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KA-400 > Power Plant > Flashcards

Power Plant Flashcards

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1
Q

Thrust ratings

A

B1F - 57,900
B5F - 61,100
PW - 57,100

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2
Q

Which engine sections drives the accesroy gear box?

A

N2

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3
Q

How many igniters do the engines have?

A

2

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4
Q

How is the starter powered?

A

Pneumatically

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5
Q

What is the EEC?

A

Electronic Engine Control

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6
Q

If a center DU fails what will be displayed on the operative DU?

A

Primary EICAS

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7
Q

T/F: The N1 and N2 rotors are mechanically Independent.

A

True

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8
Q

The N2 Rotor Drives the __________.

A

Accessory Gearbox

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9
Q

Each engines ignition system has ____________ igniter(s).

A

2

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10
Q

Thrust levers are automatically positioned by the auto-throttles system or ____________.

A

Manually by the Pilots

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11
Q

What are the primary engine indications?

A

N1 and EGT

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12
Q

When will the secondary engine display be displayed automatically in flight?

A

Any fuel switch is moved to cutoff

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13
Q

When are EGT indications inhibited from changing color?

A

During takeoff and go-around for 5 minutes after the TO/GA switch is pressed.

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14
Q

What does a red box around a engine parameter indicate?

A

An engine parameter was exceeded but returned to normal

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15
Q

What does a magenta oil quantity indicate?

A

Low oil quantity or oil quantity differential is detected

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16
Q

What does the Command N1 indicator display?

A

Commanded N1 based on thrust lever position

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17
Q

N1 and EGT are ___________ indications.

A

Primary

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18
Q

When any Fuel Control Switch is moved to the CUTOFF position the __________ will automatically pop-up if not displayed.

A

Secondary Engine Indications Display

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19
Q

T/F: Primary EICAS ALWAYS has priority.

A

True

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20
Q

What is the route of fuel into the engine?

A

Spar Fuel Valve >
First Stage Pump >
Second Stage Pump >
Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger >
Fuel Filter >
Fuel Metering Unit >
Engine Fuel Valve

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21
Q

What closes when the fuel cutoff switch is closed?

A

The engine fuel valve, fuel metering valve, and spar valve?

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22
Q

Where is fuel flow measured?

A

Past the engine fuel valve

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23
Q

After leaving the fuel tank the fuel for each engine passes through what valve first?

A

Spar Fuel Valve

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24
Q

T/F: A fuel Filter removes the contaminants before fuel goes through the Engine Fuel Valve.

