PPL EXAM PREP Flashcards

(248 cards)

0
Q

Unless what conditions have passed, can a private pilot take passengers up?

A

3 take offs and landings either dual or solo in previous 90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

How long after a blood donation can you fly?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is pilot in command responsible for?

A

Start, continuation, diversion and end of flight
Operation and safety of aircraft during flight
Safety of persons and cargo on plane
Conduct and safety of members of crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What documents are required for flight within Australia?

A

Maintenance release
Licence and medical of operating crew
Flight manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What conditions can you carry a dog?

A

Carried in passenger cabin of aircraft
Placed on moisture absorbent mat
Restrained in such a way that prevent dog from moving off mat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

During refuelling, the aircraft and ground fuelling equipment must be how far away?

A
5m sealed building
6m stationary aircraft
15m exposed public areas
15m unsealed building (mtow >5700)
9m unsealed building
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An aircraft shall not be started or operated within?

A

5m sealed building
8m other aircraft
15m exposed public area
8 metres unsealed building

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At what height can you fly over populous area?

A

1000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What defines an ‘overtaking’ aircraft?

A

Approach from the rear on line forming angle less than 70 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What instruments are required for flights under vfr?

A

Airspeed indicating system
Altimeter
Direct reading magnetic compass
Timepiece

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What tolerances must be applied in class e or g airspace?

A

0-2000 agl plus/minus 1nm
2001-5000 agl plus/minus 2nm
5001-10000 agl plus/minus 4nm
100001/ FL 200 plus/minus 8nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How much holding fuel do you need with an INTER.?

A

30minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How much holding fuel do you need with a TEMPO?

A

60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you convert from east standard time to UTC?

A

Subtract 10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Convert central standard time to UTC.

A

Minus 9.5 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Convert western standard time to UTC

A

Subtract 8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does CAVOK mean?

A

Visibility of 10km or more
Nil significant cloud (no cloud below 5000ft)
Nil significant weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How often are routine reports (METAR) issued?

A

Hourly or half hourly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How often are special reports (SPECI) made?

A

When conditions fluctuate or below specified criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a weather report by pilots called?

A

AIREP SPECIAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When shall life jackets be equipped on aircraft?

A

Single engine-over water and distance from land greater than that which would allow the aircraft to reach land with engine inoperative
Multi engine-greater than 50nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When shall life rafts be carried on board?

A

Flown over water at a distance greater than permitted distance (30mins normal cruise speed or 100nm whichever is less)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What shall the PIC ensure passengers are briefed on?

A
Smoking
Use and adjustment of seat belts
Location of emergency exits
Use of floatation devices
Use of O2 where applicable 
Stowage of hand luggage
Presence of survival equipment if applicable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When do you require an ELT?

