Practice Exam #1 Flashcards
(229 cards)
1
Q
Which of these should be poured into the other?
- Acid
- Water
A
Acid should be poured into water.
2
Q
Vinegar is a 5% _____ solution
A
Acetic Acid
3
Q
How is a pH probe properly stored?
A
In a buffer of 3M - 4M Potassium Chloride
4
Q
What color should a properly adjusted Bunsen burner flame be?
A
Colorless to blue
5
Q
If a fire on a Bunsen burner is yellow, what should you do?
A
Increase the air suppy
6
Q
If a flame on a Bunsen burner is burning noisely, what should you do?
A
Reduce the gas supply
7
Q
What is the minimum time an eyewash station should be used?
A
15 minutes
8
Q
What is the first thing to do in case of an emergency or a spill?
A
Notify the instructor
9
Q
What pieces of safety equipment are mandatory vs optional or dependent on the experiment?
A
Mandatory - goggles and apron
Optional - Gloves
10
Q
What scientific work is Darwin famous for?
A
On the Origin of Species
11
Q
What does the “On the Origin of Species” say?
A
Nature selects the best adapted varieties to survive andreproduce
12
Q
What scientific work is Lamark known for?
A
Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Charactersistics
13
Q
What was the Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics?
A
if an organism changes during its life in order to adapt to its environment, those changes are passed to its offspring.
14
Q
What scientific work is Charles Lyell famous for?
A
The Principles of Geology
15
Q
What did “The Principles of Geology” say?
A
uniformitarianism that states the geological processes that alter the earth are uniform throughout time
16
Q
What scientific work is Malthus known for?
A
Essay on the Principles of Population
17
Q
What is stated in “Essay on the Principles of Population”?
A
Human populations will rapidly increase unless kept in check by limits in food supply
18
Q
What two theories is Albert Einstein most known for?
A
Special Theory of Relativity
The General Theory of Relativity
19
Q
What is Thomas Edison most known for?
A
inventing the light bulb and the phonograph
20
Q
How did Dalton describe atoms?
A
hard spheres
21
Q
How did Thomson describe atoms?
A
plum pudding model - electrons are embedded in a sphere of positive charge
22
Q
How did Rutheford describe atoms?
A
Planetary model - electrons circularly orbit a small central nucleus
23
Q
How did Bohr describe atoms?
A
electrons move in regions of space called orbits
24
Q
Whose atomic model is the most recent?
A
Bohr
25
What is Bernoulli's Principle?
Lateral pressure exerted by a moving fluid decrease as the fluid's speed increases
26
Who created the Bernoulli's Principle?
Isaac Newton
27
Who created the Atomic Theory of Matter?
John Dalton
28
What did the Atomic Theory of Matter say?
Each element consists of tiny, invisible particles called atoms.
29
Did Dalton believe atoms could be broken down?
No
30
Who proposed The Particle or Corpuscular Theory of Light?
Isaac Newton
31
Who proposed The Wave Theory of Light?
Huygnes
32
Who showed that light can be modeled as an electromagnetic wave?
Maxwell
33
Who described electromagnetic radiation as bundles of energy proportional to frequency in the quantum theory of light?
Einstein
34
Subduction occurs at _____ boundaries
convergent
35
Subduction is the process that occurs when two tectonic plates:
collide and one plate moves under the other plate
36
Isotopes of the same element must have the same ____ _____
chemical behavior
37
Isotopes differ in ___
mass
38
Neutrons are ____ in charge
neutral
39
Which atom can break a nucleus and is used in nuclear chain reactions?
Neutrons
40
What do nuclear reactions turn mass into?
energy
41
Radioactive decay - The mass of products is always ____ than that of the starting materials
less
42
An alpha particle is a ____ nucleus
helium
43
An alpha particle contains how many protons and neutrons?
Two protons
Two neutrons
44
Sublimination is the process of:
solid changing directly into a gas without entering the liquid phase
45
Fusion is the process of:
liquid turning directly into a slid
46
Condensation is the process of:
Gas turning into a liquid
47
What is the trend of electronegativity on the periodic table?
Increases going right and up the table
48
A polar bond is a type of ____ bond
covalent
49
NaCl, NH4F, MgCO3, and Fe2(HPO4)3 are examples of?
ionic salts
50
What are ionic salts?
when dissolved in water, break up completely into ions
51
What is a polar bond?
Polar bonds do not share electrons equally, meaning the negative charge from the electrons is not evenly distributed in the molecule.
