control
c. Enhanced scheduling
d. Enhanced dedicated channel in the uplink

A

Enhanced dedicated channel in the uplink

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42
Q

What does HSPA stand for?
a. High Speed Packet Access
b. Hybrid Service Packet Access
c. High Spectral Packet Access
d. High-Speed Power Access

A

High Speed Packet Access

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43
Q

What data rates are supported by HSPA+ in 3GPP Release 11?
a. Up to 5.76 Mbps downlink and 14.4 Mbps uplink
b. Up to 13.4 Mbps downlink and 69 Mbps uplink
c. Up to 336 Mbps downlink and 69 Mbps uplink
d. Up to 14.4 Mbps downlink and 5.76 Mbps uplink

A

Up to 336 Mbps downlink and 69 Mbps uplink

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44
Q

In HSDPA, what does PITI stand for?
A) Telecommunications Transmission Interval
B) Transmission Time Interval
C) Transport Timing Indicator
D) Time-division Transmission Interface

A

??

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45
Q

What is the maximum latency suggested for a user plane in a non-roamlng scenario in LTE?
- A) 5 milliseconds
- B) IO milliseconds
- C) 20 milliseconds
- D) 50 milliseconds

A

??

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46
Q

Which release introduced 2x2 MIMO in LTE?
A) Release 6
B) Release 7
C) Release 8
D) Release 9

A

??

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47
Q

What is the modulation scheme used on the downlink in HSPA
- A. QPSK
- B. 16 QAM
- C. 64 QAM
- D. Both B and C

A

Both B and C

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48
Q

ln which 3GPP release did MIMO become combinable with 64 QAM in HSPA
- A. Release 7
- B. Release 8
- C. Release 9
- D. Release 10

A

Release 8

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49
Q

What is the purpose of Continuous Packet Connectivity (CPC)
- A. Enhance downlink data rates
- B. Provide always-on service
- C. Reduce latency
- D. Support carrier aggregation

A

Provide always-on service

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50
Q

Which feature introduced in Release 8 of HSPA+ combines 2x2 MIMO with carrier aggregation to double the peak data rate?
- A. Higher Order Modulation
- B. Continuous Packet Connectivity
- C. Dual Carrier-HSDPA
- D. Integrated RNC/NodeB architecture

A

Dual Carrier-HSDPA

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51
Q

What is the benefit of the integrated RNC/NodcB architecture in HSPA+
- A. Higher order modulation
- B. Reduced latency
- C. Carrier aggregation
- D. Flatter and simpler architecture

A

Flatter and simpler architecture

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52
Q

What were the main motivations for the move to LTE?
A. Enhanced voice quality
B. Reduced latency and flat rate charging
C. Increased spectrum efficiency and simplified network architecture
D. Backward compatibility with 2G

A

Increased spectrum efficiency and simplified network architecture

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53
Q

Which ITU initiative introduced requirements for a fourth-generation (4G) communication system?
- A. IMT-2000
- B. IMT-Advanced
- C. LTE-Advanced
- D. 3GPP

A

IMT-Advanced

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54
Q

What were the peak data rate requirements for a system to meet IMT-Advanced standards?
- A. 300 Mbps downlink, 75 Mbps uplink
- B. 600 Mbps downlink, 270 Mbps uplink
- C. 1000 Mbps downlink, 500 Mbps uplink
- D. 1500 Mbps downlink, 1000 Mbps uplink

A

600 Mbps downlink, 270 Mbps uplink

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55
Q

Which two systems were recognized as meeting the requirements of INff-Advanced by the ITU?
- A. LTE and WiMAX 1.0
- B. LTE and UMB
- C. WiMAX 1.0 and UMB
- D. WiMAX 1.0 and UMTS

A

LTE and WiMAX 1.0

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56
Q

What is the meaning of “4G” according to the ITU?
- A. LTE and WiMAX only
B. Systems meeting IMT-Advanced requirements
- C. Systems with substantially better performance than early 3G
- D. LTE-Advanced and mobile WiMAX 2.0