A

Before undertaking a flight greater than 50nm from aerodrome of departure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
What are the exceptions to requirements of ELT?
Flights within 50nm of aerodrome of departure Aerial agriculture flight Casa approval If flight is for purpose of moving aircraft to place where ELT is to be installed, repaired or overhauled Entry has been made in log book
25
What is CTAF.
Frequency which pilots at non towered aerodrome to make positional broadcasts
26
When should turns onto final be completed by?
Not less than 500ft above aerodrome elevation
27
What are the cruise levels for magnetic track?
0-179 degrees odd 1000s plus 500 (1500,3500,5500,7500) | 180-359 degrees evens plus 500 (2500,4500,6500,8500)
28
In class d, what is distance from cloud horizontal and vertically?
600m horizontally | 1000ft above 500ft below
29
How long is a class 1 medical valid for?
1 year
30
How long is a class 2 medical valid for?
``` 4 years (less than 40) 2 years (greater than 40) ```
31
A pilot must not fly if consumption of drugs or alcohol impairs capacity to act as PIC, true or false?
True
32
What is the permitted BAC.
0.02%
33
How long do you need to wait to fly after gastro?
At least 72 hours
34
What are some symptoms of hypoxia?
Impaired judgement Tingling cyanosis (blue) fingers, toes, lips Poor muscle control
35
What is the useful consciousness for pilot and person sitting quietly at 20000, 25000 and 30000ft?
Ft. Pilot. Sitting 20000. 10 mins. 20 mins 25000. 3mins. 5 mins 30000. 1mins. 3mins
36
What will happen to carbon monoxide detector in presence of carbon monoxide?
It will turn black.
37
At what g force will a pilot usually grey out?
3.5-4.5 g's
38
At what g force will you black out?
5 g's
39
How long should a pilot not fly for after scuba diving without decompression stops?
4 hours
40
How long should a pilot wait for after scuba diving less than. 4 hours with decompression stops?
12 hours
41
How long should a pilot wait foR after scuba diving for more than 4 hours with decompression stops?
48 hours
42
What is the recommended db level for wearing hearing protection?
80db
43
What is a threat?
Situation or event that has potential to negatively impact on safety of flight or any influence that promotes opportunity for pilot error Occurs outside influence of crew Anticipate, unexpected, latent, internal or external Eg weather, traffic, weight and balance, high terraign, density altitude, runway length
44
What are errors?
Flight crew actions or inactions that lead to deviation from crew or organisation intentions or expectations, reduce safety margins and increase probability of adverse operations on ground or inflight. Can be handling, procedural or communicational
45
What are your priorities in survival situation?
Protection Location Water Food
46
What is the chord line?
Straight line between leading edge and trailing edge.
47
What is the relative airflow?
Opposite to direct of path or aircraft
48
What is the angle of attack?
Angle between chord line and relative airflow
49
What is chamber?
Curvature of aerofoil
50
What does increasing the camber of aerofoil do?
Cause airflow over it to accelerate more generating more lift at same angle of attack
51
What happens as angle of attack increases?
Lift increases Speed decreases Airflow becomes turbulent Centre of pressure moves forward
52
What happens as angle of attack goes past stall angle?
Centre of pressure moves rearwards | Pitch couple increases
53
What is the tendency of banking during climb?
Over banking during climb due to increase speed and angle of attack on outer wing
54
What is the tendency of bank in descent?
Under bank in descent due to increased inner wing angle of attack
55
What is adverse aileron yaw and what causes it?
Tendency of aircraft to yaw out of turn | Caused by induced drag on down going aileron
56
How is adverse yaw minimised?
``` Fries ailerons (offset hinges) Differential ailerons (up going aileron goes higher than down going) ```
57
What is the load factor formulas?
Lift divided by weight 1/cos bank angle
58
What is the stall speed banked formula?
Stall speed / square root cos bank angle
59
What happens in a spin?
Down going wing stalls first as has larger angle of attack Up going wing not completely stalled Rolls due to lift plus secondary affect of yaw
60
How do we get true airspeed?
IAS corrected for instrument and pressure error gives CAS CAS correct for compressibility error give EAS EAS corrected for density error gives TAS
61
What is a rate one turn?
180 degrees in 1 minute 360 degrees in 2 minutes 3 degrees per second
62
What is the formula for angle of bank?
10% speed plus 7 = angle of bank (degrees)
63
What will increasing weight have on radius and rate of turn?
