Pothi Book2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary purpose of earthing in a telecommunication system?
a. To prevent corrosion of equipment
b. To provide stability of voltage regulations
c. To divert stray RF energy
d. To facilitate single-pole switching

A

To divert stray RF energy

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2
Q

What is the maximum acceptable resistance for the earth electrode system in electronic exchanges?
a. I ohm
b. 2 ohms
c. 0.5 ohms
d. 5 ohms

A

0.5 ohms

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3
Q

How are earthing systems classified based on their purpose?
a. Positive and Negative
b. Service and Protective
c. Low and High
d. Ground and Air

A

Service and Protective

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4
Q

What must be ensured for a service earthing system to prevent interference in telecommunication circuits?
a. High D.C. resistance
b. Low surge impedance
c. Potential difference below 2 ohms
d. No resistance requirements

A

High D.C. resistance

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5
Q

Why should an earth protecting against excessive current have a low resistance?
a. To prevent excessive potential difference
b. To enable over-current protective devices to operate
c. To facilitate galvanic corrosion
d. To reduce resistance throughout the year

A

To enable over-current protective devices to operate

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6
Q

Why is a common earthing system preferred over different earthing systems for various purposes?
a. It reduces galvanic corrosion currents
b. It eliminates potential differences
c. It allows higher resistance values
d. It increases surge Impedance

A

It eliminates potential differences

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7
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Parallel Battery Float Scheme?
a. To increase floating voltage
b. To reduce battery capacity
c. To facilitate parallel connection of batteries
d. To provide emergency power

A

To provide emergency power

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8
Q

What should be done if the resistance of the earth electrode system exceeds 2 ohms in winter?
a. Install more earth electrode systems
b. Space existing systems far apart
c. Use heavier gauge conductors
d. Parallel the systems to achieve a resistance below 2 ohms

A

Parallel the systems to achieve a resistance below 2 ohms

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9
Q

In the Mobile Network Hardware section, what functions can be performed by CSR terminals?
a. Only data feeding and creation of accounts
b. Service provisioning, activation, billing, and trouble ticketing
c. Messaging and value-added service activations
d. Roaming charges calculation and network troubleshooting

A

Service provisioning, activation, billing, and trouble ticketing

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10
Q

How are Basic Level CSRs and Higher Level CSRs differentiated in their functions?
a. Basic Level CSRs handle service provisioning, while Higher Level CSRs handle billing.
b. Basic Level CSRs handle billing, while Higher Level CSRs handle customer queries.
c. Basic Level CSRs handle data feeding, creation of accounts, and trouble ticketing.
d. Basic Level CSRs handle high-level functions such as activation and billing.

A

Basic Level CSRs handle data feeding, creation of accounts, and trouble ticketing.

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11
Q

When is the Lead Strip Electrode System used?
- a) In areas with low soil resistivity
- b) When rock is encountered
- c) When space is limited
- d) All Of the above

A

When rock is encountered

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12
Q

What is the primary condition for choosing the type of Earth Electrode System?
- a) Soil resistivity
b) Space availability
- c) Budget constraints
- d) Type of telecommunication equipment

A

Space availability

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13
Q
  1. factor should be considered when choosing the location for Earth Electrodes?**
    - a) Availability of space
    - b) Proximity to metal pipes or cables
    - c) Distance from future building extensions
    - d) All Of the above
A

All Of the above

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14
Q
  1. What is the primary responsibility of Basic Level CSRs in CSCs?
    a. Service provisioning and activation
    b. Billing and collections
    c. Troubleshooting network issues
    d. Receipt of order forms, feeding them, and handling customer queries
A

Receipt of order forms, feeding them, and handling customer queries

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15
Q

Where are Higher Level CSRs located, and what functions do they handle?
a. Located at CSCs, handling basic customer needs
b. Located at the SSA HQs, handling responsible activities like service provisioning and billing
c. Located at Circle Level, handling brand building exercises
d. Located at zonal billing centers, handling billing discrepancies

A

Located at the SSA HQs, handling responsible activities like service provisioning and billing

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16
Q

What is the purpose of network access segmentation from CSR terminals?
a. To restrict access based on the level and role assigned to the user
b. To provide free access to all functionalities for all CSR terminals
c. To limit access to commercial activities only
d. To facilitate roaming charges calculations

A

To restrict access based on the level and role assigned to the user

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17
Q
  1. What does the role of Customer Service Centers (CSCs) include?
    a. Direct sales of BSNL mobile products
    b. Predominantly serving as sales outlets
    c. Providing first-level customer care with escalation procedures
    d. Allowing free access to channel partners
A

Providing first-level customer care with escalation procedures

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18
Q

How is the circle for CMTS Services identified, and what responsibility center exists at the Circle Level?
a. Identified based on the geographical area; responsible for billing and collections
b. Identified as a Strategic Business Unit (SBU); responsibility center for revenue-tariff correlation analysis
c. Identified based on customer density”, responsibility center for marketing and sales
d. Identified by the number of dealers; responsibility center for network troubleshooting

