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Which of the following techniques would be the most appropriate solution to implementing a multi-factor authentication system?
A. Fingerprint and retinal scan
B. Password and security question
C. Smartcard and PIN
D. Username and password
C. Smartcard and PIN
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) creates multiple security layers to help increase the confidence that the user requesting access is who they claim to be by requiring two distinct factors for authentication. These factors can be something you know (knowledge factor), something you have (possession factor), something you are (inheritance factor), something you do (action factor), or somewhere you are (location factor). By selecting a smartcard (something you have) and a PIN (something you know), you have implemented multi-factor authentication. Choosing a fingerprint and retinal scan would instead use only one factor (inheritance). Choosing a username, password, and security question would also be only using one factor (knowledge). For something to be considered multi-factor, you need items from at least two different authentication factor categories: knowledge, possession, inheritance, location, or action.
A network technician is responsible for the basic security of the network. Management has asked if there is a way to improve the level of access users have to the company file server. Right now, any employee can upload and download files with basic system authentication (username and password). What should he configure to increase security?
A. Kerberos authentication
B. MDS authentication
C. Multi-factor authentication
D. Single sign-on authentication
C. Multi-factor authentication
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: This security approach provides a defense layer that makes it difficult for unauthorized users to break into a system. It provides multiple factors that a user must know to obtain access. For instance, if one factor is successfully broken, there will be few others that the individual attempting to enter the system must overcome.
You have just concluded a two-month engagement that targeted Dion Training’s network. You have a detailed list of findings and have prepared your report for the company. Which of the following reasons explains why you must keep your report confidential and secure?
A. The findings included may contain company intellectual property
B. The findings contain privileged information about their customers
C. The findings could be used by attackers to exploit the client’s systems
D. The findings could hurt the company’s reputation if disclosed
C. The findings could be used by attackers to exploit the client’s systems
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: To further reinforce the SOW, NDA, and any other legal documentation in effect, the client is likely to include confidentiality provisions within the engagement plan. This ensures that the information discovered during the penetration test is shared only with the appropriate entities. For example, if a penetration tester finds a major code injection vulnerability in the company’s public-facing website, the organization may require them to keep this information confidential to minimize the risk of it being exploited by an attacker.
Which of the following will an adversary do during the reconnaissance phase of the Lockheed Martin kill chain? (SELECT THREE)
A. Harvest email addresses
B. Identify employees on Social Media networks
C. Release of malware on USB drives
D. Acquire or develop zero-day exploits
E. Select backdoor implants and appropriate command and control mechanisms
F. Discover servers facing the public internet
A. Harvest email addresses
B. Identify employees on Social Media networks
F. Discover servers facing the public internet
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: Passively harvesting information from a target is the main purpose of the reconnaissance phase. Harvesting email addresses from the public internet, identifying employees on social media (particularly LinkedIn profiles), discovering public-facing servers, and gathering other publicly available information can allow an attacker to develop a more thorough understanding of a targeted organization. Acquiring or developing zero-day exploits, selecting backdoor implants, and choosing command and control (C2) mechanisms will require the information gathered during reconnaissance to be effective. Still, these activities will actually occur during the weaponization phase.
Edward’s bank recently suffered an attack where an employee made an unauthorized modification to a customer’s bank balance. Which tenant of cybersecurity was violated by this employee’s actions?
A. Confidentiality
B. Authentication
C. Integrity
D. Availability
C. Integrity
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: The CIA Triad is a security model that helps people think about various parts of IT security. Integrity ensures that no unauthorized modifications are made to the information. The attack described here violates the integrity of the customer’s bank account balance. Confidentiality is concerned with unauthorized people seeing the contents of the data. In this scenario, the employee is authorized to see the bank balance but not change its value. Availability is concerned with the data being accessible when and where it is needed. Again, this wasn’t affected by the employee’s actions. Authentication is concerned with only authorized people accessing the data. Again, this employee was authorized to see the balance.
What is not an example of a type of support resource that a pentester might receive as part of a white box assessment?
A. Network diagrams
B. SOAP project files
C. XSD
D. PII of employees
D. PII of employees
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: White box support resources include architectural diagrams, sample application requests, SDK documentation, SOAP project files, Swagger documents, WSDL/WADL, and XML Scheme Definitions (XSD). The PII of employees should not be given to a penetration tester as this could violate laws and regulations regarding maintaining employee data confidentiality and privacy. White-box testing falls on the opposite end of the spectrum from black-box testing, and penetration testers are given full access to source code, architecture documentation, and so forth.
Which of the following would trigger the penetration test to stop and contact the system owners during an engagement?