A

True

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25
T/F: During Autostart the fuel metering valve is additionally controlled by the EEC.
True
26
What is the flow of the engine oil system?
Reservoir> Oil Pump> Engine> Scavenge pump > Fuel/ Oil Heat Exchanger> Oil Filter > Reservoir
27
Where is oil pressure measured?
Upstream of the engine
28
Where is oil temperature measured?
Downstream of the engine
29
During cruise when will oil quantity display?
Whenever oil quantity on one engine differs from any other engine by a predetermined amount.
30
What could cause an increase in oil quantity?
Indicator malfunction or leaking fuel/oil heat exchanger
31
The oil is cooled as it flows through the _____/_____ heat exchanger.
Fuel, Oil
32
Oil Temperature is measured __________ of the engine.
Downstream
33
T/F: During Cruise oil quantity displays on the EICAS whenever oil quantity on the engine differs from any other engine by a predetermined amount.
True
34
The engine starter motors are _______ controlled and ________ powered.
Electrically, Pneumatically
35
What can power the engine start motor?
APU HP ground air Another Engine
36
How many igniters are normally used for ground start? Air Start?
1 ground 2 air
37
What powers the ignitors with the standby ignition selector in NORM?
AC Power
38
What powers the ignitors with the standby ignition selector in 1 or 2?
The Standby power system and the igniters will be powered continuously
39
With the AUTP ignition selector in Single how will the igniters functions on the ground? In Flight?
Ground: Igniter will alternate after every start Air: Both with ignite for air start or flameout
40
When will ignition automatically occur on an engine?
-During start when the Start switch is out and the N2 RPM is less than 50%, -Anytime the engine Nacelle anti-ice is ON -An engine flameout is detected
41
When will ignition automatically occur on all engines?
-The trailing edge flaps are out of the up position -The Continuous Ignition switch is ON.
42
When is continuous ignition required?
-Moderate to heavy rain -Hail or sleet -Moderate to severe turbulence -Flight through volcanic ash -Upon entering icing conditions.
43
What does the Fuel On Command indicate?
The minimum N2 the Fuel Control Switch should be moved to RUN in a manual start
44
What does pulling the engine start switch do, during an autostart?
Arms the start valve and opens engine bleed air valve
45
What does selecting a fuel control switch to RUN do, during an auto start?
Opens the spar fuel valve, engine fuel valve, and EEC will initiate auto start sequence.
46
When will the START switch release?
at 50% N2
47
What is the EEC monitoring during engine auto start?
EGT and N2
48
When will the EEC abort an Auto-start?
Hot-Start Hung Start No EGT Rise
49
What happens if there is not light off during the first auto-start attempt?
The auto-start system will purge the fuel and make another start attempt.
50
How many start attempt will the EEC make during an auto-start?
3
51
What happens if a hot or hung start is detected before starter cutout?
The auto-start system provides corrective action and up to three start attempts are made. The engine is motored for 30 seconds before the start and bleed air valves close.
52
What happens if a hot or hung start is detected after starter cutout?
The auto-start aborts all start attempts and the engine is not motored.
53
In flight what will display if a fuel control switch is moved to cutoff?
In-flight start envelope on primary EICAS and the secondary EICAS will be displayed
54
What does the EICAS In-flight Start envelope display?
Airspeed range ton ensure engine start at current flight level. If current altitude is above max start altitude the max altitude will be displayed.
55
In-flight what does a magenta "X-BLD" next to the shutdown engine N2 indicate?
That a cross-bleed of pneumatic air is necessary to operate the starter
56
How is an in-flight autostart normally initiated?
By moving the fuel control switch to ON with the AUTOSTART system ON
57
How is an in-flight autostart initiated with X-BLD displayed?
By pulling the start switch
58
How many attempts will the auto start system make in-flight?
No limit
59
How is a flameout detected?
Rapid decrease in N2 or N2 is below idle
60
What does pulling the engine start switch do, during a manual start?
Opens start and engine bleed air valves
61
What does moving the fuel control switch to RUN do, during a manual start?
spar valve, fuel metering, and engine fuel valves to open and the selected igniter energizes.
62
The Fuel On Indicator displays the minimum _______ at which the fuel control switch should be moved to RUN during the manual start
N2
63
What powers the EEC?
Aircraft electrical system or An alternator on the accessory gearbox
64
When is maximum thrust availble?
Any time by moving thrust levers to full forward
65
What happens when an EEC transfers to alternate mode?
The Auto-throttle will disconnect
66
How can the auto-throttles be re-engaged after an EEC switches to alternate mode?
By selecting all EECs to alternate mode
67
When manually selecting EEC alternate mode what is a concern with thrust?
It will increase so the respective thrust lever must be reduced prior to switching to alternate mode
68
When will the EEC select approach idle in flight?
-Nacelle anti—ice is ON, -Flaps are in landing position, or -Continuous Ignition switch is ON.
69
When does the EEC provide overspeed protection?
In normal or alternate
70
How does the EEC prevent overspeed?
By commanding the fuel metering unit to reduce fuel flow
71
T/F: An engine will not operate without the associated EEC operating.
True
72
Both Normal and Alternate modes of the EEC use _____ RPM as the controlling parameter for setting thrust.
N1
73
T/F: The Alternate Mode does not provide the engine protection of limiting the thrust at maximum N1.
True
74
T/F: The EEC provides over-speed protection for the N1 and N2 in Normal mode but not Alternate mode.
False
75
T/F: The Thrust Reverse System is only available for operation on the ground.
True
76
If an engine is not running the thrust reverser can or cannot operate?
Cannot
77
T/F: While the Reverser deployment is in transit the Reverse Thrust Lever is locked in the Interlock position.
True
78
The Thrust Levers can only be moved forward after ________.
The reverse thrust levers are fully down
79
What are the four vibration sources?
Fan LPT (Low Pressure Turbine) N2 BB (Broad Band)
80
What BB in the engine vibration?
Broad Band, displayed when the source can not be detected
81
What are ways airframe vibration can be reduced?
Descending or reducing airspeed
82
There are _____ possible sources for engine vibration.
4
83
T/F: Transitioning from Cruise to Landing; there can be multiple regions of altitudes and airspeeds where vibration levels can become severe.
True
84
Generally if descending and reducing airspeed does not help or worsens the vibrations. What may help?
Slight Increase in airspeed

KA-400 (33 decks)

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