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HSS1100 Microbiology and Immunology > Practice Questions > Flashcards

Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Viruses have
    A. DNA
    b. RNA
    c. Both DNA and RNA
    d. DNA or RNA
A

d

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2
Q

The basic components of a virus are:
a. nucleic acid, cell wall, surface antigens
b. nucleic acid, endomembrane system, phospholipid bilayer
c. nucleic acid, protein coat
d. protein coat, surface antigens, phospholipid bilayer

A

c

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3
Q

The type of media viruses grow in include:
A. cell cultures
B. living animals
C. embryonated eggs

a. A only
b. B only
c. A and C only
d. A, B , and C

A

a

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4
Q

This type of virus has two types (types A and B) and undergoes frequent recombination

a. rhinovirus
b. influenza
c. adenovirus
d. it is a bacteria because only bacteria recombine via transformation, transduction, and bacterial conjugation

A

b

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5
Q

The treatment for respiratory syncitial virus is
a. antibiotics
b. live attenuated vaccine
c. subunit vaccine
d. reverse transcriptase
e. ribavizine

A

e

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6
Q

Humans are the only natural host in: a. rotavirus b. norovirus c. coxsackieviruses d. poliovirus e. toxoplasma gondii

A

d

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7
Q

Which of the following is false regarding measles:
a. blotchy appearance
b. complications may include exacerbation of TB and leukemia
c. confirmation tests can be single serum or paired sera
d. vaccine is rarely effective due to frequent changes in surface antigens

A

d

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8
Q

Which of the following is false regarding rubella:
a. very dangerous for non-immune pregnant women especially during second trimester
b. localized birth defects include cataracts, deafness, heart defects
c. similar to measles but milder
d. life-long immunity after natural infection

A

a

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9
Q

Herpes Zoster
a. is also known as shingles
b. appears as a limited rash along the trajectory of one nerve
c. is found mainly in adults
d. represents a late recurrence of latent varicella infection in a partially immune individual
e. all of the above

A

e

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10
Q

Papilloma virus
a. is always sexually transmitted
b. appears as common warts and genital warts
c. has no vaccine available
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

b

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11
Q
  1. Mumps causes
    a. glandular enlargement
    b. bilateral paralysis
    c. inflammation of the parathyroid gland
    d. all of the above
A

a

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12
Q
  1. Epstein-Barr virus, also known as kissing disease is diagnosed by
    a. immunofluorescence
    b. the presence of immunoglobins in serum sample
    c. RBC agglutination
    d. none of the above
A

b

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13
Q

Which hepatitis is sexually transmitted?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. Delta agent
5. E
6. G

a. B only
b. B and C
c. B, C, Delta agent, G
d. C only
e. C, G, Delta agent, A

A

c

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14
Q
  1. A patient recieving a liver transplant is tested positive for CMV. The doner of the liver is also
    positive for CMV. How will the transplant proceed?

a. the graft will be rejected
b. the patient will be placed under a CMV induced coma
c. ribavizine must be given in order to prevent complications from oppurtunistic pathogens
d. the transplant will proceed as normal

A

d

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15
Q
  1. The following is false regarding hepatitis C
    a. transmitted by blood and sexually
    b. initially a mild disease
    c. transmitted faecal-oral route
    d. no vaccine
A

c

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16
Q

Which regarding HIV is false?
a. it causes depletion in T cells
b. it disables B-lymphocytes from producing immunoglobins
c. it undergoes frequent antigenic changes
d. most recomment treatment is HAART

A

b

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17
Q

The following is seen very frequently in immunocompromised patients, espeically AIDS
patients.
A. cryptococcus infection
B. tuberculosis infection
C. yeast infection

a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A and B only
e. A, B and C

A

d

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18
Q

What makes HIV extremely difficult to deal with is the fact that
a. is able to lodge itself into the genome of host cell
b. frequent antigenic changes
c. targeting of B-lymphocytes
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

b

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding yellow fever virus?
    a. 50% mortality rate
    b. because of the virulence of the virus, a live atteunated vaccine is not recommended
    c. it causes bloody and mucoid diarrhea
    d. it is a CNS virus
A

a

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20
Q

When symptoms of rabies start to occur it is
a. always fatal
b. can be treated if injected with immunoglobins of human origin immediately
c. it has a 50% mortality rate
d. it appears as a qubit which is the fundamental unit for quantum computing

A

a

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21
Q
  1. The factors that play an essential role in transmitting infections are
    A. source
    B. fomites
    C. host

a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A and C only
e. A and B only