A. A production server is successfully exploited
B. Discovery of a production server with its log files deleted
C. A production server is unresponsive to ping requests
D. Discovery of encrytped credit card data being stored in their database
B. Discovery of a production server with its log files deleted
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: The penetration testing team should have a direct communication path with the system owners or their trusted agents during an engagement. Suppose the team discovers any security breaches, current hacking activity, extremely critical findings on a production server, or a production server becomes unresponsive during exploitation. In that case, the team should stop what they are doing and contract their trusted point of contact within the organization to get further guidance. Deleted log files should be considered an indicator of compromise and should be investigated by the company’s security team before you continue with your engagement.
What should be done NEXT if the final set of security controls does not eliminate all of the risks in a given system?
A. You should continue to apply additional controls until there is zero risk
B. You should ignore any remaining risk
C. You should accept the risk if the residual risk is low enough
D. You should remove the current controls since they are not completely effective
C. You should accept the risk if the residual risk is low enough
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: In most cases, you will be unable to remove all risk. Instead, it would be best to mitigate the risk to a low enough level to accept the residual risk. Removing the controls would add to the risk, which is a bad course of action to select. Ignoring the remaining risk is unacceptable; instead, you should acknowledge what risk remains and accept it if it is low enough. If it is not low enough, you should continue to mitigate the risk by adding additional control measures. It is unlikely you will ever be able to get all risk down to zero, but mitigating to a lower level and then accepting the residual risk is a common industry practice.
Which of the following Nmap commands would scan DionTraining.com and probe any open ports to determine the versions of the running services on those ports?
A. nmap -sS DionTraining.com
B. nmap -sT DionTraining.com
C. nmap -sV DionTraining.com
D. nmap -sL DionTraining.com
C. nmap -sV DionTraining.com
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: The -sV option will scan the target by probing all the open ports to determine the service version they are running. The -sS option will scan the target using a TCP SYN packet and conduct a half-open scan. The -sT option will scan the target by conducting a full TCP 3-way handshake. The -sU option will scan the target by conducting a UDP scan.
You are troubleshooting an issue with a Windows desktop and need to display the machine’s active TCP connections. Which of the following commands should you use?
A. net use
B. netstat
C. ipconfig
D. ping
B. netstat
Explanation
OBJ-2.3: The netstat command is used to display active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols) on a Windows machine. This is a useful command when determining if any malware has been installed on the system and maybe maintaining a remote connection with a command and control server.
Dion Training has just installed a brand new email server. Which of the following DNS records would need to be created to allow the new server to receive email on behalf of diontraining.com?
A. CNAME
B. MX
C. PTR
D. A
B. MX
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: An MX record is required in the DNS for a domain for the email server to accept emails on behalf of a registered domain name.
Which of the following provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism to positively identify an organization as the authorized sender of email for a particular domain name?
A. SPF
B. DKIM
C. SMTP
D. DMARC
B. DKIM
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism. This can replace or supplement SPF. To configure DKIM, the organization uploads a public key as a TXT record in the DNS server. Sender Policy Framework (SPF) uses a DNS record published by an organization hosting an email service. The SPF record identifies the hosts authorized to send email from that domain, and there must be only one per domain. SPF does not provide a cryptographic authentication mechanism like DKIM does, though. The Domain-Based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework ensures that SPF and DKIM are being utilized effectively. DMARC relies on DKMI for the cryptographic authentication mechanism, making it the incorrect option for this question. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is a communication protocol for electronic mail transmission, which does not utilize cryptographic authentication mechanisms by default.
You have received a laptop from a user who recently left the company. You went to the terminal in the operating system and typed ‘history’ into the prompt and see the following:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
> for i in seq 255; ping -c 1 10.1.0.$i; done
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Which of the following best describes what actions were performed by this line of code?
A. Attempted to conduct a SYN scan on the network
B. Conducted a ping sweep of the subnet
C. Conducted a sequential ICMP echo reply to the subnet
D. Sequentially sent 255 ping packets to every host on the subnet
B. Conducted a ping sweep of the subnet
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: This code is performing a ping sweep of the subnet 10.1.0.0/24. The code states that for every number in the sequence from 1 to 255, conduct a ping to 10.1.0.x, where x is the number from 1 to 255. When it completes this sequence, it is to return to the terminal prompt (done). The ping command uses an echo request and then receives an echo reply from the ping’s target. A ping sweep does not use an SYN scan, which would require the use of a tool like nmap or hping.
What nmap switch would you use to perform operating system detection?