52
What is a non-polar bond?
non-polar bonds share electrons equally
53
Are ionic componds polar?
Ionic compounds are extremely polar molecules
54
What do catalysts do to the energy barrier between products and reactants
lower the energy barrier
55
What do catalysts do to the reaction rate?
increase it
56
What is the strongest acid?
HCl
57
What is NH3? (Common name)
Ammonia
58
Is ammonia acidic or basic?
Basic
59
Oxidation is __________
the loss of electrons
60
Reduction is __________
the gaining of electrons
61
Proteins are large polypeptides compromised of many:
amino acids linked together by an amide bond
62
DNA and RNA are made up of _____
nucleic acids
63
Carbohydrates are long chains of ____
sugars
64
Triglycerides are ____
fats
65
Triglycerides are composed of a ___ molecule and ____
glycerol
Three fatty acids
66
Density is ____ per _____
mass
volume
67
Methyl mercury is a toxin produced indirectly from what energy source?
Coal
68
When adding, the answer will have as many significant figures after the decimal point as the measurement with the _____ decimal points
fewer
69
Vectors have ____ & ____
magnitude
direction
70
What's the difference between displacement and distance?
Displacement = difference between start and end distance
Distance = total distance traveled to get to end point
71
To add or subtract vectors algebraically, you
add and substract their components
72
To add vectors graphically, you
shift the location of the vectors so they are connected tail-to-tail
73
What is Newtons 1st Law?
An object in motion stays in motion and an object at rest stays at rest
74
Is a newton a fundamental unit?
no
75
In Newtons second law, mass and acceleration are ____ related when the force is constant (F=ma)
inversely
76
Can Newtons 2nd law be derived from Newtons 1st law?
yes
77
Can Newton's 2nd law be derived from the universal law of gravity?
no
78
What is Newton's 3rd law?
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
79
The gravitational force of attraction between two spheres hanging on the same line is determined by _____, ______ and ______
universal constant of gravity
the distance between the spheres
mass of the spheres
80
How do you calculate static friction?
u(static) x Normal force
81
How do you calculate normal force?
weight x gravity (9.8)
82
When do you use the formula for static friction vs kinetic friction?
when you need to START moving an object vs one that is already moving
83
Biodegradable plastics are renewable since the are organic compounds made from _____
biomass
84
What is biomass made out of?
plants
animals
all organic compounds that decompose
85
Chalk is a form of ___ ____
calcium carbonate
86
What is CaCO3?
Chalk
87
Glass cleaner is made up of ______
ammonia
88
Bleach is made up of _____
sodium hypochlorite
89
Baking powder is ____ ____
sodium bicarbonate
90
Salt formula
NaCl
91
C12H22O11
Sugar
92
Hydrogen Peroxide formula
H2O2
93
Are laser lights coherent?
Yes
94
Are laser lights in phase?
Yes
95
Are laser lights monochromatic?
yes
96
What does it mean when a laser light is monochromatic?
one wavelength of frequency (color)
97
What does it mean when a laser light is collimated?
means the beams are narrow and highly directional
98
What kind of reactions occur in dry cells walls (batteries)?
oxidation-reduction
99
Cathodes are ______ agents
oxidizing
100
Oxidizing agents accept what from the anode?
electrons
101
The anode is the ___ agent
reducing
102
What does an anode lose?
electrons
103
What is DNA electrophoresis and how is it done?
DNA is broken into fragments and added to a gel with a voltage, that then separates them in a gel and applying a voltage across it.
104
Do genetically modified crops show any difference in nutrition or shelf-life?
no
105
What is one of the greatest concerns of genetically modified crops?
introducing new allergens into the food supply
106
What is a Buckminsterfullerene molecule?
A hollow, spherical fullerene molecule with the molecular formula C60
107
What is Graphene?
One-atom thick sheet of carbon
108
What are nanoparticles?
particles between 1 and 100 nanometers in size
109
Buckminsterfullerene particles are one example of ______
nanoparticles
110
What are some advantages of biomass?
Renewable
Carbon neutral
Abundant
111
What is a disadvantage to biomass?
requires space and may be inefficient
112
What does land reclamation cause?
destruction of habitats and decreased biodiversity
113
What does underground coal mining do that strip mining does not?
lowers the water table and changes the flow of groundwater and streams
114
96.5% of seawater is comprised of:
hydrogen & oxygen
115
Majority of weather phenomena occur in Earth's _____
Troposphere
116
The majority of solar energy that reaches Earth is absorbed by the ____
oceans
117
What causes "dead zones" in portion of oceans and lakes?
chemical fertilzers
118
What is sublimination?
when water changes directly from a solid to a gas, skipping the liquid state
119
Specific heat capacity refers to:
amount of energy required to increase the temperature of a substance by 1 degree Celsius.