Increase weight will increase lift, TAS and radius of turn but decrease rate of turn
64
What will decreasing TAS have on radius and rate of turn?
Decrease TAS will decrease radius of turn and increase rate of turn
65
What affect will doubling the TAS have on radius of turn?
4times turn radius
66
What will increase angle of bank have on radius and rate of turn?
Increase angle of bank will decrease radius of turn and increase rate of turn
67
What affect will decreasing angle of bank have on radius and rate of turn?
Decreasing angle of bank will increase radius of turn and decrease rate of turn
68
What is maximum range?
Speed which produces minimum drag | Least power required for greatest TAS
69
What affect will head wing have on glide?
Decrease glide distance, no change to endurance
70
What affect will tail wind have on glide range?
Increase range, no change to endurance
71
What is maximum endurance?
Minimum power fuel consumption minimum
72
Along which axis is longitudinal stability?
Lateral axis (pitch)
73
Along which axis is lateral stability?
Longitudinal axis ( roll)
74
Along which axis is directional stability?
Normal axis (yaw)
75
Forward or rear centre of gravity will increase stability?
Forward
76
How is lateral stability increased?
Dihedral wings | Sweep back wings
77
When is wake turbulence greatest?
Heavy aircraft, slow with gear and flaps up
78
What is the connecting rod?
Forms a link between piston and cylinder
79
What is a crank shaft?
Changes straight line motion of piston into rotary turning motion required for prop
80
What is a camshaft?
Provides timing sequence for intake and exhaust valves
81
What are the cycles of combustion?
Intake -piston down drawing in air/fuel mixture Compression -piston up compressing air/fuel Combustion-spark ignites mixture and pressure forces piston down Exhaust-piston forced up barrel expelling spent gas
82
In the 4 stroke cycle, how man revs of he crank shaft are produced?
2
83
What is the stichcometric ratio?
15 parts air to 1 part fuel 8: 1 rich 20: 1 lean
84
What affect does slightly rich mixture have on engine?
No great effect on power, excess fuel aids in cooling engine
85
What effect does slightly lean mixture have in power and engine?
Reduces power as not all air used and engine temperature increases
86
What happens to engine performance as altitude and temperature increase?
Density decreases resulting in lower engine performance
87
What is detonation and its symptoms?
Spontaneous explosive combustion Caused by high CHT, expired fuel and incorrect (low) fuel grade. Symptoms include high and increasing CHT, significant power loss, engine vibrating and pinging sound in engine
88
How do you rectify detonation?
Mixture rich, reduce power
89
What is pre ignition and its symptoms?
Fuel air mixture ignites before spark plugs fire Caused by hot spots in cylinder (lead deposits) and high power with lean mixture Symptoms include rough running, back firing and high CHT
90
How do you rectify pre ignition?
Mixture rich, reduce power
91
What type of engines is AVGAS used in?
Piston engines
92
What colour is 100/130 AVGAS?
Green
93
What colour is 100LL AVGAS?
Blue
94
What engines is AVTUR used in?
Jet engines
95
What colour is AVTUR?
Clear/straw
96
What colour is MOGAS?
Red
97
What would occur if there was no fuel vent?
Fuel would be unable to enter lines
98
What does the fuel vent allow?
Air to flow into tank to replace fuel used
99
When is carburettor ice likely to occur?
OAT is less than 20 degrees and humidity approx 80%
100
What is impact ice?
Temperature of components falls below zero and supercooled water droplets freeze on impact with these surfaces
101
What is evaporation ice?
As temperature decreases due to vaporisation of fuel, if there is water vapour in air, it will freeze to form ice
102
What is throttle ice?
When operating at part throttle, as air accelerates over partially closed butterfly valve, it's accelerated causing pressure drop and temp drop encourages ice to form
103
What does carby heat do?
Prevents and/or removes carby ice | Directs hot unfiltered air from exhaust
104
What is secondary effect if carby heat?
alternate air in emergency
105
Why should prolonged use of carby heat be avoided?
Unfiltered air into engine | Reduction of power
106
What is the main disadvantage of fuel injection system?
Prone to vapour lock
107
What is the casa maximum and minimum amount of oil?
5-8 quartz
108
What is the maximum and minimum pressure for oil?
45-90psi
109
Where does the sum of all lifting forces act through?
Centre of pressure
110
What is propeller torque?
Acts opposite motion of propeller blades
111
What is engine torque?
Acts to overcome propeller torque and allows prop to rotate