A. -OS
B. -s0
C. -sP
D. -O
D. -O
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: The –O switch is used to tell nmap to conduct fingerprinting of the operating system based on the responses received during scanning. Nmap will then report on the suspected operating system of the scanned host. If you use –O –v, you will get additional details, as this runs the operating system scan in verbose mode. The -OS flag is made up and not supported by nmap. The -s0 flag conducts an IP protocol scan of the target. The -sP flag conducts a simple ping scan against the target.
A penetration tester is emulating an insider threat during an engagement. The penetration tester was given access to a regular user account and a basic Windows 10 client on the network. The penetration tester did not receive any network diagrams, maps, or target IP address. Their goal is to identify any possible Windows domain controllers on the intranet.diontaining.com domain. Which of the following commands should they use from the command prompt to achieve their goal?
A. nslookup -type=any _lanman._tcp.intranet.diontraining.com
B. nslookup -type=any _ntlm._tcp.intranet.diontraining.com
C. nslookup -type=any _ldap._tcp.intranet.diontraining.com
D. nslookup -type=any _smtp._tcp.intranet.diontraining.com
E. nslookup -type=any _kerberos._tcp.intranet.diontraining.com
C. nslookup -type=any _ldap._tcp.intranet.diontraining.com
E. nslookup -type=any _kerberos._tcp.intranet.diontraining.com
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: There are several methods for locating Domain Controllers, depending on what you know about the environment you are using. If you are using a Windows client, you can use the nslookup command. You need to specify which protocol you are searching for in the name. Since we are trying to identify domain controllers, we need to look for Kerberos and LDAP based protocols on the intranet.diontraining.com domain. If you were using a Linux client, you could run a similar command syntax using dig.
You are working as part of a penetration testing team conducting engagement against Dion Training’s network. You have been given a list of targets to scan in nmap in a text file called servers.txt. Which of the following Nmap commands should you use to find all the servers from the list with ports 80 and 443 enabled and save the results in an XML formatted file called results.txt for importing into your team’s report generation software?
A. nmap -p80,443 -sL servers.txt -oX results.txt
B. nmap -p80,443 -iL servers.txt -oX results.txt
C. nmap -p80,443 -iL servers.txt -oG results.txt
D. nmap -p80,443 -sL servers.txt -oG results.txt
B. nmap -p80,443 -iL servers.txt -oX results.txt
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: The command (nmap -p80,443 -iL servers.txt -oG results.txt) will only perform a nmap scan against ports 80 and 443. The -iL option will scan each of the listed server’s IP addresses. The -oX option will save the results in an XML format to the file results.txt while still displaying the normal results to the shell. The option of -sL will only list the servers to scan, and it will not actually scan them. The option of -oG is for outputting the results to a file in a greppable format.
Consider the following snippet from a log file collected on the host with the IP address of 10.10.3.6.
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Time: Jun 12, 2020 09:24:12 Port:20 Source: 10.10.3.2 Destination:10.10.3.6 Protocol:TCP
Time: Jun 12, 2020 09:24:14 Port:21 Source: 10.10.3.2 Destination:10.10.3.6 Protocol:TCP
Time: Jun 12, 2020 09:24:16 Port:22 Source: 10.10.3.2 Destination:10.10.3.6 Protocol:TCP
Time: Jun 12, 2020 09:24:18 Port:23 Source: 10.10.3.2 Destination:10.10.3.6 Protocol:TCP
Time: Jun 12, 2020 09:24:20 Port:25 Source: 10.10.3.2 Destination:10.10.3.6 Protocol:TCP
Time: Jun 12, 2020 09:24:22 Port:80 Source: 10.10.3.2 Destination:10.10.3.6 Protocol:TCP
Time: Jun 12, 2020 09:24:24 Port:135 Source: 10.10.3.2 Destination:10.10.3.6 Protocol:TCP
Time: Jun 12, 2020 09:24:26 Port:443 Source: 10.10.3.2 Destination:10.10.3.6 Protocol:TCP
Time: Jun 12, 2020 09:24:26 Port:445 Source: 10.10.3.2 Destination:10.10.3.6 Protocol:TCP
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
What type of activity occurred based on the output above?
A. Port scan targeting 10.10.3.2
B. Fragmentation attack targeting 10.10.3.6
C. Denial of service attack targeting 10.10.3.6
D. Port scan targeting 10.10.3.6
D. Port scan targeting 10.10.3.6
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: Port Scanning is the name for the technique used to identify open ports and services available on a network host. Based on the logs, you can see a sequential scan of some commonly used ports (20, 21, 22, 23, 25, 80, 135, 443, 445) with a two-second pause between each attempt. The scan source is 10.10.3.2, and the destination of the scan is 10.10.3.6, making “Port scan targeting 10.10.3.6” the correct choice. IP fragmentation attacks are a common form of denial of service attack, in which the perpetrator overbears a network by exploiting datagram fragmentation mechanisms. A denial-of-service (DoS) attack occurs when legitimate users cannot access information systems, devices, or other network resources due to a malicious cyber threat actor’s actions.