A

Systems with substantially better performance than early 3G

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57
Q

What is the modulation scheme used for radio transmission and reception in LTE?
- A. QPSK
-B. 16 QAM
- C. 64 QAM
- D. OFDMA

A

OFDMA

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58
Q

Which technique is used to minimize the problems of fading and inter-symbol interference in LTE?
- A. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)
- B. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
- C. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access (OFDMA)
- D. Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)

A

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access (OFDMA)

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59
Q

How does OFDMA handle the issue of inter-symbol interference (ISI)?
- A. By increasing the delay spread
- B. By reducing the symbol duration
- C. By using a larger carrier frequency
- D. By dividing the information into parallel sub-streams

A

By dividing the information into parallel sub-streams

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60
Q

What computational technique is used to convert data from the frequency domain to the time domain in OFDMA?
- A. Fast Fourier Transform (FFT)
- B. Inverse Discrete Fourier Transform (IDFT)
- C. Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT)
- D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)

A

Inverse Discrete Fourier Transform (IDFT)

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61
Q

What is the main purpose of the resource element mapper in OFDM?
- A. Modulate bit streams independently
- B. Choose subcarriers for transmission
- C. Implement the inverse Fourier transform
- D. Reduce the amount of inter-symbol interference

A

Choose subcarriers for transmission

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62
Q

What technique does LTE use to minimize interference between nearby cells?
- A. Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)
- B. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access (OFDMA)
- C. Fractional Frequency Re-Use
- D. Channel Estimation

A

Fractional Frequency Re-Use

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63
Q

What is the purpose of the cyclic prefix insertion in LTE?
- A. To increase the data rate
- B. To remove inter-symbol interference
- C. To allocate subcarriers in a flexible way
- D. To facilitate resource allocation in subframes

A

To remove inter-symbol interference

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64
Q

How does LTE handle frequency-dependent fading in the presence of subcarriers allocated to mobiles?
- A. By using Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)
- B. By implementing Fractional Frequency Re-Use
C. By dynamically changing subcarrier allocations based on signal strength
D. By utilizing Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)

A

By dynamically changing subcarrier allocations based on signal strength

65
Q

What do the LTE reference symbols scattered across time and frequency domains help achieve?
- A. Increase data rate
- B. Minimize interference
- C. Implement channel estimation
- D. Facilitate resource allocation

A

Implement channel estimation

66
Q

LTE, what is the role of the DwPTS field in a subframe?
- A. Transmitting PRACH and SRS
B. Carrying synchronization and user data
- C. Controlling downlink control channels
- D. Facilitating resource allocation

A

Carrying synchronization and user data

67
Q

What is the switch-point periodicity supported in LTE?
- A. 1 ms
- B. 5 ms
-C. 10 ms
-D. 15 ms

A

5 ms

68
Q

How many subframes are reserved for uplink transmission in LTE when using a 5-ms switch-point periodicity?
- A. 1
- B. 2
-C. 3
-D. 4

A

1

69
Q

What does the LTE cyclic prefix insertion technique involve?
- A. Inserting a guard period after each symbol
- B. Removing the cyclic prefix for increased data rate
- C. Copying data from the beginning of the symbol into the guard period
- D. Using a separate cyclic prefix for each subcarrier

A

Copying data from the beginning of the symbol into the guard period

70
Q

What is the purpose of the UpPTS field in LTE?
- A. Transmitting PRACH and SRS
- B. Facilitating resource allocation
- C. Carrying synchronization and user data
- D. Transmitting downlink control channels

A

Transmitting PRACH and SRS

71
Q

How does LTE achieve fractional frequency re-use among neighboring cells?
- A. By using different carrier frequencies
- B. By using FDMA for each cell
- C By dynamically changing subcarrier allocations based on signal strength
- D. By exchanging signaling messages across the X2 interface

A

By exchanging signaling messages across the X2 interface

72
Q

What is the re-use factor achieved in the example of fractional frequency re-use in LTE?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 67%
D. 100%