120
What has a higher density?
Water in liquid state or water in a solid state?
liquid state
121
The process that causes lithospheric plates to move over the surface of the mantle is called
convection
122
In 1912, Alfred Wegener proposed that the continents:
once formed a single land mass called Pangea
123
What does Earth's magnetic field protect from?
solar wind
124
What is solar wind?
stream of highly charged radioactive particles that emanate from the sun
125
A volcano that is dormant is expected to:
erupt sometime in the future by is not imminently dangerous
126
When an earthquake occurs, the "shaking" is a direct result from:
seismic waves
127
Seismic waves are powerful sound waves released when:
slippage between plates occur
128
What are the two types of seismic waves?
P-waves
| S-waves
129
Which seismic waves move more quickly?
P-waves
130
What kind of motion does P-waves make?
motion that radiates directly outward from the point of origin
131
What kind of motion do S-waves make?
shearing, or side-to-side motion
132
Where is most recently formed parts of Earth's crust found?
mid-ocean ridges
133
Which is hotter and more fluid? Asthenosphere or Lithosphere
Asthenosphere
134
What is another name for Asthenosphere?
upper mantle
135
What sits on top of the Asthenosphere?
Crust
136
What is another word for Lithosphere?
Crust
137
What is it called when two tectonic plates are moving laterally in opposing directions?
transform boundary
138
What type of earthquakes happen at transform boundaries?
shallow earthquakes
139
What are the results of a metamorphic rock when it is stressed unevenly during recrystallization?
foliation
140
Quartzite, marble and slates are all examples of:
metamorphic rock
141
What is type of rock is granite?
igneous rock
142
What type of rocks are formed when rocks are subjected to high heat, high pressure, hot mineral-rich fluids or, more commonly, some combination of these factors?
metamorphic
143
What type of rock is formed through the cooling and solidification of magma or lava?
Igneous rock
144
What type of rock is formed from deposits of pre-existing rocks or pieces of once-living organism that accumulate on the Earth's surface?
Sedimentary Rock
145
What does Bowen's Reaction Series describe?
the temperature at which minerals crystallize when cooled or melt when heated.
146
Where is olivine found in Bowen's Reaction Series?
at the top
147
Minerals found at the top of Bowen's reaction series ____, ____, & ____ than those found at lower in the series
less stable
weather more quickly
crystalize at higher temperatures
148
Chemical weathering involves:
changes in the molecules that comprise the rock
149
Physical weathering involves:
external factors act on the rock without changing its chemical composition in any way
150
Overgrazing and deforestation directly contribute to _____
soil erosion
151
Where does Plutonic or intrusive rock form?
deep below Earth's surface
152
How fast does Plutonic or intrusive rock form?
slowly
153
Where does Volcanic or extrusive rock form?
near the surface
154
Where does Hypabyssal rock form?
Below the Earth's surface but not as deep as plutonic rock
155
What is Detrital rock?
A type of sedimentary rock
156
```
What are these minerals examples of?
Aragonite
Dolomite
Calcite
Siderite
```
Carbonates
157
What is a gastrula?
First three-layered stage of the embryo
158
What layers does the gastrula contain?
ectoderm
mesoderm
endoderm
159
What is the main source of nutrients in reptile and bird embryos?
yolk sac
160
What is the main source of nutrient in mammals during development?
placenta
161
What does the yolk sac form in embryos?
digestive system
162
Where is the gastrula formed?
blastocyst
163
In oogenesis, what does Meiosis I produce?
secondary oocyte
polar body
164
The first polar body and secondary oocyte formed under Meiosis I produce what in Meiosis II?
ovum
second polar body
165
What does the placenta secrete once a pregnancy is established?
progesterone
estrogen
166
What does the placenta secrete in early in pregnancy?
hCG
167
What happens in a positive feedback loop?
an action intensifies a chain of events that, in turn, intensify the condition that caused the action beyond normal limits.
168
What is this an example of?
Nursing stimulates lactation, which promotes nursing.
Positive feedback
169
What are these an example of?