A

Identified as a Strategic Business Unit (SBU); responsibility center for revenue-tariff correlation analysis

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19
Q

What is the purpose of post-verification of customers, and who conducts this verification?
a. To check customer identities; conducted by CSR terminals
b. To verify fixed line details; conducted by higher-level CSRs
c. To validate payment receipts; conducted by dealers and distributors
d. To confirm address and credit worthiness; conducted by external agencies

A

To confirm address and credit worthiness; conducted by external agencies

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20
Q

What is the significance of credit limits, and who approves enhancements to these limits?
a. Credit limits ensure free access to services; enhancements approved by CSR terminals
b. Credit limits are determined by channel partners; enhancements approved by higher-level CSRs
c. Credit limits help minimize losses; enhancements approved by GM (CMTS) in consultation with IFA
d. Credit limits are fixed by Corporate Office; enhancements approved by extemal agencies

A

Credit limits help minimize losses; enhancements approved by GM (CMTS) in consultation with IFA

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21
Q

How are payments accepted for registration, and what actions are taken in case of bounced cheques?
a. Only cash payments accepted; services disconnected immediately for bounced cheques
b. Cash, cheque, and credit card payments accepted; services disconnected after a reminder
c. Only cheque payments accepted; services disconnected if payment not received within 48 hours
d. Only credit card payments accepted; services disconnected for any late payments

A

Only cheque payments accepted; services disconnected if payment not received within 48 hours

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22
Q

How is bill collection through dealers handled, especially in case of
combined PSTN and mobile services?
a. Separate cheques for each service are required
b. Combined cheques are accepted
c. Dealers are not allowed to handle cheque payments
d. Payments through dealers are not encouraged

A

Separate cheques for each service are required

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23
Q

When are SMS reminders sent to customers for non-payment of bills?
a. 15th day
b. 18th day
c. 21st day
d. 26th day

A

18th day

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24
Q

What is the maximum time frame for reconnection after clearance of dues?
a. I week
b. 2 weeks
c. Same day
d. 4 weeks