A

67%

73
Q

What percentage of the transmitted data stream do LTE reference symbols take up?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%

A

10%

74
Q

How does LTE address the issue of interference between nearby cells?
- A. By using different carrier frequencies for each cell
B. By increasing the frequency band
- C. By using FDMA for each cell
D. By implementing Fractional Frequency Re-Use

A

By implementing Fractional Frequency Re-Use

75
Q

What does LTE use to remove the impact of time- and frequency-dependent fading in OFDMA?
A. Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)
B. Dynamic subcarrier allocation
C. Channel Estimation
D. Cyclic Prefix Insertion

A

Cyclic Prefix Insertion

76
Q

ln LTE, what is the maximum path difference corresponding to a cyclic prefix of about 4.7micosec
A. 0.7 km
B. 1.4 km
C. 2.1 km
D. 3.5 km

A

1.4 km

77
Q

How much does the cyclic prefix reduce the LTE data rate
A. 5%
B. 7%
C. 10%
D. 15%

A

7%

78
Q

What is a key advantage of OFDMA in the frequency domain compared to traditional analogue FDMA?
- A. Increased interference
- B. Efficient use of guard bands
- C. Wide separation of sub-carriers
- D. Inefficient use of the frequency domain

A

efficient use of guard bands

79
Q

What does the term “orthogonal” refer to in the context of sub-carriers in
- A. Closely packed sub-carriers
- B. Overlapping sub-carriers
- C. Sub-carriers with interference
- D. Sub-carriers with minimal interference from others

A

Sub-carriers with minimal interference from others

80
Q

How does OFDMA handle interference between sub-carriers in the frequency domain?
A. By widening guard bands
- B. By using wideband modulation
- C By making sub-carriers non-orthogonal
- D. By using orthogonal sub-carriers

A

By using orthogonal sub-carriers

81
Q

What modulation methods does the E-UTRA (LTE air interface) use in the downlink and uplink, respectively?
- A. FDMA in downlink, OFDMA in uplink
- B. OFDMA in both downlink and uplink
- C. SC-FDMA in downlink, OFDMA in uplink
- D. OFDM in downlink, SC-FDMA in uplink

A

OFDMA in both downlink and uplink

82
Q

advantage does SC-FDMA have over OFDMA
A. Higher peak-to-average power ratio
B. Higher interference between sub-carriers
C. Lower peak-to-average power ratio
D. Lower spectral efficiency

A

Lower peak-to-average power ratio

83
Q

Which component of the LTE architecture allows UEs to connect to the LTE network?
A. MME (Mobility Management Entity)
B. S-GW (Serving Gateway)
C. eNodeB (evolved Node B)
D. E-UTRAN (Evolved UMTS Terrestrial Radio Access Network)

A

eNodeB (evolved Node B)

84
Q

What is the purpose of the LTE-Uu interface?
- A. Connects eNodeB to MME for control plane signaling
- B. Connects UE to eNodeB for control plane signaling
- C. Connects UE to S-GW for user plane data
- D. Connects eNodeB to S-GW for user plane data

A

Connects UE to eNodeB for control plane signaling

85
Q

Which LTE interface is responsible for the transmission of paging messages and broadcast information?
- A. Sl interface
- B. X2 interface
- C. LTE-Uu interface
- D. SI-U interface

A

LTE-Uu interface

86
Q

What is the role of the SI-AP interface in LTE?
A. Connects eNodeB to MME for user plane data
B. Connects eNodeB to MME for control plane signaling
C. Connects eNodeB to S-GW for user plane data
D. Connects eNodeB to S-GW for control plane signaling

A

Connects eNodeB to MME for control plane signaling

87
Q

Which LTE interface is responsible for mobility management, load management, and inter-cell interference management?
A. Sl interface
B. X2 interface
C. LTE-Uu interface
D. SI-U interface

A

X2 interface

88
Q

What does the X2-AP interface replace in comparison to the Sl interface?
- A. SI-U
B. SI-AP
C. S-GW
D. Sl-C