A

d

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22
Q
  1. The most efficient step in controlling nosocomial infections is
    a. proper sanitation
    b. identification of source
    c. proper handwashing
    d. education
A

b

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23
Q

The following is not a measure taken affecting the source
a. detection
b. isolation
c. treatment of infections
d. sterilization

A

c

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24
Q

The following is not a measure taken affecting the route of transmission
a. sterilization
b. disinfection
c. ventilation
d. vaccination

A

c

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25
Q

The following is not a measure taken affecting the host
a. asepsis
b. vaccination
c. protective isolation
d. disinfection

A

a

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26
Q

Universal precautions are not a substitute for
a. isolation procedures
b. proper hand washing procedures
c. annual vaccination
d. infection control sevices

A

a

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27
Q

An infection control committee includes:
a. infection control nurse
b. infection control physician
c. infection control laboratory
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d

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28
Q

A general term for destroying or removing harmful microorganisms, chemicals or
radioactivity on an object or surface is
a. decontamination
b. disinfection
c. sanitation
d. sterillization

A

b

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29
Q

A physical or chemical means to totally destroy all types of microorganisms in or on an
object is
a. decontamination
b. disinfection
c. sanitation
d. sterillization

A

d

30
Q

The means of cleaning include:
A. Physical means
B. Chemical means
C. Biological means

a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A and C only
e. A and B only

A

e

31
Q

Antibodies are produced by
a. TH1 cells
b. TH2 cells
c. B-lymphocytes
d. macrophages

A

b

32
Q

a substance capable of inducing a specific immune response is
a. an antibody
b. an antigen
c. a foreign agent
d. a virus or bacteria

A

b

33
Q

establishment and multiplication in/on the body of a microorganism without producing any
apparent or inapparent change is
a. infection
b. colonisation
c. contamination
d. a disease

A

b

34
Q

deposition of microorganisms without multiplication is
a. infection
b. colonisation
c. contamination
d. a disease

A

c

35
Q

The most common routes of entry are
A. inhalation
B. ingestion
C. direct deposit

a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A and B only
e. A, B and C

A

a

36
Q
  1. The following is responsible for cell mediated immunity.
    a. TH1 cells
    b. TH2 cells
    c. B-lymphocytes
    d. macrophages
A

a

37
Q
  1. This cell “decides” whether cell mediated immunity or humoral immunity takes place.
    a. T cells
    b. B cells
    c. antigen presenting cells
    d. none of the above
A

c

38
Q

. Which is not an example of active immunization:
a. live attenuated vaccines
b. combined vaccines
c. conjugate vaccines
d. none of the above

A

d

39
Q
  1. The mechanisms of antibiotic resistance include:
    A. alteration of drug target
    B. production of inactivating enzymes
    C. decreased antibiotic uptake

a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A and B only
e. A, B and C

A

e

40
Q
  1. If the safranin step is omitted, gram positive bacteria and gram negative bacteria will appear
    ______ and _______ respectively under a light microscope.
    a. colorless, colorless
    b. purple, pink
    c. purple colorless
    d. both colorless because bacteria can only be seen under an electron microscope
A

c

41
Q

Groups A strep are
a. alpha-hemolytic
b. beta-hemolytic
c. delta-hemolytic
d. gamma-hemolytic

A

c

42
Q

Clostridium species are unique because they
a. have a waxy outer layer
b. are anaerobic
c. are microaerophiles
d. are the deadliest species of positive bacilli

A

b

43
Q

clostridium tetani is transmitted through
a. puncture by rusty nail
b. skin trauma by any object contaminated with spores
c. eating improperly canned food
d. all of the above

A

b

44
Q

The following causes bloody and mucoid diarrhoea
a. E. coli O157:H7
b. Vibrio cholerae
c. Shigellae
d. Plasmodium

A

a

45
Q

The following causes malaria
a. E. coli O157:H7
b. Vibrio cholerae
c. Shigellae
d. Plasmodium

A

d

46
Q

This type of parasite can migrate to the brain
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Cryptospordium spp.
c. Taenia saginata
d. Taenia solium

A

d

47
Q

Which of the following is false about parasites?
a. metabolically and physiologically dependant on host
b. very common way of life
c. can be benificial to host in some cases
d. none of the above

A

c

48
Q

In the mantoux test tuberculin solution is injected
a. intravenous
b. intramuscular
c. intradermal
d. intraperitoneal

A

c

49
Q

Syphilis is caused by
a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Mycobacterium syphilis
d. none of the above

A

b

50
Q

he levels of fungal infections in order are
a. cutaneous, superficial, subcutaneous, systemic
b. superficial, cutaneous, subcutaneous, systemic
c. cutaneous, subcutaneous, superficial, systemic
d. systemic, superficial, cutaneous, subcutaneous