A

Same day

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25
Who handles billing-related complaints for mobile services? a. AO (Cash) b. AO (TR) c. AO (CMTS) d. CO (Corporate Office)
AO (CMTS)
26
How are closures and refunds processed for mobile services? a. Only through online requests b. Applications received on plain paper and forwarded to higher level CSR c. No refund process for mobile services d. Refunds issued within 4 weeks from the date of closure
Applications received on plain paper and forwarded to higher level CSR
27
What unit coordinates Interconnect Settlement for BSNL mobile services? a. AO (Cash) b. AO (TR) c. AO (CMTS) d. GM/DGM/1n charge Marketing
AO (CMTS)
28
Which method of accounting is followed for BSNL CMTS Segment? a. Cash method b. Accrual method c. Mixed method d. No accounting is done
Accrual method
29
1. What is the abbreviation for the new downlink transport channel introduced in 3GPP Release 5? a. HSDPA b. HS-DSCH c. HS-PDSCH d. HSPA+
HS-DSCH
30
How does HS-DSCH transmission differ from DSCH transmission in Release 99? a. HS-DSCH supports lower-order modulation. b. HS-DSCH does not support link adaptation. c. HS-DSCH uses a shorter TTI. d. HS-DSCH has a longer TTI.
HS-DSCH uses a shorter TTI.
31
What is the purpose of introducing the MAC-hs sublayer in HS-DSCH transmission? a. To handle power control b. To support higher order modulation c. To reduce retransmission delay for hybrid ARQ d. To process billing information
To reduce retransmission delay for hybrid ARQ
32
4. What is the maximum channel ratc for HSDPA? a. 1.8 Mbps b. 5.76 Mbps c. 13.4 Mbps d. 14.4 Mbps
14.4 Mbps
33
In HSDPA, what does the shorter TTI aim to reduce? a. Transmission powcr b. Channelization codes c. Air-interface delay d. Round Trip Times
Air-interface delay
34
What modulation scheme is introduced in HSDPA to support higher data rates? a. QPSK b. 8QAM c. 16QAM d. 32QAM
16QAM
35
What is the purpose of fast link adaptation in HSDPA? a. To handle power control b. To adjust the channel-coding rate c. To reduce retransmission delay d, To allocate available resources efficiently
To adjust the channel-coding rate
36
What is fast channel dependent scheduling dependent on in HSDPA? a. Time of day b. Instantaneous channel conditions c. Transmission power d. Fixed sequence
Instantaneous channel conditions
37
What is the major feature introduced in HSDPA for efficient channel utilization? a. Code multiplexing b. Time multiplexing c. Power control d. Round Robin scheduling
Time multiplexing
38
Which channel provides control information on how to decode information on HS-PDSCH in HSDPA? a. HS-DSCH b. HS-SCCH c. HS-DPCCH d. HS-PDSCH
HS-SCCH
39
What does HSUPA stand for? a. High Speed Downlink Packet Access b. High Speed Uplink Packet Access c. Hybrid Service Uplink Packet Access d. High Spectral Uplink Packet Access
High Speed Uplink Packet Access
40
What is the peak uplink data rate provided by HSUPA? a. 5.76 Mbps b. 13.4 Mbps c. 14.4 Mbps 6. 69 Mbps
5.76 Mbps
41
What are the approaches used by HSUPA to achieve its performance gains? a. New downlink channels b. Enhanced power control c. Enhanced scheduling d. Enhanced dedicated channel in the uplink
Enhanced dedicated channel in the uplink
42
What does HSPA stand for? a. High Speed Packet Access b. Hybrid Service Packet Access c. High Spectral Packet Access d. High-Speed Power Access
High Speed Packet Access
43
What data rates are supported by HSPA+ in 3GPP Release 11? a. Up to 5.76 Mbps downlink and 14.4 Mbps uplink b. Up to 13.4 Mbps downlink and 69 Mbps uplink c. Up to 336 Mbps downlink and 69 Mbps uplink d. Up to 14.4 Mbps downlink and 5.76 Mbps uplink
Up to 336 Mbps downlink and 69 Mbps uplink
44
In HSDPA, what does PITI stand for? A) Telecommunications Transmission Interval B) Transmission Time Interval C) Transport Timing Indicator D) Time-division Transmission Interface
??
45
What is the maximum latency suggested for a user plane in a non-roamlng scenario in LTE? - A) 5 milliseconds - B) IO milliseconds - C) 20 milliseconds - D) 50 milliseconds
??
46
Which release introduced 2x2 MIMO in LTE? A) Release 6 B) Release 7 C) Release 8 D) Release 9
??
47
What is the modulation scheme used on the downlink in HSPA - A. QPSK - B. 16 QAM - C. 64 QAM - D. Both B and C
Both B and C
48
ln which 3GPP release did MIMO become combinable with 64 QAM in HSPA - A. Release 7 - B. Release 8 - C. Release 9 - D. Release 10
Release 8
49
What is the purpose of Continuous Packet Connectivity (CPC) - A. Enhance downlink data rates - B. Provide always-on service - C. Reduce latency - D. Support carrier aggregation
Provide always-on service
50
Which feature introduced in Release 8 of HSPA+ combines 2x2 MIMO with carrier aggregation to double the peak data rate? - A. Higher Order Modulation - B. Continuous Packet Connectivity - C. Dual Carrier-HSDPA - D. Integrated RNC/NodeB architecture
Dual Carrier-HSDPA
51
What is the benefit of the integrated RNC/NodcB architecture in HSPA+ - A. Higher order modulation - B. Reduced latency - C. Carrier aggregation - D. Flatter and simpler architecture
Flatter and simpler architecture
52
What were the main motivations for the move to LTE? A. Enhanced voice quality B. Reduced latency and flat rate charging C. Increased spectrum efficiency and simplified network architecture D. Backward compatibility with 2G
Increased spectrum efficiency and simplified network architecture
53
Which ITU initiative introduced requirements for a fourth-generation (4G) communication system? - A. IMT-2000 - B. IMT-Advanced - C. LTE-Advanced - D. 3GPP
IMT-Advanced
54