A

SI-AP

89
Q

What is the primary purpose of the X2 interface in LTE?
- A. User plane data transmission
- B. Control plane signaling between MME and eNodeBs
- C. Inter-eNodeB handover and signaling information exchange
- D. Mobility management and load management

A

Inter-eNodeB handover and signaling information exchange

90
Q

Which LTE interface is responsible for encryption and decryption of user plane packets?
- A. Sl interface
- B. X2 interface
- C. LTE-Uu interface
- D. SI-U interface

A

SI-U interface

91
Q

In the LTE architecture, what is the main role of the eNodeB
- A. Packet compression and ciphering
- B. MME selection
- C. User equipment connectivity
- D. Dynamic resource allocation

A

User equipment connectivity

92
Q

What type of architecture does LTE have, and how does it differ from previous mobile telecommunication systems?
- A. Hierarchical, with RNC (Radio Network Controller)
- B. Flat, without RNC
- C. Star, with centralized control
- D. Mesh, with distributed control

A

Flat, without RNC

93
Q

What is the primary function of the LTE Sl -U interface?
- A. Connects eNodeB to MN’fE for control plane signaling
- B. Connects UE to eNodeB for user plane data
- C. Connects eNodeB to S-GW for user plane data
- D. Connects IJE to S-GW for control plane signaling

A

Connects eNodeB to S-GW for user plane data

94
Q

Which technology is used in the LTE E-UTRA air interface?**
- A. FDMA
- B. CDMA
- C. OFDMA
- D. TDMA

A

OFDMA

95
Q

What is the significance of the flat architecture in LTE?
- A. Efficient use of the frequency domain
- B. Minimization of network elements
- C. Increased interference
- D. Use of wide guard bands

A

Minimization of network elements

96
Q

What is the purpose of the Mobility Management Entity (MME)
in the LTE Evolved Packet core
- A. Forwards IP packets to and from the RAN
- B. Manages the movement of UEs throughout the RAN
- C. Routes data between the base station and the PDN gateway
- D. Connects the Mobile Core to the external Intemet

A

Manages the movement of UEs throughout the RAN

97
Q

Which component of the LTE EPC acts as a database
containing all subscriber-related information?
- A. MME
- B. HSS
- C. PCRF
- D. SCJW

A

HSS

98
Q

What is the primary function of the Policy and Charging Rules
Function (PCRF) in LTE?
- A. Manages mobility of UEs
- B. Controls policy rules and records billing data
- C. Forwards IP packets to and from the RAN
- D. Connects the Mobile Core to the external Internet

A

Controls policy rules and records billing data

99
Q

Which LTE component anchors the Mobile Core end of the
bearer service to a (potentially mobile) UE and is involved in
handovers between base stations?
-A. MME
- B. HSS
- C. SGW
- D. PGW

A

SGW

100
Q

ln practice, what is often done with the SGW and PGW
components in LTE EPC architecture?
- A. Combined into a single device known as S/PGW
- B. Separated into distinct devices for better efficiency
* C. Excluded from LTE networks
- D Merged with the MME component

A

Combined into a single device known as S/PGW

101
Q
  1. LTE components run in the Control Plane
    - A. MME, HSS, PCRF
    - B. SGW, PGW
    - C. MME, SGW
    - D. PGW, PCRF
A

MME, HSS, PCRF

102
Q

Which LTE components run in the User Plane (UP)?
- A. MME, HSS
- B. PCRF, SGW, PGW
- C. SGW, PGW
- D. MME, PCRF

A

SGW, PGW

103
Q

What is the main role of the Mobility Management Entity
(MME) in LTE
- A. Forwards IP packets to and from the RAN
- B. Manages subscriber-related information
- C. Controls policy rules and billing data
- D. Manages the movement of UEs throughout the RAN

A

Manages the movement of UEs throughout the RAN

104
Q

What does the Home Subscriber Server (HSS) contain in LTE
architecture?
- A. Subscriber-related information
- B. Policy and charging rules
- C. IP router functions
- D. Encryption and integrity protection algorithms

