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1

Which of the following techniques should be applied to minimize the chance of skids when driving a vehicle equipped with an antilocking braking system (ABS)?

A) A very slow application of pressure on the brake pedal.
B) Pump brakes gently
C) Maintain a steady pressure on the brake pedal until the apparatus comes to a complete stop
D) Release the brakes allowing the wheels to rotate freely

C) Maintain a steady pressure on the brake pedal until the apparatus comes to a complete stop

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 109, para 1

2

A pumper's onboard tank can be considered for water supply only:

A) after a proper size-up confirms the location and extent of the fire.
B) if a backup supply is available or will be available imminently.
C) if the fire is in its incipient stage,
D) after rescue needs have been determined.

A) after a proper size-up confirms the location and extent of the fire.

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 137, para 7

3

In Level I Staging, engine companies typically stage:

A) three to four blocks from the incident.
B) within one block of the incident.
C) near a hydrant or water source.
D) within sight of the involved structure(s)

C) near a hydrant or water source.

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 150, para 3

4

The difference between static pressure and normal operating pressure is:

A) flow pressure
B) residual pressure.
C) head pressure.
D) the friction caused by water flowing through the pipes, valves, and fittings of the system

D) the friction caused by water flowing through the pipes, valves, and fittings of the system

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 176, para 1

5

The flow and reach of a solid stream are determined by nozzle pressure and:

A) hose diameter
B) hose length
C) friction loss
D) the size of the discharge orifice

D) the size of the discharge orifice

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 194, para 3

6

Which of the following is the formula for Nozzle Reaction for solid stream nozzles?

A) NR = 1.57 x NP
B) NR = 1.57 x √NP
C) NR = 29.7 x d² x √NP
D) NR = 1.5 x d² x NP

D) NR = 1.5 x d² x NP

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 203, Formula 6.2

7

Friction loss in cases where the total flow through the appliance is less than 350 gpm is generally considered to be:

A) 0 psi
B) 10 psi
C) 15 psi
D) 25 psi

A) 0 psi

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 213, Note

8

In the friction loss formula, FL = CQ²L, C, the friction loss coefficient, is based on :

A) each diameter of hose
B) the type and/or size of nozzle
C) the ump discharge pressure
D) the total GPM flowing

A) each diameter of hose

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 222, Formula 7.1, para 2

9

Any changeover on a multi-stage centrifugal pump on the fire ground must be:

A) gradual
B) when the engine is pumping at no more than 50 percent of capacity
C) when the engine is pumping at no more than 70 percent of capacity
D) coordinated with attack crews so that they will be prepared for a slight interruption during the transfer.

D) coordinated with attack crews so that they will be prepared for a slight interruption during the transfer.

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 303, para 1

10

By returning the engine to idle when intake pressure drops below 30 psi, electronic pressure governors provide _______ protection.

A) water hammer
B) engine stalling
C) cavitation
D) discharge shutdown

C) cavitation

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 321, para 5

11

Driver/Operators should maintain a residual pressure of at least 20 psi on their master intake gauge at all times during pumping operations. Water supply systems must maintain a residual pressure of at least ______ psi within their mains.

A) 20
B) 30
C) 60
D) 80

A) 20

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 340, para 2

12

The use of a four-way valve with a forward lay allows:

A) hose with different size couplings to be used at the same hydrant.
B) a second arriving pumper, located at the hydrant, to be connected without interrupting the flow of water to the original supply line.
C) supply pumpers to be located at a great distance from the hydrant.
D) All of the above

B) a second arriving pumper, located at the hydrant, to be connected without interrupting the flow of water to the original supply line.

Ref: Pump & Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed. p 341, last para.

13

When the pump is operating at draft, a gradual increase in the vacuum may be noted with no change in the flow rate. It indicates:

A) an air leak
B) too many discharges are open.
C) the wrong pump setting.
D) a blockage is developing.

D) a blockage is developing.

Ref: Pump and Aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. P 361, para 6

14

As the lift or friction loss in hard intake hose is increased, the water supply capability of the pump decreases. The pump may only deliver _______ percent of its capacity at a 20 foot lift.

A) 90
B) 80
C) 60
D) 50

C) 60

Ref: Pump and aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed; p 406, para 2

15

A relay pumping operation begins with:

A) the first arriving pumper at the fire.
B) the first arriving pumper at the water source (if is known that a relay will be employed).
C) the largest capacity pumper working from the water source.
D) determining the total number of pumpers m=needed for the relay.