What were the peak data rate requirements for a system to meet IMT-Advanced standards? - A. 300 Mbps downlink, 75 Mbps uplink - B. 600 Mbps downlink, 270 Mbps uplink - C. 1000 Mbps downlink, 500 Mbps uplink - D. 1500 Mbps downlink, 1000 Mbps uplink
600 Mbps downlink, 270 Mbps uplink
55
Which two systems were recognized as meeting the requirements of INff-Advanced by the ITU? - A. LTE and WiMAX 1.0 - B. LTE and UMB - C. WiMAX 1.0 and UMB - D. WiMAX 1.0 and UMTS
LTE and WiMAX 1.0
56
What is the meaning of "4G" according to the ITU? - A. LTE and WiMAX only B. Systems meeting IMT-Advanced requirements - C. Systems with substantially better performance than early 3G - D. LTE-Advanced and mobile WiMAX 2.0
Systems with substantially better performance than early 3G
57
What is the modulation scheme used for radio transmission and reception in LTE? - A. QPSK -B. 16 QAM - C. 64 QAM - D. OFDMA
OFDMA
58
Which technique is used to minimize the problems of fading and inter-symbol interference in LTE? - A. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) - B. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) - C. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access (OFDMA) - D. Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)
Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access (OFDMA)
59
How does OFDMA handle the issue of inter-symbol interference (ISI)? - A. By increasing the delay spread - B. By reducing the symbol duration - C. By using a larger carrier frequency - D. By dividing the information into parallel sub-streams
By dividing the information into parallel sub-streams
60
What computational technique is used to convert data from the frequency domain to the time domain in OFDMA? - A. Fast Fourier Transform (FFT) - B. Inverse Discrete Fourier Transform (IDFT) - C. Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) - D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)
Inverse Discrete Fourier Transform (IDFT)
61
What is the main purpose of the resource element mapper in OFDM? - A. Modulate bit streams independently - B. Choose subcarriers for transmission - C. Implement the inverse Fourier transform - D. Reduce the amount of inter-symbol interference
Choose subcarriers for transmission
62
What technique does LTE use to minimize interference between nearby cells? - A. Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA) - B. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access (OFDMA) - C. Fractional Frequency Re-Use - D. Channel Estimation
Fractional Frequency Re-Use
63
What is the purpose of the cyclic prefix insertion in LTE? - A. To increase the data rate - B. To remove inter-symbol interference - C. To allocate subcarriers in a flexible way - D. To facilitate resource allocation in subframes
To remove inter-symbol interference
64
How does LTE handle frequency-dependent fading in the presence of subcarriers allocated to mobiles? - A. By using Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA) - B. By implementing Fractional Frequency Re-Use C. By dynamically changing subcarrier allocations based on signal strength D. By utilizing Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)
By dynamically changing subcarrier allocations based on signal strength
65
What do the LTE reference symbols scattered across time and frequency domains help achieve? - A. Increase data rate - B. Minimize interference - C. Implement channel estimation - D. Facilitate resource allocation
Implement channel estimation
66
LTE, what is the role of the DwPTS field in a subframe? - A. Transmitting PRACH and SRS B. Carrying synchronization and user data - C. Controlling downlink control channels - D. Facilitating resource allocation
Carrying synchronization and user data
67
What is the switch-point periodicity supported in LTE? - A. 1 ms - B. 5 ms -C. 10 ms -D. 15 ms
5 ms
68
How many subframes are reserved for uplink transmission in LTE when using a 5-ms switch-point periodicity? - A. 1 - B. 2 -C. 3 -D. 4
1
69
What does the LTE cyclic prefix insertion technique involve? - A. Inserting a guard period after each symbol - B. Removing the cyclic prefix for increased data rate - C. Copying data from the beginning of the symbol into the guard period - D. Using a separate cyclic prefix for each subcarrier
Copying data from the beginning of the symbol into the guard period
70
What is the purpose of the UpPTS field in LTE? - A. Transmitting PRACH and SRS - B. Facilitating resource allocation - C. Carrying synchronization and user data - D. Transmitting downlink control channels
Transmitting PRACH and SRS
71
How does LTE achieve fractional frequency re-use among neighboring cells? - A. By using different carrier frequencies - B. By using FDMA for each cell - C By dynamically changing subcarrier allocations based on signal strength - D. By exchanging signaling messages across the X2 interface
By exchanging signaling messages across the X2 interface
72
What is the re-use factor achieved in the example of fractional frequency re-use in LTE? A. 25% B. 50% C. 67% D. 100%
67%
73
What percentage of the transmitted data stream do LTE reference symbols take up? A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 20%
10%
74
How does LTE address the issue of interference between nearby cells? - A. By using different carrier frequencies for each cell B. By increasing the frequency band - C. By using FDMA for each cell D. By implementing Fractional Frequency Re-Use
By implementing Fractional Frequency Re-Use
75
What does LTE use to remove the impact of time- and frequency-dependent fading in OFDMA? A. Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA) B. Dynamic subcarrier allocation C. Channel Estimation D. Cyclic Prefix Insertion
Cyclic Prefix Insertion
76
ln LTE, what is the maximum path difference corresponding to a cyclic prefix of about 4.7micosec A. 0.7 km B. 1.4 km C. 2.1 km D. 3.5 km