112
What happens when engine and propeller torque are equal?
RPM is constant
113
What happens when engine torque is greater than prop torque?
RPM will increase
114
What happens when engine torque is less then prop torque?
RPM decreases
115
At constant RPM, what happens to angle of attack as TAS increase?
Angle of attack decreases
116
At constant RPM, what happens to angle of attack as TAS decreases?
Angle of attack increases
117
At constant TAS, what happens to angle of attack on the prop as RPM increases?
Angle of attack on prop increases
118
At constant TAS, what happens to angle of attack in prop as RPM decreases?
Angle of attack on prop decreases
119
What is aerodynamic twisting moment?
Force attempts to twist blades towards coarse pitch
120
What is centrifugal moment?
Natural tendency for rotating body to align with plane of rotation, attempt to twist to fine pitch. Stronger than ATM
121
What does the governor do?
Maintains constant prop speed and therefore constant RPM. Done by changing blade angle through speeder springs and flywheels
122
What does the McCauley system do?
Relies on oil pressure to move props to coarse pitch. Assisted by spring to return prop to fine. Loss in oil pressure will result in fine pitch stop
123
What does the Hartzell system do?
Relies on oil pressure to move prop to fine pitch. Counter weight to move to coarse pitch. Loss in oil pressure cause the coarse pitch stop.
124
What happens if the speeder spring fails?
Fly weights fling outward, governor sense overspend and blades coarsen. Result large RPM drop
125
Why is battery kept well ventilated?
To prevent buildup of hydrogen gas.
126
What does the centre zero amenter do?
Measures current to and from battery
127
What does the left zero ammeter do?
Measures alternator output?
128
What does a positive output on centre zero ammeter mean?
Current into battery is charge, normal with engine running
129
What does a negative output mean on centre zero ammeter mean?
Current out of battery is discharge, normal when engine is not running
130
What does excessive positive output on centre zero ammeter mean?
Battery is not holding charge
131
What does excessive negative output mean on centre zero ammeter?
Alternator has failed.
132
How long does standby battery supply power for?
Approximately 30 mins to essential bus
133
What is a fuse?
Thin wire that melts if current too high.
134
What is a circuit breaker?
Spring to separate line if too much current sensed. Once cooled you can reset but not more than once
135
If left magneto is engaged, what is happening.
Left is engaged, right is earthed
136
Which instruments run off vacuum driven gyro?
AH and DG
137
What instruments run off electric driven gyro?
Turn coordinator
138
If the static tube is blocked, what happens to VSI, ALT and ASI on climb?
VSI - 0 ALT - under read, constant ASI - under read
139
If the static tube is blocked, what will happen to VSI, ALT and ASI on descend?
VSI - 0 ALT - over read, constant ASI - over read
140
If QNH is set as 1017 when it is actually 1005, at 3500 what is actually height?
1017-1005=12 12x30=360ft 3500+360=3860ft actual height
141
What are the compass errors?
Apparent turn to South when accelerating (east or west heading) Apparent turn to North when decelerating (east or west heading) Doesn't occur when heading is north or south
142
What are the turning errors?
Overshoot north by 30 degrees Undershoot south by 30 degrees Maximum when turning north and south headings Minimum when East or west headings.
143
What direction are all circuit patterns unless otherwise specified by ATC or ersa?
Left hand circuits
144
If departing from non towered aerodrome, contrary to circuit direction when should turns be commenced?
1500ft AGL or 3nm
145
An aircraft must not commence takeoff until preceding aircraft has?
Crossed upwind end of runway Commenced turn If runway longer 1800m, airborne and 1800m ahead If both <2000kg, preceding airborne and 600m ahead Vacated and taxing away Crossed or stopped short runway
146
An aircraft must not continue approach to land until?
Preceding aircraft us airborne and commenced turn and/or beyond point runway which landing aircraft could land, roll and manoeuvre safely. Preceding aircraft vacated and taxing away Preceding aircraft crossed or stopped short
147
What is the minimum height for aerobatics?
3000ft above heighest obstruction with radius of 600m
148
If flying outside Australia, what additional documentation do you require?
Certificate of registration Certificate of airworthiness Radio licence List of names, placed of embarkation and destination for passengers
149
What separation will ATC provide for wake turbulence?