A

Subscriber-related information

105
Q

What functions does the Policy and Charging Rules Function
(PCRF) perform in LTE
- A. Manages subscriber movement
- B. Controls policy rules and records billing data
- C. Forwards IP packets in the RAN
- D. Anchors the Mobile Core end of the bearer service

A

Controls policy rules and records billing data

106
Q

What is the primary role of the Serving Gateway (SGW) in
LTE architecture?
- A. Anchors the Mobile Core end of the bearer service
- B. Acts as a router and forwards data between the base station
and the PDN gateway
- C. Connects the Mobile Core to the external Internet
- D. Manages mobility of UEs

A

Acts as a router and forwards data between the base station
and the PDN gateway

107
Q

What is the role of the Packet Gateway (PGW) in LTE
architecture?
- A. Acts as a router between the base station and the PDN
gateway
- B. Connects the Mobile Core to the external Internet
- C. Manages subscriber movement
- D. Connects the SGW to the external Internet

A

Connects the SGW to the external Internet

108
Q

What does the Packet Data Network Gateway (P-GW) act as a
point of contact for in LTE?
- A. External devices or packet data networks
- B. UEs and base stations
- C. MIME and HSS
- D. SGW and PGW

A

External devices or packet data networks

109
Q

What is identified by an Access Point Name (APN) in the LTE
Packet Data Network (PDN) gateway?
- A. Serving Gateway (SGW)
- B. External devices
- C. External Internet
- D. Packet data networks

A

Packet data networks ??

110
Q

What is the default assignment for a mobile in terms of a PDN
gateway in LTE?
- A. Assigned to multiple PDN gateways
- B. Assigned to the external Intemet
- C. Assigned to a default PDN gateway for always-on connectivity
- D. Assigned to the extemal SGW

A

Assigned to a default PDN gateway for always-on connectivity

111
Q

What is the primary function of the Authentication Request and Info in the LTE call flow?
- A. To initiate the Attach procedure
- B. To obtain resource for the third message
- C. To request location updates
- D. To manage subscriber data

A

To obtain resource for the third message

112
Q

What LTE component sends the Security Mode Complete
message during the call flow?
- A. MME
- B. HSS
- C. SGW
- D. UE

A

UE

113
Q

Which message initiates LTE call flow
- A. Authentication Request and Info
- B. Location Update Request
- C. Session Request
- D. Attach PDN Request

A

Attach PDN Request

114
Q

What message does the MME send to the HSS during the LTE call flow for authentication?
- A. Authentication Request and Info
- B. Authentication Response
- C. Security Mode Complete
- D. Location Update Request

A

Authentication Request and Info

115
Q

What message is sent from the HSS to the MME containing PDN subscription contexts during the LTE call flow?
- A. Security Mode Complete
- B. Location Update Request
- C. Session Response
- D. Authentication Response

A

Session Response

116
Q

Which message does the Serving Gateway (SGXV) send to the
Packet Gateway (PGV) to create a new entry in its EPS bearer context table during the LTE call flow?
- A. Default Bearer Request
- B. Session Request
- C. Initial Context Setup Request
- D. Default Bearer Response

A

Default Bearer Request

117
Q

What message does the Packet Gateway (PGW) send to the
Serving Gateway (SGW) during the LTE call flow to indicate the
establishment of GPRS Tunneling Protocol for control (GTP-C)
- A. Session Response
- B. Initial Context Setup Request
- C. Default Bearer Response
- D. Security Mode Complete

A

Session Response

118
Q

What information does the Default Bearer Response message
from the PGW to the SGW contain during the LTE call
- A. Security Mode Complete
- B. PDN GW User Plane address, EPS Bearer Identity, and QoS
- C. Location Update Request
* D Authentication Request and Info

A

PDN GW User Plane address, EPS Bearer Identity, and QoS

119
Q

What are the five main components of the 4G Mobile Core
(Evolved Packet Core)?
- A. HSS, SC,W, PGW, RAN, MME
- B. MME, HSS, PCRF, SGW, PGW
- C. SC,W, PGW, MME, PCRF, HSS
- D. MME, HSS, SGW, PGW, PCRF