1.4 km
77
How much does the cyclic prefix reduce the LTE data rate A. 5% B. 7% C. 10% D. 15%
7%
78
What is a key advantage of OFDMA in the frequency domain compared to traditional analogue FDMA? - A. Increased interference - B. Efficient use of guard bands - C. Wide separation of sub-carriers - D. Inefficient use of the frequency domain
efficient use of guard bands
79
What does the term "orthogonal" refer to in the context of sub-carriers in - A. Closely packed sub-carriers - B. Overlapping sub-carriers - C. Sub-carriers with interference - D. Sub-carriers with minimal interference from others
Sub-carriers with minimal interference from others
80
How does OFDMA handle interference between sub-carriers in the frequency domain? A. By widening guard bands - B. By using wideband modulation - C By making sub-carriers non-orthogonal - D. By using orthogonal sub-carriers
By using orthogonal sub-carriers
81
What modulation methods does the E-UTRA (LTE air interface) use in the downlink and uplink, respectively? - A. FDMA in downlink, OFDMA in uplink - B. OFDMA in both downlink and uplink - C. SC-FDMA in downlink, OFDMA in uplink - D. OFDM in downlink, SC-FDMA in uplink
OFDMA in both downlink and uplink
82
advantage does SC-FDMA have over OFDMA A. Higher peak-to-average power ratio B. Higher interference between sub-carriers C. Lower peak-to-average power ratio D. Lower spectral efficiency
Lower peak-to-average power ratio
83
Which component of the LTE architecture allows UEs to connect to the LTE network? A. MME (Mobility Management Entity) B. S-GW (Serving Gateway) C. eNodeB (evolved Node B) D. E-UTRAN (Evolved UMTS Terrestrial Radio Access Network)
eNodeB (evolved Node B)
84
What is the purpose of the LTE-Uu interface? - A. Connects eNodeB to MME for control plane signaling - B. Connects UE to eNodeB for control plane signaling - C. Connects UE to S-GW for user plane data - D. Connects eNodeB to S-GW for user plane data
Connects UE to eNodeB for control plane signaling
85
Which LTE interface is responsible for the transmission of paging messages and broadcast information? - A. Sl interface - B. X2 interface - C. LTE-Uu interface - D. SI-U interface
LTE-Uu interface
86
What is the role of the SI-AP interface in LTE? A. Connects eNodeB to MME for user plane data B. Connects eNodeB to MME for control plane signaling C. Connects eNodeB to S-GW for user plane data D. Connects eNodeB to S-GW for control plane signaling
Connects eNodeB to MME for control plane signaling
87
Which LTE interface is responsible for mobility management, load management, and inter-cell interference management? A. Sl interface B. X2 interface C. LTE-Uu interface D. SI-U interface
X2 interface
88
What does the X2-AP interface replace in comparison to the Sl interface? - A. SI-U B. SI-AP C. S-GW D. Sl-C
SI-AP
89
What is the primary purpose of the X2 interface in LTE? - A. User plane data transmission - B. Control plane signaling between MME and eNodeBs - C. Inter-eNodeB handover and signaling information exchange - D. Mobility management and load management
Inter-eNodeB handover and signaling information exchange
90
Which LTE interface is responsible for encryption and decryption of user plane packets? - A. Sl interface - B. X2 interface - C. LTE-Uu interface - D. SI-U interface
SI-U interface
91
In the LTE architecture, what is the main role of the eNodeB - A. Packet compression and ciphering - B. MME selection - C. User equipment connectivity - D. Dynamic resource allocation
User equipment connectivity
92
What type of architecture does LTE have, and how does it differ from previous mobile telecommunication systems? - A. Hierarchical, with RNC (Radio Network Controller) - B. Flat, without RNC - C. Star, with centralized control - D. Mesh, with distributed control
Flat, without RNC
93
What is the primary function of the LTE Sl -U interface? - A. Connects eNodeB to MN'fE for control plane signaling - B. Connects UE to eNodeB for user plane data - C. Connects eNodeB to S-GW for user plane data - D. Connects IJE to S-GW for control plane signaling
Connects eNodeB to S-GW for user plane data
94
Which technology is used in the LTE E-UTRA air interface?** - A. FDMA - B. CDMA - C. OFDMA - D. TDMA
OFDMA
95
What is the significance of the flat architecture in LTE? - A. Efficient use of the frequency domain - B. Minimization of network elements - C. Increased interference - D. Use of wide guard bands
Minimization of network elements
96
What is the purpose of the Mobility Management Entity (MME) in the LTE Evolved Packet core - A. Forwards IP packets to and from the RAN - B. Manages the movement of UEs throughout the RAN - C. Routes data between the base station and the PDN gateway - D. Connects the Mobile Core to the external Intemet
Manages the movement of UEs throughout the RAN
97
Which component of the LTE EPC acts as a database containing all subscriber-related information? - A. MME - B. HSS - C. PCRF - D. SCJW
HSS
98
What is the primary function of the Policy and Charging Rules Function (PCRF) in LTE? - A. Manages mobility of UEs - B. Controls policy rules and records billing data - C. Forwards IP packets to and from the RAN - D. Connects the Mobile Core to the external Internet
Controls policy rules and records billing data
99
Which LTE component anchors the Mobile Core end of the bearer service to a (potentially mobile) UE and is involved in handovers between base stations? -A. MME - B. HSS - C. SGW - D. PGW
SGW
100
ln practice, what is often done with the SGW and PGW components in LTE EPC architecture? - A. Combined into a single device known as S/PGW - B. Separated into distinct devices for better efficiency * C. Excluded from LTE networks - D Merged with the MME component