C) the largest capacity pumper working from the water source.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, 3rd ed. P 432, para 3.

16

Relay pumping operations that require the use of later arriving companies to achieve the required flow can set up an initial operation to lesser volume and greater spacing with:

A) LDH between relay pumpers.
B) a single attack pumper.
C) inline relay valves placed in the relay line awaiting the arrival of incoming pumpers
D) multiple water sources — pressurized or static.

C) inline relay valves placed in the relay line awaiting the arrival of incoming pumpers

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. P 436, para 2.

17

There are two primary types of large tank discharges used on tenders:

A) single and multiple
B) gravity and jet-assisted.
C) mechanical and electronic
D) rapid and gradual.

B) gravity and jet-assisted.


Ref: pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed, p 448, para 2

18

The best fill and dump sites are those where:

A) there is minimum driving distance between the two
B) there is sufficient room for staging and maneuvering
C) a driver/operator may drive straight into the site and drive straight out when the fill or dump is complete
D) A & B

C) a driver/operator may drive straight into the site and drive straight out when the fill or dump is complete

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed, p 452, para 2

19

In exposure protection, which of the following stream patterns is generally used to cover the involved area?

A) a straight stream with 500 gpm or greater flow.
B) a narrow fog stream.
C) a wide angle fog stream.
D) wide sweeping nozzle patterns.

D) wide sweeping nozzle patterns.

Ref. Pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. p 747, bottom

20

Aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps should always be positioned with consideration of:

A) the reach of the aerial device.
B) the proximity to a supply pumper.
C) other apparatus at the scene or expected to arrive at the scene.
D) the location of the nearest fire hydrant.

A) the reach of the aerial device.

Ref. Pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. p21, last para.

21

The inverter is a step-up transformer that converts the vehicle's 12- or 24-volt DC current into 110 or 220-volt AC current. Inverters are typically used to:

A) power a large number of power hand tools.
B) supplement power over an extended period of time.
C) power vehicle-mounted floodlights.
D) supply power to auxiliary generators.

C) power vehicle-mounted floodlights.

Ref. Pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. p23, para 1.

22

In an electrical load management system, when an overload condition occurs, the load monitor will:

A) shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent the overload.
B) sound an alarm both in the cab, at the pump controls, and at the platform turntable.
C) cut back the electrical load by 10 percent.
D) shut down all lights.

A) shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent the overload.

Ref. Pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. p 40, para 2.

23

Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns or other essential devices from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below _______ psi.

A) 40
B) 60
C) 80
D) 120

C) 80

Ref. Pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. p 43, para 2

24

What does "aim high in steering" mean?

A) Always have the top of the steering wheel in view.
B) Find a safe path well ahead.
C) When approaching the scene of an emergency, be aware of overheard obstructions.
D) Expect the unexpected.

B) Find a safe path well ahead.

Ref. Pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. p 100, 1st Bullet

25

A locked wheel skid generally results from:

A) one side of the vehicle sliding onto a low shoulder.
B) driving on a paved roadway at a high rate of speed when the roadway became unpaved or gravel.
C) braking too hard at a high rate of speed.
D) any of the above

C) braking too hard at a high rate of speed.

Ref. Pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. p 108, para 1

26

If feasible, when arriving at an incident where no fire is evident (investigation mode), position the pumping apparatus:

A) past the front of the building.
B) directly in front of the building.
C) short of the front of the building.
D) at either corner at the front of the building.

A) past the front of the building.

Ref. Pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. p 136, last para

27

Tandem pumping is most often undertaken to:

A) increase the volume of water available at a fire scene.
B) overcome friction and elevation loss.
C) increase water pressure.
D) supply aerial apparatus.

C) increase water pressure.

Ref. Pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. p 146, para 1

28

At hazardous materials incidents, the driver/operator does not drive the apparatus directly to the scene until:

A) hazard control zones have been established.
B) the material involved can be identified.
C) hazardous materials specialists are on-scene.
D) the RIT is in position.

B) the material involved can be identified.

Ref. Pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. p 153, 3rd Bullet.

29

Which of the following is not a Principle of Pressure?

A) Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it acts.
B) Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions.
C) The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth.
D) The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the size of the vessel.

D) The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the size of the vessel.