A

MME, HSS, SGW, PGW, PCRF

120
Q

ln the 4G Mobile Core, what is the primary role of the Mobility
Management Entity (MME)?
- A. Forwards IP packets to and from the RAN
- B. Manages policy rules and records billing data
- C. Controls the high-level operation of the mobile and manages
its movement
- D. Connects the Mobile Core to the external Intemet

A

Controls the high-level operation of the mobile and manages
its movement

121
Q

Which component in the 4G Mobile Core is responsible for
tracking and managing policy rules and records billing data on
subscriber traffic?
- A. PGW (Packet Gateway)
- B. PCRF (Policy & Charging Rules Function)
- C. SGW (Serving Gateway)
- D. HSS (Home Subscriber Server)

A

PCRF (Policy & Charging Rules Function)

122
Q

What are the two components that run in the User Plane (UP) in
the 4G Mobile Core?
- A. HSS and SGW
- B. PCRF and MME
- C. SGW and PGW
- D. PGW and PCRF

A

SGW and PGW

123
Q

Which component in the 4G Mobile Core is responsible for
forwarding IP packets to and from the RAN and anchoring the
Mobile Core end of the bearer service to a UE?
- A. PGW (Packet Gateway)
- B. SGW (Serving Gateway)
- C. MME (Mobility Management Entity)
- D. HSS (Home Subscriber Server)

A

SGW (Serving Gateway)

124
Q

Which 4G Mobile Core component essentially serves as an IP
router connecting the Mobile Core to the external Internet and
supports access-related functions such as policy enforcement, traffic shaping, and charging?
- A. SGW (Serving Gateway)
- B. PGW (Packet Gateway)
- C. MME (Mobility Management Entity)
- D. PCRF (Policy & Charging Rules Function)

A

PGW (Packet Gateway)

125
Q

What is the significance of the S/PGW combination in the 4G
Mobile Core architecture?
- A. It improves the performance of MME
- B. It simplifies the User Plane components
- C. It enhances the control plane signaling
- D. It enables better integration with the RAN

A

It simplifies the User Plane components

126
Q

What type of messages does the Random Access Preamble
(RAP) represent in the LTE call flow?
- A. Downlink data transmission
- B. Uplink synchronization
- C. Attach procedure initiation
- D. Security mode command

A

Uplink synchronization

127
Q

ln the LTE call flow, what does the Random Access Preamble
Response (RAP Response) allow the UE to do?
- A. Initiate the Attach procedure
- B. Send further messages
- C. Establish radio bearers
- D. Begin downlink data transmission

A

Send further messages

128
Q

What message is exchanged between the UE and eNodeB in
the LTE call flow to establish the signaling radio bearer (SRB)?
- A. Radio Resource Connection Setup (RRC Setup)
- B. PDN Connectivity
- C. Security Mode Complete
- D. Default Bearer Request

A

Radio Resource Connection Setup (RRC Setup)

129
Q

What information does the Attach PDN request message
contain in the LTE call flow?
- A. Uplink synchronization
- B. RRC has been completed
- C. Initiate the Attach procedure as non-access stratum (NAS)
payload
- D. PDN Connectivity request

A

Initiate the Attach procedure as non-access stratum (NAS)
payload

130
Q

Which information does the Authentication Request and Info
messages contain in the LTE call flow?
- A. PDN Connectivity Request
- B. Security tuple with K-ASME, AUTN, XRES, and RAND
- C. Uplink synchronization information
- D. Attach PDN request

A

Security tuple with K-ASME, AUTN, XRES, and RAND

131
Q

What is the purpose of the Security Mode Complete message in
the LTE call
- A. To initiate the Attach procedure
- B. To establish the signaling radio bearer (SRB)
- C. To send further messages
- D. To confirm NAS ciphering and integrity protection