Combined into a single device known as S/PGW
101
6. LTE components run in the Control Plane - A. MME, HSS, PCRF - B. SGW, PGW - C. MME, SGW - D. PGW, PCRF
MME, HSS, PCRF
102
Which LTE components run in the User Plane (UP)? - A. MME, HSS - B. PCRF, SGW, PGW - C. SGW, PGW - D. MME, PCRF
SGW, PGW
103
What is the main role of the Mobility Management Entity (MME) in LTE - A. Forwards IP packets to and from the RAN - B. Manages subscriber-related information - C. Controls policy rules and billing data - D. Manages the movement of UEs throughout the RAN
Manages the movement of UEs throughout the RAN
104
What does the Home Subscriber Server (HSS) contain in LTE architecture? - A. Subscriber-related information - B. Policy and charging rules - C. IP router functions - D. Encryption and integrity protection algorithms
Subscriber-related information
105
What functions does the Policy and Charging Rules Function (PCRF) perform in LTE - A. Manages subscriber movement - B. Controls policy rules and records billing data - C. Forwards IP packets in the RAN - D. Anchors the Mobile Core end of the bearer service
Controls policy rules and records billing data
106
What is the primary role of the Serving Gateway (SGW) in LTE architecture? - A. Anchors the Mobile Core end of the bearer service - B. Acts as a router and forwards data between the base station and the PDN gateway - C. Connects the Mobile Core to the external Internet - D. Manages mobility of UEs
Acts as a router and forwards data between the base station and the PDN gateway
107
What is the role of the Packet Gateway (PGW) in LTE architecture? - A. Acts as a router between the base station and the PDN gateway - B. Connects the Mobile Core to the external Internet - C. Manages subscriber movement - D. Connects the SGW to the external Internet
Connects the SGW to the external Internet
108
What does the Packet Data Network Gateway (P-GW) act as a point of contact for in LTE? - A. External devices or packet data networks - B. UEs and base stations - C. MIME and HSS - D. SGW and PGW
External devices or packet data networks
109
What is identified by an Access Point Name (APN) in the LTE Packet Data Network (PDN) gateway? - A. Serving Gateway (SGW) - B. External devices - C. External Internet - D. Packet data networks
Packet data networks ??
110
What is the default assignment for a mobile in terms of a PDN gateway in LTE? - A. Assigned to multiple PDN gateways - B. Assigned to the external Intemet - C. Assigned to a default PDN gateway for always-on connectivity - D. Assigned to the extemal SGW
Assigned to a default PDN gateway for always-on connectivity
111
What is the primary function of the Authentication Request and Info in the LTE call flow? - A. To initiate the Attach procedure - B. To obtain resource for the third message - C. To request location updates - D. To manage subscriber data
To obtain resource for the third message
112
What LTE component sends the Security Mode Complete message during the call flow? - A. MME - B. HSS - C. SGW - D. UE
UE
113
Which message initiates LTE call flow - A. Authentication Request and Info - B. Location Update Request - C. Session Request - D. Attach PDN Request
Attach PDN Request
114
What message does the MME send to the HSS during the LTE call flow for authentication? - A. Authentication Request and Info - B. Authentication Response - C. Security Mode Complete - D. Location Update Request
Authentication Request and Info
115
What message is sent from the HSS to the MME containing PDN subscription contexts during the LTE call flow? - A. Security Mode Complete - B. Location Update Request - C. Session Response - D. Authentication Response
Session Response
116
Which message does the Serving Gateway (SGXV) send to the Packet Gateway (PGV) to create a new entry in its EPS bearer context table during the LTE call flow? - A. Default Bearer Request - B. Session Request - C. Initial Context Setup Request - D. Default Bearer Response
Default Bearer Request
117
What message does the Packet Gateway (PGW) send to the Serving Gateway (SGW) during the LTE call flow to indicate the establishment of GPRS Tunneling Protocol for control (GTP-C) - A. Session Response - B. Initial Context Setup Request - C. Default Bearer Response - D. Security Mode Complete
Session Response
118
What information does the Default Bearer Response message from the PGW to the SGW contain during the LTE call - A. Security Mode Complete - B. PDN GW User Plane address, EPS Bearer Identity, and QoS - C. Location Update Request * D Authentication Request and Info
PDN GW User Plane address, EPS Bearer Identity, and QoS
119
What are the five main components of the 4G Mobile Core (Evolved Packet Core)? - A. HSS, SC,W, PGW, RAN, MME - B. MME, HSS, PCRF, SGW, PGW - C. SC,W, PGW, MME, PCRF, HSS - D. MME, HSS, SGW, PGW, PCRF
MME, HSS, SGW, PGW, PCRF
120
ln the 4G Mobile Core, what is the primary role of the Mobility Management Entity (MME)? - A. Forwards IP packets to and from the RAN - B. Manages policy rules and records billing data - C. Controls the high-level operation of the mobile and manages its movement - D. Connects the Mobile Core to the external Intemet
Controls the high-level operation of the mobile and manages its movement
121
Which component in the 4G Mobile Core is responsible for tracking and managing policy rules and records billing data on subscriber traffic? - A. PGW (Packet Gateway) - B. PCRF (Policy & Charging Rules Function) - C. SGW (Serving Gateway) - D. HSS (Home Subscriber Server)
PCRF (Policy & Charging Rules Function)
122