Ref. Pump and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed. p 172-173, 1st, 3rd, 4th, 5th Principles

30

When using an elevated master stream in a blitz attack, the driver/operator should position the apparatus to:

A) give the stream as much reach into the fire area as possible
B) maximize the scrub area.
C) allow for directing the stream into multiple windows.
D) maximize the flow of the stream.

A) give the stream as much reach into the fire area as possible

Ref: Pump and Aerial Apparatus; 3rd ed, p 739, para 3

31

During rescue operations, those in the greatest amount of real or perceived danger should be given the highest priority. The second party involves multiple victims who may be located in different parts of the fire building. When two or more groups appear to be in the same amount of danger, extend the aerial device first to:

A) those farthest away from the aerial device.
B) those who are on the higher floors.
C) those who are on the lower floors.
D) The larger of the two groups.

D) The larger of the two groups.

Ref: Pump and aerial apparatus, third edition, page 723, para. 2

32

Which of the following is cited for the cause of poor quality foam or the lack of foam production?

A) too long an attack line on the discharge side of the eductor.
B) Nozzle placed too far above the eductor.
C) mixing together foam concentrates from different manufacturers.
D) all of the above.

D) all of the above.

Ref: pump an aerial apparatus, third Ed., P. 505, bullets

33

Which of the following is NOT an attribute of aqueous film forming foam?

A) it is ideally suited for polar solvents and hydrocarbons.
B) An air/vapor excluding film is released ahead of the phone blanket.
C) A fast-moving blanket of foam spreads across the surface of the fuel surrounding objects and providing insulation.
D) As the aerated phone blanket drains it’s water, more film is released getting the phone the ability to recover, or “heal” areas where the phone blanket is disturbed.

A) it is ideally suited for polar solvents and hydrocarbons.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 493, bullets

34

The application rate for foam refers to the minimum amount of foam solution that must be applied to a fire, per minute, per square foot of fire. The application rate for class A foam is:

A) 95 GPM.
B) 125 GPM.
C) 150 GPM.
D) The same as the minimum required flow rate for water.

D) The same as the minimum required flow rate for water.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 488, para.2

35

In water shuttle operations, a booster line or other small discharge should be continuously flowed in view of the pumper/operator. When operating from a hydrant this measure will:

A) help ensure overheating does not occur when there are no tenders to be filled.
B) let the driver/operator know that the supply of water has not been interrupted.
C) let the driver/operator know if pump discharge needs to be adjusted.
D) indicate that all systems are functioning.

A) Help ensure overheating does not occur when there are no tenders to be filled.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 456; para. 4

36

The best fill and dump sites are those where:

A) there is minimum driving distance between the two.
B) there is sufficient room for staging and maneuvering.
C) A driver/operator may drive straight into the site and drive straight out when the fill or dump is complete
D) A and B.

C) A driver/operator may drive straight into the site and drive straight out when they fill or dump is complete.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 452, para.

37

There are two primary types of large tank discharges used on tenders:

A) Single and multiple.
B) Gravity and jet-assisted.
C) mechanical and electronic
D) rapid and gradual.

B) Gravity and jet-assisted.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 448, para. 2

38

Relay pumping operations that requires the use of later arriving companies to achieve the required flow can set up an additional operation of lesser volume and greater spacing with:

A) LDH between relay pumpers.
B) A single attack pumper.
C) in-line relay valves placed in the relay line awaiting the arrival of incoming pumpers.
D) Multiple water sources – – pressurized or static.

C) in-line relay valves placed in the relay line awaiting the arrival of incoming pumpers.

Ref: pump an aerial apparatus, third edition; page 436, para.2

39

A relay pumping operation begins with:

A) The first arriving pumper at the fire.
B) The first arriving pumper at the water source (if it is known that the relay will be employed).
C) The largest capacity pumper working from the water source.
D) determining the total number of pumpers needed for the relay.

C) The largest capacity pumper working from the water source.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 432, para. 3

40

As the lift or friction loss in hard intake hose is increased, the water supply capacity of the pump decreases. The pump may only deliver _____ percent of its capacity at a 20 foot lift.

A) 90
B) 80
C) 60
D) 50

C) 60

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 406, para. 2

41

When the pump is operating at draft, a gradual increase in the vacuum may be noted with no change in the flow rate. This indicates:

A) an air leak.
B) too many discharges are open.
C) the wrong pump setting.
D) a blockage is developing.