A

To confirm NAS ciphering and integrity protection

132
Q

Which message contains information about the PDN GW User
Plane address, PDN GW TEIDs User and Control Plane, EPS
Bearer Identity, and QoS in the LTE call flow?
- A. Session Response
- B. Initial Context Setup Request
- C. Default Bearer Response
- D. Attach PDN Request

A

Default Bearer Response

133
Q

What is the role of the Session Response message in the LTE
call
- A. Acknowledgment of the Attach procedure
- B. Establishment of GTP-C tunnel
- C. Creation of the signaling radio bearer (SRB)
- D. Confirmation of NAS ciphering and integrity protection

A

Establishment of GTP-C tunnel

134
Q

What does the Initial Context Setup Request message initiate in
the LTE call flow?
- A. Random Access Preamble Response
- B. Attach PDN request
- C PDN Connectivity
- D. Creation of a GTP tunnel

A

Creation of a GTP tunnel

135
Q

What is the main principle behind Intelligent Network (IN)?
A. Centralizing intelligence within core network switches
B. Separating intelligence from core network switches
C. Distributing intelligence to the edge of the network
D. Integrating intelligence into the telephone network

A

Separating intelligence from core network switches

136
Q

What is the primary role of the Call Control Function (CCF) in
the Intelligent Network (IN) architecture?
- A. Establishing and releasing calls
- B. Recognizing service control triggers
- C. Managing service subscriptions
- D. Providing database services

A

Establishing and releasing calls

137
Q

Who is responsible for purchasing IN services from the network
provider and providing them to service subscribers in the IN
architecture?
- A. Network Provider
- B. Service Subscriber
- C. Service Provider
D. Calling Subscriber

A

Service Provider

138
Q

ln the context of IN, what does SCF stand for?
- A. Service Creation Function
- B. Service Control Function
- C. Service Switching Function
- D. Special Resource Function

A

Service Control Function

139
Q

What is the purpose of the Specialized Resource Function (SRF)
- A. Managing call and connection handling
- B. Handling signaling between CCF and SCF
- C. Interacting with the calling party in the speech path
- D. Creating and modifying network databases

A

Interacting with the calling party in the speech path

140
Q

Which functional entity enables service developers to develop
service logic and create and modify network databases in IN?
- A. Service Switching Point (SSP)
- B. Service Creation Environment Function (SCEF)
- C. Service Control Point (SCP)
- D. Service Management Function (SMF)

A

Service Creation Environment Function (SCEF)

141
Q

ln the network structure of Intelligent Network (IN), where is
the IN service control functionality (SCD located?
- A. Within the GMSC Server
- B. In a separate node in the network
- C. Within the gsmSSF
- D. Co-located with the SCP

A

In a separate node in the network

142
Q

What is the primary function of the Intelligent Network
Application Protocol (INAP) in IN?
- A. Managing service subscriptions
- B. Handling signaling between CCF and SCF
- C. Interacting with the calling party in the speech path
- D. Enabling communication between SSF and SCF

A

Enabling communication between SSF and SCF

143
Q

What is the role Of the Service Creation Environment Function
(SCEF) in
- A. Establishing calls
- B. Creating and modifying network databases
- C. Handling signaling between CCF and SCF
- D. Interacting with the calling party in the speech path

A

Creating and modifying network databases

144
Q

What functionality does the Call Control Access Function
(CCAF) provide in the Distributed Functional Plane of IN?
- A. Managing call and connection handling
- B. Creating and modifying network databases
- C. Recognizing IN calls
- D. Provisioning and managing services

A

Recognizing IN calls

145
Q

Under what circumstances may the Temporary Mobile
Subscriber Identity (TMSI) be updated in GSM?
- A. During call setup
- B. On entry to a new Location Area Identity (LAI)
- C. On entry to a new Visitor Location Register (VLR)
- D. All of the above

A

All of the above

146
Q

What does the SIM card in GSM networks contain?
- A. Subscriber-related information and algorithms A3 and A8
- B. Error correction algorithms
- C. Location Area Identity (LAI) information
- D. Temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity (TMSI) information