Contractions during childbirth
Psychological hysteria
Sexual orgasm
Positive feedback
170
What body part is responsible for reabsorption of water into the body to form solidwaste?
large intestine
171
What vitamin does the large intestine allow absorption of?
vitamin K
172
Platelets are cell fragments involved in:
blood clotting
173
Plants exchange gases with the environment through pores in their leaves called:
stomata
174
How do small animals such as flatworms, exchange gas?
through their skin
175
How do insects exchange gas?
tracheae
176
How do mammal's exchange gas?
multiple ways
177
Are Day-neutral plants affected by day length in their flowering times?
no
178
What do Day-neutral plants respond to?
environmental cues such as temperature and water
179
Cytokinin's stimulate cell division (________) and have been found to delay aging (_______)
cytokinesis
senescence
180
What house male gametophytes in flowering plants?
Anthers
181
What do the anthers in flowering plants do?
Hold sperm
182
In flowering plants, what part houses the female Gametophytes?
Pistils
183
What do pistils in flowering plants do?
Produce eggs
184
Are eggs and sperm haploid or diploid?
Haploid
185
Are tissues haploid or diploid?
Diploid
186
What do anthers in flowering plants produce that later go into meiosis to produce pollen grains?
Microspores
187
Alternation of generations means the alternating between _____ & _____ phases in plants
Diploid
Haploid
188
In fern, the mature diploid plants is called a __________
Sporocyte
189
Sporocytes undergo meiosis to produce ______
Spores
190
Spores develop into _____
Gametophytes
191
Gametophytes produce _____
Gametes
192
The phloem is the pipeline through which ______ are transported to the roots
Carbohydrates
193
What is the central, supporting pillar of a tree known as?
Heartwood
194
Does Heartwood function in the transport of water?
No
195
WILL HEARTWOOD DECAY OR LOSE STRENGTH?
No, as long as the outer layer remains intact
196
What are openings on leaves that allow for gas exchange called?
Stomata
197
What is stomata essential for?
Photosynthesis
198
What are stomata surrounded by?
Guard cells
199
What do guard cells do around the stomata?
Open and close based on their turgidity
200
Gymnosperms reproduce by producing _____ & _____
Pollen
Ovules
201
Do gymnosperms have flowers?
No
202
Describe a gymnosperms reproductive structure
Cone-like
203
The ovary of a flowering plant houses the ovules in the ______
Flower
204
Pollen grains fertilize ovules create ______
Seeds
205
What does a plant ovary mature into?
A fruit
206
Small circular pieces of DNA found in bacteria that are widely used in recombinant DNA technology
Plamids
207
What happens in the virus lytic cycle?
Viruses use host resources to produce viral DNA and proteins in order to create new viruses
208
What happens in the viral lysogenic cycle?
DNA gets incorporated into the DNA of the host
209
____  is direct transfer of plasma DNA between bacteria through a pilus
Conjugation
210
______ are common to prokaryotes. They are units of DNA that control the transcription of DNA and code for their own Regulatory proteins as well as structural proteins
Operons
211
What is transcription?
Process of creating RNA strand from a DNA template
212
What are the products of transcription?
mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA
213
The frequency of a sound wave directly determines its
Pitch
214
Does sound travel faster through helium or air?
Helium
215
What is the speed of sound formula?
Speed = sqrt(k x P / p)
```
k = index of specific heats
P = pressure
p = density
```
216
When a tuning fork vibrates it creates areas of ____(higher pressure) & _______(lower pressure) that propagate through the air because of the air‘s elasticity
Condensation
Rarefactions
217
What is the distance between condensation or rarefactions of sound?
Wavelength
218
The _______ of the sound is half the difference between the pressure of the condensation and the pressure of the rarefaction
Amplitude
219
______ & ______ Are both logarithmic measures that depend on amplitude, but are not directly proportional to it.
Loudness
Power
220
Will doubling the amplitude, double the Loudness or power?
No but those quantities will increase just slightly
221
When does refraction occur?
When a wave enters a new medium
222
The boundary between the old medium and the new medium produces a ______ & ______ 
Reflected wave
Refracted Wazeve
223
What changes as a wave enters a new medium?
Wavelength (speed and direction)
224
What remains the same as a wave enters a new medium?
Frequency
225
The angle of reflection depends on
The angle of incidence 
226
A standing wave remains ______
Stationary
227
The fixed points at the ends of a wave are _____
Nodes
228
Is a period of a pendulum connected to how high it swings?
No
229
As the altitude of the pendulum increases due to resonance , it will swing______
Higher