D) a blockage is developing.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 361, para. 6

42

The use of a four-Way valve with a forward Les allows:

A) hose with different size couplings to be used at the same hydrant.
B) A second arriving pumper, located at the hydrant, to be connected without interrupting the flow of water to the original supply line.
C) supply pumpers to be located at a great distance from the hydrant.
D) all of the above.

B) A second arriving comfort, located at the hydrant, to be connected without interrupting the flow of water to the original supply line.

Ref: Pump and Ariel apparatus, third edition; page 341, last para.

43

Driver/operator should maintain a residual pressure of at least 20 psi on their master intake gauge at all times during pumping operations. Water supply systems must maintain a residual pressure of at least ____ psi within their mains.

A) 20
B) 30
C) 60
D) 80

A) 20

Ref: Calm down Ariel apparatus, third edition; page 340, para. 2

44

By returning the engine to idle when intake pressure drops below 30 psi, electronic pressure governors provide _______ protection.

A) water hammer
B) engine stalling
C) cavitation
D) discharge shutdown

C) cavitation

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 321, para. 5

45

Any change over on a multi-stage centrifuge pump on the fire ground must be:

A) gradual.
B) When the engine is pumping at no more than 50 percent of capacity.
C) when the engine is pumping at no more than 70 percent of capacity.
D) Coordinated with the attack crews so that they will be prepared for a slight interaction during the transfer.

D) coordinated with attack crews so that they will be prepared for a slight interruption during the transfer.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 303; para. 1

46

In the friction loss formula, FL=DQ2L, C, the friction loss coefficient, is based on:

A) each diameter of hose.
B) the type and/or size of nozzle.
C) the pump discharge pressure.
D) the total GPM flowing.

A) each diameter of hose.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 222, formula 7.1, para. 2

47

Friction loss in cases where the total flow through the appliance in as less than 350 GPM is generally considered to be:

A) 0 psi
B) 10 psi
C) 15 psi
D) 25 psi

A) 0 psi

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, 3rd ed.; page 213, note

48

Which of the following is the formula for nozzle reaction for solid straight nozzles?

A) NR= 1.57 x NP
B) NR = 1.57 x ✔️NP
C) NR= 29.7 x d2 x ✔️NP
D) NR= 1.5 x d2 c NP

D) NR= 1.5 x d2 c NP

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 203, formula 6.2

49

The flow and reach of a solid stream are determined by nozzle pressure and:

A) hose diameter
B) hose length
C) friction loss.
D) the size of the discharge orifice.

D) the size of the discharge orifice.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 194, para. 3

50

The difference between static pressure and normal operating pressure is:

A) flow pressure
B) residual pressure.
C) head pressure.
D) the friction caused by water flowing through the pipes, caves, and fittings of the system.

D) the friction caused by water flowing through the pipes, caves, and fittings of the system.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 176, para. 1

51

In Level l Staging, engine companies typically stage:

A) 3 to 4 blocks from the incident.
B) within one block of the incident.
C) near a hydrant or water source.
D) within sight of the involved structure(s).

C) near a hydrant or water source.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 150, para. 3

52

A pumper’s onboard tank can be considered for a water supply only:

A) after a proper size-up confirms the location and extent of the fire.
B) if a back up supply is available or will be available imminently.
C) if the fire is in its incipient stage.
D) after rescue needs have been determined.

A) after a proper size-up confirms the location and extent of the fire.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 137, para. 7

53

Which of the following is cited as a Safety Tenet for operating and Ariel device?

A) only use a secondary operator at the tip is absolutely necessary.
B) never operate from the tip without a primary operator at the main controls.
C) when approaching a structure with an aerial, always finish by lowering.
D) all of the above.

D) All of the above.

Ref: pumping and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 700, operating

54

The keys to operating an aerial device on a grade include all of the following except:

A) optimum positioning.
B) proper stabilization.
C) load restrictions for the given grade.
D) volume and pressure characteristics of master streams.

D) volume and pressure characteristics of master streams.


Ref: pumping and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 692, bullets

55

What do the holding valves on aerial apparatus do?

A) they prevent the movement of fluid within the stabilization system.
B) they prevent the flow of hydraulic fluid into or out of the stabilization system.
C) they prevent the retraction of the aerial device when engaged.
D) they lock the aerial platform into position for rescue.

A) they prevent the movement of fluid within the stabilization system.