A

Subscriber-related information and algorithms A3 and A8

147
Q

How is the encryption algorithm and key synchronized in GSM
networks?
- A. Through the use of Location Area Identity (LAT)
B. By updating the Temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity (TMSI)
- C. With the hyper-frame counter
- D. Using the Vemam Cipher algorithm (A5)

A

With the hyper-frame counter

148
Q

What is the primary function of the Ciphering Start Procedure
in GSM networks?
- A. To activate frequency hopping
- B. To synchronize encryption keys
- C. To deliver the cipher mask to the mobile station
- D. To initiate the encryption process

A

To synchronize encryption keys

149
Q

What does the System Information Retrieval Function (SIRI)
provide in the Lawful Interception (LI) architecture?
- A. Intercept-related information
- B. Communication content
- C. System-related information for Network Functions (NFS)
- D. Cipher masks for encryption

A

System-related information for Network Functions (NFS)

150
Q

Which function delivers the Intercept Related Information
(IRI) messages to the Law Enforcement Monitoring Facility (LEMO
in the LI architecture?
- A. Administration Function (ADMI)
- B. Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF2)
- C. Point of Interception (POI)
- D. Triggering Function (TD

A

Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF2)

151
Q

What is the primary responsibility of the Law Enforcement
Agency (LEA) in the LI architecture?
- A. Delivering IRI messages to the LEMF
- B. Triggering POIS in response to network events
- C. Submitting the warrant to the CSPs
- D. Providing encryption algorithms for LI

A

Submitting the warrant to the CSPs

152
Q

Which entity in the LI architecture is responsible for detecting
target communications and delivering the POI output to the
Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF)?
- A. Administration Function (ADMF)
- B. Triggering Function CTF)
- C. Point of Interception (POI)
- D. Law Enforcement Agency (LEA)

A

Point of Interception (POI)

153
Q

What does the Triggering Function TF) do in the Lawful
Interception (LI) architecture?
A. Delivers Communication Content (CC) to the Law Enforcement Monitoring Facility (LEMF)
B. Indicates the Ciphering Start Procedure
C. Submits the warrant to the Communications Service Provider
(C.SP)
D. Triggers Points of Interception (POIS) in response to events

A

Triggers Points of Interception (POIS) in response to events

154
Q

What does the Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF3)
generate and deliver to the Law Enforcement Monitoring Facility
(LEMF) in the LI architecture?
- A. Intercept Related Information (IRI)
- B. Cipher masks
- C. Communication Content (CC)
- D. System-related information

A

Communication Content (CC)

155
Q

Which entity provides administrative and management
functions for the Lawful Interception (LI) capability in the LI
architecture?
- A. Point of Interception (POI)
- B. System Information Retrieval Function (SIRF)
- C. Administration Function (ADMF)
- D. Triggering Function (TF)

A

Administration Function (ADMF)

156
Q

What is the purpose of the System Information Retrieval
Function (SIRF) in the LI architecture?
- A. Delivering IRI messages to the LEMF
- B. Providing encryption algorithms for LI
- C. Offering system-related information for Network Functions
(NFS)
- D. Triggering Points of Interception (POIs)

A

Offering system-related information for Network Functions
(NFS)

157
Q

How does the Lawful Interception (LI) architecture in mobile
networks address the delivery of Communication Content (CC) to
the Law Enforcement Monitoring Facility
- A. %rough the Administration Function (ADMF)
- B. By triggering Points of Interception (POIS)
- C. Via the Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF3)
- D. Using the System Information Retrieval Function (SIRF)

A

Via the Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF3)

158
Q

What does UMTS AKA provide in 3G
- A. Encry’ption of signaling over the air
- B. Authentication and Key Agreement
- C. Frequency hopping capabilities
- D. Synchronization of encryption keys

A

Authentication and Key Agreement

159
Q

How are HURs (High Usage Reports) related to Intenational roaming?
- A. They indicate network errors
- B. They measure registration success
- C. They are used to detect suspected fraud
- D. They represent signal strength

A

They are used to detect suspected fraud