Which of the following is usually not considered when evaluating the attack surface of an organization?
A. External and internal users
B. Websites and cloud entities
C. Software applications
D. Software development lifecycle model
D. Software development lifecycle model
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: The software development lifecycle model used by a company is purely an internal function relevant only to the development of custom software within the organization. Regardless of whether a waterfall or agile methodology is chosen, it does not directly affect the organization’s attack surface. The attack surface represents the set of things that could be attacked by an adversary. External and internal users, websites, cloud entities, and software applications used by an organization are all possible entry points that an adversary could attempt an attack upon.
You are conducting a quick nmap scan of a target network. You want to conduct an SYN scan, but you don’t have raw socket privileges on your workstation. Which of the following commands should you use to conduct the SYN scan from your workstation?
A. nmap -sS
B. nmap -O
C. nmap -sT
D. nmap -sX
C. nmap -sT
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: The nmap TCP connect scan (-sT) is used when the SYN scan (-sS) is not an option. You should use the -sT flag when you d not have raw packet privileges on your workstation or if you are scanning an IPv6 network. This flag tells nmap to establish a connection with the target machine by issuing the connect system call instead of directly using an SYN scan. Normally, a fast scan using the -sS (SYN scan) flag is more often conducted, but it requires raw socket access on the scanning workstation. The -sX flag would conduct a Xmas scan where the FIN, PSH, and URG flags are used in the scan. The -O flag would conduct an operating system detection scan of the target system.
Which type of method is used to collect information during the passive reconnaissance?
A. Social engineering
B. Network traffic sniffing
C. Man in the middle attacks
D. Publicly accessible sources
D. Publicly accessible sources
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: Passive reconnaissance focuses on collecting information that is widely and openly available from publicly accessible sources. While network traffic sniffing is considered passive, gaining access to the network to place a sniffer in a good network tap location would not be considered passive. Of the choices provided, publicly accessible sources are the best answer to choose. Man-in-the-middle attacks would involve a penetration tester coming in between the traffic source and destination, which would allow its active inception and possible modification. Social engineering is also an active reconnaissance technique that uses deception to trick a user into providing information to an attacker or penetration tester.
Which of the following ports is used by the Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, and other resources in a network?
A. 443
B. 427
C. 445
D. 389
B. 427
Explanation
OBJ-2.3: Port 427 is used by SLP. The Service Location Protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. While you may not have this port memorized, you should have memorized ports 389, 443, and 445 and identified that they were not associated with printers.
You want to conduct OSINT against an organization in preparation for an upcoming engagement. Which of the following tools should you utilize?
A. OpenVAS
B. Social Engineer Toolkit (SET)
C. Shodan
D. Aircrack-NG
C. Shodan
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: Shodan (shodan.io) is a search engine that identifies Internet-connected devices of all types. The engine uses banner grabbing to identify the type of device, firmware/OS/app type, and version, plus vendor and ID information. This involves no direct interaction with the company’s public-facing internet assets since this might give rise to detection. This is also the first place an adversary might use to conduct reconnaissance on your company’s network. OpenVas, SET, and Aircrak-NG are not considered OSINT tools. OpenVas is a vulnerability scanner. SET is a social engineering tool. Aircrack-NG is a wireless hacking tool.
What technique is an attacker using if they review data and publicly available information to gather intelligence about the target organization without scanning or other technical information-gathering activities?
A. Passive reconnaissance
B. Active scanning
C. Vulnerability scanning
D. Patch management
A. Passive reconnaissance
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: Passive reconnaissance combines publicly available data from various sources about an organization and does not use active scanning or data gathering methods. Vulnerability scanning is an inspection of the potential points of exploitation on a computer or network to identify security holes. A vulnerability scan is usually conducted to detect and classify system weaknesses in computers, networks, and communications equipment and predict the effectiveness of countermeasures. Patch management is the process that helps acquire, test, and install multiple patches (code changes) on existing applications and software tools on a computer, enabling systems to stay updated on existing patches and determining which patches are the appropriate ones.
You suspect that your server has been the victim of a web-based attack. Which of the following ports would most likely be seen in the logs to indicate the attack’s target?
A. 389
B. 3389
C. 443
D. 21
C. 443
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: Web-based attacks would likely appear on port 80 (HTTP) or port 443 (HTTPS). An attack against Active Directory is likely to be observed on port 389 LDAP. An attack on an FTP server is likely to be observed on port 21 (FTP). An attack using the remote desktop protocol would be observed on port 3389 (RDP).