Parallel runways less than 760m apart and when aircraft behind and same level or 1000m below
150
How many fire extinguishers do we need and how far away?
2 within 15m but not less than 6m
151
Can fire extinguishers be carried on refuelling equipment?
Yes only if: Quick release brackets Available either side As as far as practicable from fuelling points
152
What does white cone with red stripe mean?
Unserviceable area
153
What does yellow cone with red stripe mean?
Parking area
154
What does yellow cone mean?
Taxiway
155
What does blue cone mean?
Helicopter manuerving area
156
What does white gable marker mean?
Edge of runway
157
What does yellow gable marker mean?
Used along taxiway
158
What classes of airspace is VMC in?
C/E, D and G
159
When should you plan to land before last light?
10mins before
160
Avoiding CTA,
0-2000ft agl plus/minus 1nm 2001-5000 plus/minus 2nm 5001/10000 plus/minus 4
161
What is QNH?
Pressure at mean sea level, pressure below 10000ft
162
What do you use if local QNH is unknown?
Area forecast QNH, valid for 3 hours
163
When asked by the ATC to change level, when must this be commenced by and what rate?
Commenced no later than a minute after being asked | No less than 500ft/minute but last 1000 must be at 500ft/minute
164
When are you required to make a transmission on CTAF?
``` Prior to 10nm inbound Before joining circuit Final approach Departing circuit In vicinity of aerodrome Before taxi Entering runway ```
165
What must you be/done to gain a PPL.
``` 17 years old Hold flight radio ops licence Pass in ppl theory Pass in ppl flight test 40 hours, 5pic, 5 cross country 2IF one flight greater 150nm 1 full stop and 1 touch and go from 2 or more aerodromes ```
166
How long before needing to see a dame can ppl be sick?
30 days
167
When are you required to check fuel?
Before commenced of each days flight and immediately after refuelling
168
When are seat belts required to be worn?
``` Take offs and landings Instrument approach Less than 1000ft In turbulence By one pilot all times ```
169
What is the maximum weight of cargo that can be placed on seat?
77kg
170
2 children may occupy one seat if?
Combined weight less than 77 | Seated side by side and lapstrap only
171
From what heights is temperature assumed to be constant -56.7
36090 to 65617
172
At what heights is temp assumed to rise by 1degree per 1000ft?
65617-104987
173
What heights are polar and tropical tropopause?
25000 and 60000 ft
174
At 5000ft AMSL, what is approximate hPa?
845
175
What does more dense air do?
Generates more lift at lower speed
176
What is convection?
Air that is heated at earth surface which will expand becoming less dense carrying best higher into atmosphere
177
What is advection?
Horizontal motion of air, aka wind
178
What is sea breeze?
Hot surface air rises and cool air from sea flows towards land in place of warmed air. Greatest mid arvo
179
What is land breeze?
Warm air rises from water, at night land cools quicker.
180
What is katabatic wind?
Cool parcel of air sinks down mountain slope, forms at night, strongest at dawn. Forms on high plateau sloping down terraign in clear skies and relative warm surrounding air.
181
What is anabatic winds?
Wind blowing up sloping terrain during arvo. Mainly in westward facing slopes
182
What is fohn wind?
Warmer drier sur on lee side of mountain. High moist air rising up mountain range with high dew point temperature.
183
What are low level jet streams?
High pressure system circulating anti clockwise Crowds isobars together, meaning high wind speed. Greatest west of divining range in winter at dawn From south over plain
184
What conditions are associated with stable?
High pressure system Cloud at great heights Poor visibility Smooth
185
What conditions are associated with unstable?
Low pressure system Turbulence Showery rain if precipitation Good visibility between showers
186
Which clouds are rain bearing clouds?
Cumulonimbus, ice risk, turbulence in and below
187
What is fog?
Visibility below 1000m Nil turbulence or ice Humidity 100%
188
What is mist?
Visibility not below 1000m | Humidity approx 95%
189
Hw far away can you experience severe changes in wind speed and direction in thunderstorm?
10miles
190
What is frontal turbulence and how is it marked on synoptic chart?
Result of winds hear | Triangle
191
Which direction does global circulation move in summer?
South
192
Which direction does global circulation move in winter?
Moves north
193
What are isobars?
Lines at join equal pressure | Indicates pressure fields
194
What is a ridge?
High pressure finger | Wind turns to left
195
What is a trough?
Low pressure finger | Wind turns to right
196
What is a col?
Area between two highs and two lows | Wind light and variable
197