Ref: pumping and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 662, para. 1

56

After the aerial apparatus is stabilized and corrected for lateral unevenness, it is preferable to operate the aerial device over the uphill side of the apparatus. If this is not possible:

A) Ensure that short-jacking was not used to stabilize the apparatus.
B) limit the flow from the master stream device at the tip of the aerial denied.
C) consider lessening the amount of Ariel device extension and loading.
D) all of the above.

C) consider lessening the amount of aerial device extension and loading.

Ref: pumping and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 659, para. 1

57

The most common foam application method for above ground storage tank fires is:

A) Roll-on
B) Bank-down
C) Drain-on
D) Rain-down

D) Rain-down

Ref: Pumping and Ariel apparatus, third edition; page 506, last para.

58

The rate at which class B foam in apply depends on: the type of concentrate use; whether or not the fuel is on fire; the type of feel involved; and:

A) The relative humidity.
B) whether the fuel is contained or Uncontained. C) the area of the burning surface.
D) how long the fire has been burning.

B) whether the fuel is contained or Uncontained.

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 490, second set of bullets

59

In water shuttle operations, in order to match in NFPA’s recommended rate at which tenders should be filled, a water supply source capable of supplying at least _____GPM should be chosen.

A) 500
B) 750
C) 1,000
D) 1,500

C) 1,000

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 452, para. 1

60

The number of pumpers needed to relay a specific amount of water may be determined by using the following formula: P = R/D + 1. In this formula, R is:

A) Relay distance.
B) Relay flow.
C) Relay friction loss.
D) Residual pressure (20psi).

A) Relay distance.

Ref: Pump and Ariel apparatus, third edition; page 430, formula 12.1

61

Static water sources must be sufficient death in order to be useful for drafting operations. Although lesser death may be suitable, ____feet of water all around a Barrel type strainer is generally considered the minimum for that type of equipment.

A) 2
B) 3
C) 6
D) 8

A) 2

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, 3rd Ed, p 412, para 3

62

When a standpipe system is known to be equipped with pressure reducing valve, the Elevation pressure must be based on:

A) The total height of the standpipe or zone being used.
B) 5psi per floor up to the standpipe outlet that will be used.
C) 5 psi per floor above the FDC, plus 10 psi for the pressure reducing valve.
D) the capacity of the pumper

A) The total height of the standpipe or zone being used.

Ref: pumping and aerial apparatus, 3rd ed; page 365, para. 4.

63

When a pump reaches the point of cavitation, it is discharging all of the water the atmospheric pressure or pressurize source can force into the intake. The driver/operator must always be careful to:

A) keep discharge rates lower than intake.
B) avoid an absolute vacuum condition.
C) lower engine RPMs when all discharges are open.
D) lower engine RPMs whenever a discharge is closed.

A) keep discharge rates lower than intake.

Ref: pumping and aerial apparatus, third edition; page 354, paragraphs 5, 6

64

What is the maximum capacity of the pumper in most departments?

A) 750 GPM (3000 L/min)
B) 1,000 GPM (4000 L/min)
C) 1,500 GPM (6000 L/min)
D) 2,000 GPM (8000 L/min)

D) 2,000 GPM (8000 L/min)

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; p 14

65

What is the most common maximum height that will be seen with an articulating device on the pumper?

A) 50 feet (15 m)
B) 75 feet (23 m)
C) 25 feet (8 m)
D) 100 feet (30 m)

B) 75 feet (23 m)

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; p 16

66

What are the most commonly used power source for emergency services?

A) UPSs
B) Inverters
C) Converters
D) Generators

D) Generators

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; p 23

67

What is used to classify fire apparatus?

A) Needed training
B) Size
C) Carrying capacity
D) Primary function

D) Primary function

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; p13

68

Who is responsible for the operation of specialized equipment mounted on the pumping apparatus in many jurisdictions?

A) Passenger
B) First chair
C) Captain
D) Driver/Operator

D) Driver/Operator

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; p22

69

Which NFPA standard contains the requirements of pumper design?

A) NFPA 1301
B) NFPA 1701
C) NFPA 1901
D) NFPA 1501

C) NFPA 1901

Ref: pump and aerial apparatus, third edition; p14

70

After a 250 GPM hoseline is put into operation, assume there is a 12 percent drop in pump and take pressure. How many more 250 GPM can be put into operation with supply from the same hydrant?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

B) 2

Ref: pumping and aerial apparatus; 3rd ed.; p 349, table 10.1