What are the two components that run in the User Plane (UP) in the 4G Mobile Core? - A. HSS and SGW - B. PCRF and MME - C. SGW and PGW - D. PGW and PCRF
SGW and PGW
123
Which component in the 4G Mobile Core is responsible for forwarding IP packets to and from the RAN and anchoring the Mobile Core end of the bearer service to a UE? - A. PGW (Packet Gateway) - B. SGW (Serving Gateway) - C. MME (Mobility Management Entity) - D. HSS (Home Subscriber Server)
SGW (Serving Gateway)
124
Which 4G Mobile Core component essentially serves as an IP router connecting the Mobile Core to the external Internet and supports access-related functions such as policy enforcement, traffic shaping, and charging? - A. SGW (Serving Gateway) - B. PGW (Packet Gateway) - C. MME (Mobility Management Entity) - D. PCRF (Policy & Charging Rules Function)
PGW (Packet Gateway)
125
What is the significance of the S/PGW combination in the 4G Mobile Core architecture? - A. It improves the performance of MME - B. It simplifies the User Plane components - C. It enhances the control plane signaling - D. It enables better integration with the RAN
It simplifies the User Plane components
126
What type of messages does the Random Access Preamble (RAP) represent in the LTE call flow? - A. Downlink data transmission - B. Uplink synchronization - C. Attach procedure initiation - D. Security mode command
Uplink synchronization
127
ln the LTE call flow, what does the Random Access Preamble Response (RAP Response) allow the UE to do? - A. Initiate the Attach procedure - B. Send further messages - C. Establish radio bearers - D. Begin downlink data transmission
Send further messages
128
What message is exchanged between the UE and eNodeB in the LTE call flow to establish the signaling radio bearer (SRB)? - A. Radio Resource Connection Setup (RRC Setup) - B. PDN Connectivity - C. Security Mode Complete - D. Default Bearer Request
Radio Resource Connection Setup (RRC Setup)
129
What information does the Attach PDN request message contain in the LTE call flow? - A. Uplink synchronization - B. RRC has been completed - C. Initiate the Attach procedure as non-access stratum (NAS) payload - D. PDN Connectivity request
Initiate the Attach procedure as non-access stratum (NAS) payload
130
Which information does the Authentication Request and Info messages contain in the LTE call flow? - A. PDN Connectivity Request - B. Security tuple with K-ASME, AUTN, XRES, and RAND - C. Uplink synchronization information - D. Attach PDN request
Security tuple with K-ASME, AUTN, XRES, and RAND
131
What is the purpose of the Security Mode Complete message in the LTE call - A. To initiate the Attach procedure - B. To establish the signaling radio bearer (SRB) - C. To send further messages - D. To confirm NAS ciphering and integrity protection
To confirm NAS ciphering and integrity protection
132
Which message contains information about the PDN GW User Plane address, PDN GW TEIDs User and Control Plane, EPS Bearer Identity, and QoS in the LTE call flow? - A. Session Response - B. Initial Context Setup Request - C. Default Bearer Response - D. Attach PDN Request
Default Bearer Response
133
What is the role of the Session Response message in the LTE call - A. Acknowledgment of the Attach procedure - B. Establishment of GTP-C tunnel - C. Creation of the signaling radio bearer (SRB) - D. Confirmation of NAS ciphering and integrity protection
Establishment of GTP-C tunnel
134
What does the Initial Context Setup Request message initiate in the LTE call flow? - A. Random Access Preamble Response - B. Attach PDN request - C PDN Connectivity - D. Creation of a GTP tunnel
Creation of a GTP tunnel
135
What is the main principle behind Intelligent Network (IN)? A. Centralizing intelligence within core network switches B. Separating intelligence from core network switches C. Distributing intelligence to the edge of the network D. Integrating intelligence into the telephone network
Separating intelligence from core network switches
136
What is the primary role of the Call Control Function (CCF) in the Intelligent Network (IN) architecture? - A. Establishing and releasing calls - B. Recognizing service control triggers - C. Managing service subscriptions - D. Providing database services
Establishing and releasing calls
137
Who is responsible for purchasing IN services from the network provider and providing them to service subscribers in the IN architecture? - A. Network Provider - B. Service Subscriber - C. Service Provider D. Calling Subscriber
Service Provider
138
ln the context of IN, what does SCF stand for? - A. Service Creation Function - B. Service Control Function - C. Service Switching Function - D. Special Resource Function
Service Control Function
139
What is the purpose of the Specialized Resource Function (SRF) - A. Managing call and connection handling - B. Handling signaling between CCF and SCF - C. Interacting with the calling party in the speech path - D. Creating and modifying network databases
Interacting with the calling party in the speech path
140
Which functional entity enables service developers to develop service logic and create and modify network databases in IN? - A. Service Switching Point (SSP) - B. Service Creation Environment Function (SCEF) - C. Service Control Point (SCP) - D. Service Management Function (SMF)
Service Creation Environment Function (SCEF)
141
ln the network structure of Intelligent Network (IN), where is the IN service control functionality (SCD located? - A. Within the GMSC Server - B. In a separate node in the network - C. Within the gsmSSF - D. Co-located with the SCP
In a separate node in the network
142