What do closely spaced isobars mean?
Strong winds
198
What does well spaced isobars mean?
Light winds
199
Which direction do pressure gradient turn?
Right angle to isobar
200
When flying towards high pressure system, which direction will wind be?
From left
201
When flying towards a low, which direction. Will wind be from?
From right
202
Over land, surface winds drop by how much?
2/3 and veers 30 degrees
203
Over sea surface winds drop by how much?
By 1/3 and veers 10 degrees
204
What is rime ice and what clouds will it form in?
Frail and brittle ice formed when supercooled droplets collide with leading edge. Formed in altostratus and altocumulus
205
What effect does rime ice have on performance?
Reduce lift | Increase drag requiring greater angle of attack
206
What is clear ice and what clouds and temps does it form?
Freezing rain spread across taking longer to freeze. 5 to -15 degrees Forms in thick altostratus and altocumulus clouds
207
What affect does hoar frost have on aircraft?
Increase drafts decrease stall angle of attack and increase stall speed
208
What is a cold front marked by on synoptic chart?
Triangle towards direction of travel
209
What conditions may accompany cold front?
Thunderstorm, sever turbulence and wind shear
210
What conditions may accompany a warm front?
Rain and snow
211
What is the cloud height in area forecast?
Above mean sea level
212
What is low level jet stream and what direction is wind from?
High pressure system, circulating anti clockwise | From south
213
What is Va?
Manoeuvring speed, speeds above with full elevator deflection may cause airframe damage.
214
What is Vb?
Turbulence penetration speed, loads imposed vertical gusts at 3000 ft/min
215
What is formula for pressure height?
PH = elevation + (1013-QNH)x30
216
What is ISA temperature?
15 - (ph x 2 / 1000)
217
What is density height?
DH = PH + (ISA deviation x 120)
218
What are ambient conditions?
Atmospheric pressure, temperature and wind at aerodrome with in period 15 mins preceding takeoff
219
What is take off safety speed?
Not less than 1.2VS1 | Gives climb performance 6% gear down out of ground effect
220
What is approach speed?
Not less than 1.3 Vso
221
What does an increased temperature do to performance?
Increased Temp decreases take off performance
222
What does a decrease in QNH do to take off performance?
Decrease in QNH decreases take off performance
223
What does an increase in elevation do to take off performance?
Decreases take off performance
224
What does an increase in humidity do to take off performance?
Decrease take off performance
225
What does an overweight aircraft do to stall speed, climb performance and take off distance?
Increase stall speed Poorer climb performance Increase tasked off distance
226
A 1485 m long runway with tree 200m south, 22m tall. Is this an obstacle, if so how far do we need to move it?
200/20 + 30 = 40 As 40>0 it is inside the splay. 22m/20 = 10 As 10<12 we are in danger of hitting tree. 12-10=2 2x20=40 Must move it by 40m
227
1minute of latitude is equal to now many nm?
1nm
228
1 degree of latitude is equal to how many nm?
60nm
229
All charts are in reference to what? True or magnetic?
True north, we need to convert to magnetic
230
What is fixed reserve?
Fixed number of gallons or litres to be added for flight to be conducted safely
231
What is variable reserve?
Fixed percentage, usually 15% fuel to be increased by
232
How do we find QNH at aerodrome with known elevation?
Set elevation in altimeter and check subscale
233
What are levels measured from local QNH?
Altitudes
234
What are levels measured from 1013 datum?
Flight levels
235
What is the highest altitude we can fly at?
A100
236
What is the lowest flight level?
FL110
237
How do you calculate time?
Distance divided by ground speed times by 60
238
How do you calculate rate of climb?
Climb distance divided by time
239
What is track error formula?
60 divided by distance travelled x distance off track
240
What is CA formula?
60 divided by distance to go x distance off track
241
What is the formula for heading to intercept?
TE + CA
242
What are the errors for NDB?
``` Co channel interference Coastal refraction Thunderstorm effect Mountain effect Night effect Quadrant error ```
243
What are VOR errors?
``` Vertical polarisation Terraign effect Airborne equipment Aggregate error Ground station error Site effect ```
244
With 1013 set on subscale an altimeter will indicate?
Pressure altitude
245
Imaginary plane in aircraft which measures of arm are taken is called?
Datum
246
With regards to power setting what is true in regards to mixture and power?
Highest airspeed is attained with best power setting
247
What is an indicator of vapour lock?
Fluctuating fuel pressure indicator