A

b

51
Q

In the event that you find an AIDS patient infected with a fungal infection, what fungus
would you suspect first?
a. histoplasmosis
b. coccidioidomycosis
c. cryptococcis
d. systemic candidiasis

A

c

52
Q

Name the 5 steps in viral replication and briefly describe each step

A
  1. Attachment/Binding: This step involves the virus attaching itself to a host cell. It is done through the recognition of receptors on the cell surface.
  2. Penetration/Uptake: After attachment, the virus penetrates the host cell by fusing with the cell membrane or by entering through endocytosis.
  3. Uncoating: The virus then releases its genetic material into the cell.
  4. Replication: The viral genetic material is then used to replicate and produce new viral components.
  5. Release: The newly-formed viruses are then released from the cell. This can be done by lysis of the cell (destroying it) or by budding off from the cell surface.
53
Q

Name the two tests important for viral diagnosis

A
  1. Detection of viruses in clinical specimens (electron microscopy)
  2. Detection of immune response (ex: detection of antibodies)
54
Q
  1. Name and describe the two types of serum tests
A
  1. Paired sera (to detect rise in antibody titre; two at different points in time – acute and convalescent phase)
  2. Serum (to detect a specific antibody, such as IgM or IgG)
55
Q

What is the name of the vaccine given for measles

A

MMR

56
Q

Name a similarity and difference between hepatitis A and hepatitis E

A

BOTH TRANSMITTED FAECEL-ORAL
A - mild infection in children
E- high mortality rate in preggo

57
Q

Explain what you would do to vaccinate against hepatitis delta agent and why such a method
would be effective

A

Vaccinate the B because delta agent isnt pathogenic without Hep B

58
Q

Why are CNS viruses of an animal origin rare?

A

animals often serve as “dead-end” hosts. This means that while the virus can infect and cause disease in the animal, it cannot be transmitted from the animal to another host.

59
Q

What are the 5 steps you should take if you have been bitten by an animal infected with rabies
virus?

A
  1. capture animal 2. wash and disinfect wound 3. Hyperimmune rabies immunoglobulin, of human origin, immediately. 4. Vaccine - a human diploid cell killed rabies virus vaccine (HDVC) now available; only 5 injections necessary; few side effects. 5. Notify Public Health Officers (Regional Health Units)
60
Q

Name three factors that play an essential role in transmission of infections and one way each is
controlled

A

Source treat the infection
Route ventilation
Host vaccination

61
Q

Name two different systems used for isolation procedures applied to infected patients

A
  1. Disease-specific: when specific recommendations are made for each of more than 160 different infectious diseases 2. Category-specific: when diseases of a similar degree of danger, route of transmission and similar isolation precautions are grouped together
62
Q

Name two different universal precautions

A

Name two different universal precautions
1. handwashing, minimizing exposure to blood
2. wearing mask

63
Q

Name five classes of microorganisms that are resistant to disinfectants in decreasing order

A
  1. Bacterial spores and protozoan cysts2. Mycobacteria3.Fungi4.Vegetative bacteria5.Enveloped viruses
64
Q

Name and describe the two types of immunization

A

1.Passive – short-term immunity, versions of toxin with little-no infectivity 2.Active – provide small quantities of the toxin, creates long-term immunity and a mild subclinical illness

65
Q

What is the least used cell culture?

A

The Pour method

66
Q

What type of vaccine would you give an employee who is going to a foreign country for one
month?

A

Passive

67
Q

What type of vaccine would you give an employee who is going to a foreign country for one
year?

A

Active

68
Q

Name three harmful effects of the immune response

A
  1. allergies 2. auto-immune disorders 3. graft rejection
69
Q

Give a similarity and difference for Clostridium tetani and Clostridium botulinum

A

both gram-postive bacilli, anaerobic Tetani - causes lockjaw lock Botulinum - neurotoxin that results in paralysis and bilateral drooping

70
Q

Name and describe the two forms of Chlamydiae

A
  1. Trachomatis - STD
    2.Pitsacci – BIRD pathogen, can be passed onto humans
71
Q

Name a parasite for each .
1. Aquired through water:
2. Aquired through food:
3. Aquired sexually:
4. Aquired through animals

A
  1. Aquired through water: Giardia Lambilia
  2. Aquired through food: cyclosporiasis
  3. Aquired sexually: trichomonas vaginalis
  4. Aquired through animals: toxoplasma gondi
72
Q
A

HSS1100 Microbiology and Immunology (13 decks)

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