What is the primary function of the Intelligent Network Application Protocol (INAP) in IN? - A. Managing service subscriptions - B. Handling signaling between CCF and SCF - C. Interacting with the calling party in the speech path - D. Enabling communication between SSF and SCF
Enabling communication between SSF and SCF
143
What is the role Of the Service Creation Environment Function (SCEF) in - A. Establishing calls - B. Creating and modifying network databases - C. Handling signaling between CCF and SCF - D. Interacting with the calling party in the speech path
Creating and modifying network databases
144
What functionality does the Call Control Access Function (CCAF) provide in the Distributed Functional Plane of IN? - A. Managing call and connection handling - B. Creating and modifying network databases - C. Recognizing IN calls - D. Provisioning and managing services
Recognizing IN calls
145
Under what circumstances may the Temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity (TMSI) be updated in GSM? - A. During call setup - B. On entry to a new Location Area Identity (LAI) - C. On entry to a new Visitor Location Register (VLR) - D. All of the above
All of the above
146
What does the SIM card in GSM networks contain? - A. Subscriber-related information and algorithms A3 and A8 - B. Error correction algorithms - C. Location Area Identity (LAI) information - D. Temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity (TMSI) information
Subscriber-related information and algorithms A3 and A8
147
How is the encryption algorithm and key synchronized in GSM networks? - A. Through the use of Location Area Identity (LAT) B. By updating the Temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity (TMSI) - C. With the hyper-frame counter - D. Using the Vemam Cipher algorithm (A5)
With the hyper-frame counter
148
What is the primary function of the Ciphering Start Procedure in GSM networks? - A. To activate frequency hopping - B. To synchronize encryption keys - C. To deliver the cipher mask to the mobile station - D. To initiate the encryption process
To synchronize encryption keys
149
What does the System Information Retrieval Function (SIRI) provide in the Lawful Interception (LI) architecture? - A. Intercept-related information - B. Communication content - C. System-related information for Network Functions (NFS) - D. Cipher masks for encryption
System-related information for Network Functions (NFS)
150
Which function delivers the Intercept Related Information (IRI) messages to the Law Enforcement Monitoring Facility (LEMO in the LI architecture? - A. Administration Function (ADMI) - B. Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF2) - C. Point of Interception (POI) - D. Triggering Function (TD
Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF2)
151
What is the primary responsibility of the Law Enforcement Agency (LEA) in the LI architecture? - A. Delivering IRI messages to the LEMF - B. Triggering POIS in response to network events - C. Submitting the warrant to the CSPs - D. Providing encryption algorithms for LI
Submitting the warrant to the CSPs
152
Which entity in the LI architecture is responsible for detecting target communications and delivering the POI output to the Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF)? - A. Administration Function (ADMF) - B. Triggering Function CTF) - C. Point of Interception (POI) - D. Law Enforcement Agency (LEA)
Point of Interception (POI)
153
What does the Triggering Function TF) do in the Lawful Interception (LI) architecture? A. Delivers Communication Content (CC) to the Law Enforcement Monitoring Facility (LEMF) B. Indicates the Ciphering Start Procedure C. Submits the warrant to the Communications Service Provider (C.SP) D. Triggers Points of Interception (POIS) in response to events
Triggers Points of Interception (POIS) in response to events
154
What does the Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF3) generate and deliver to the Law Enforcement Monitoring Facility (LEMF) in the LI architecture? - A. Intercept Related Information (IRI) - B. Cipher masks - C. Communication Content (CC) - D. System-related information
Communication Content (CC)
155
Which entity provides administrative and management functions for the Lawful Interception (LI) capability in the LI architecture? - A. Point of Interception (POI) - B. System Information Retrieval Function (SIRF) - C. Administration Function (ADMF) - D. Triggering Function (TF)
Administration Function (ADMF)
156
What is the purpose of the System Information Retrieval Function (SIRF) in the LI architecture? - A. Delivering IRI messages to the LEMF - B. Providing encryption algorithms for LI - C. Offering system-related information for Network Functions (NFS) - D. Triggering Points of Interception (POIs)
Offering system-related information for Network Functions (NFS)
157
How does the Lawful Interception (LI) architecture in mobile networks address the delivery of Communication Content (CC) to the Law Enforcement Monitoring Facility - A. %rough the Administration Function (ADMF) - B. By triggering Points of Interception (POIS) - C. Via the Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF3) - D. Using the System Information Retrieval Function (SIRF)
Via the Mediation and Delivery Function (MDF3)
158
What does UMTS AKA provide in 3G - A. Encry'ption of signaling over the air - B. Authentication and Key Agreement - C. Frequency hopping capabilities - D. Synchronization of encryption keys
Authentication and Key Agreement
159
How are HURs (High Usage Reports) related to Intenational roaming? - A. They indicate network errors - B. They measure registration success - C. They are used to detect suspected fraud - D. They represent signal strength
They are used to detect suspected fraud