Practice quiz for Final Exam

Question 1

Which of the following best describes asthma?
Select one:
a. Intermittent airway inflammation with occasional bronchospasm
b. A disease of bronchospasm that leads to airway inflammation
c. Chronic airway inflammation with superimposed bronchospasm
d. Relatively fixed airway constriction

Answer 1

c. Chronic airway inflammation with superimposed bronchospasm

Question 2

All of the following statements are true regarding the haversian system except:
Select one:
a. Spongy bone contains this system.
b. Compact bone contains this system
c. There are tiny spaces between the lamellae called lacunae.
d. There are concentric layers of bone matrix called lamellae.

Answer 2

a. Spongy bone contains this system.

Question 3

The most common cause of acute bursitis is:
Select one:
a. Inactivity.
b. Joint overuse. 
c. Fibromyalgia.
d. Bacterial infection.

Answer 3

b. Joint overuse

Question 4

Manifestations of primary hyperparathyroidism include:
Select one:
a. chronic hypercalcemia
b. increased bone resorption
c. hypercalciuria
d. all of the above

Answer 4

d. all of the above

Question 5

Which term describes the type of immunity that occurs when preformed antibodies are transferred from a donor to a recipient?
Select one:
a. Passive 
b. Active
c. Memory
d. Cellular

Answer 5

a. Passive

Question 6

All of the following are characteristics of inflammation except:
Select one:
a. warmth
b. palor 
c. pain
d. erythema

Answer 6

b. palor

Question 7

Risk factors for lateral epicondylitis  include all of the following except:
Select one:
a. Repetitive lifting
b. Playing tennis
c. Gout 
d. Hammering

Answer 7

c. Gout

Question 8

.Risk factors for acute gouty arthritis include:
Select one:
a. Obesity
b. Female gender
c. Rheumatoid arhthritis 
d. Joint trauma

Answer 8

Not RA

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
Select one:
a. It is more common in women at a 3:1 ratio.
b. Family history of autoimmune conditions is often reported.
c. Peak age for disease onset in individuals is age 50 to 70 years. Correct
d. Wrists, ankles, and toes are often involved.

Answer 9

c. Peak age for disease onset in individuals is age 50 to 70 years

Question 10

Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) contributes to all of the following except:
Select one:
a. inflammatory response
b. pain transmission
c. maintenance of gastric protective mucosal layer
d. Renal arteriole constriction.

Answer 10

c. maintenance of gastric protective mucosal layer

Question 11

Osteoporosis is defined as having a bone density more than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ standard deviation(s) below the average bone mass for women younger than 35 years old. 
Select one:
a. 1
b. 1.5
c. 2.5 
d. 4

Answer 11

c. 2.5

Question 12

Most of the body’s iron is obtained from:
Select one:
a. animal-based food sources
b. recycled iron content from aged red blood cells (RBCs)
c. endoplasmic reticulum production
d. vegetable-based food sources

Answer 12

b. recycled iron content from aged red blood cells (RBC

Question 13

Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein that influences a stem cell to become a:
Select one:
a. lymphocyte
b. platelet
c. neutrophil
d. red blood cell

Answer 13

d. red blood cell

Question 14

Neutrophils are:
Select one:
a. agranular
b. the predominant phagocytes of early inflammation
c. the largest cells in the body
d. enter the site of injury after lymphocytes and macrophages

Answer 14

b. the predominant phagocytes of early inflammation

Question 15

Results of hemogram (CBC) in a person with iron deficiency anemia include:
Select one:
a. microcytosis
b. elevated ferritin
c. reticulcytopenia
d. macrocytosis

Answer 15

a. microcytosis

Question 16

Which is most consistent with the diagnosis of COPD?
Select one:
a. FEV1/FVC ratio equal to or less than 0.70 after properly timed short-acting beta agonist (SABA, e.g., albuterol) use
b. Dyspnea on exhalation
c. Elevated diaphragms noted on chest x-ray
d. Polycythemia noted on complete blood cell count

Answer 16

a. FEV1/FVC ratio equal to or less than 0.70 after properly timed short-acting beta agonist (SABA, e.g., albuterol) use

Question 17

The diagnosis of fibromyalgia involves identifying multiple tender points throughout the body.  How many tender points must be identified to make the diagnosis?
Select one:
a. 4
b. 7
c. 11 
d. 18

Answer 17

c. 11

Question 18

Which of the following statements regarding vitamin D is false?
Select one:
a. diminishes the secretion of insulin
b. inhibits abnormal cellular growth
c. encourages the absorption and metabolism of calcium and phosphorous
d. reduces inflammation

Answer 18

a. diminishes the secretion of insulin

Question 19

The likely causative organisms of impetigo in a 6-year-old child include:
Select one:
a. H. influenzae and S. pneumoniae
b. group A streptococcus and S. aureus 
c. M. catarrhalis and adenovirus
d. P. aeruginosa and fungi

Answer 19

b. group A streptococcus and S. aureus

Question 20

Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions, such as atopic dermatitis, involve the action of which antibodies binding to receptor sites on mast cells?
Select one:
a. IgA
b. IgE 
c. IgG
d. IgM

Answer 20

b. IgE

Question 21

Psoriasis vulgaris is a chronic skin disease caused by:
Select one:
a. bacterial colonization
b. absence of melanin
c. accelerated mitosis 
d. type I hypersensitivity reaction

Answer 21

c. accelerated mitosis

Question 22

The most common  sites for squamous and basal cell carcinoma include:
Select one:
a. palms of hands and soles of feet
b. pelvic and lumbar regions
c. the abdomen
d. the face and scalp

Answer 22

d. the face and scalp

Question 23

The most common human papillomavirus types associated with cutaneous, non-genital warts includes:
Select one:
a. 1, 2, and 4
b. 6 and 11 
c. 16 and 18
d. 32 and 36

Answer 23

b. 6 and 11

Question 24

The most common causative organisms in cellulitis are:

Select one:

a. Escheria coli and Haemophilus influenzae
b. Bacterioides species and other anaerobes
c. group a beta-hemolytic streptococci and S. aureus
d. Pathogenic viruses

Answer 24

c. group a beta-hemolytic streptcocci and S. aureus

Question 25

Pernicious anemia is usually caused by: Select one: a. dietary deficiency of vitamin B12 b. lack of production of intrinsic factor by the gastric mucosa c. RBC enzyme deficiency d. a combination of micronutrient deficiencies caused by malabsorption

Answer 25

b. . lack of production of intrinsic factor by the gastric mucosa

Question 26

``` Which of the following is most consistent with the presentation of a patient with bipolar I disorder? Select one: a. Increased need for sleep b. Impulsive behavior c. Fatigue d. Anhedonia ```

Answer 26

b. Impulsive behavior

Question 27

A patient being is being evaluated in the urgent care clinic and is found to have hypokalemia. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding hypokalemia?

 Select one: a. Hypokalemia occurs when the serum level is below 135 mEq/L b. One cause of hypokalemia is diabetic ketoacidosis. c. Dietary causes of low potassium are common d. Diuretics do not cause hypokalemia

Answer 27

b. One cause of hypokalemia is diabetic ketoacidosis

Question 28

Which statement is true regarding stress and the immune system? Select one: a. Seasonal allergies are related to stress. b. Cardiovascular disease is one condition that is related to stress. c. The level of proinflammatory cytokines is decreased. d. Negative emotions cause few alterations in cytokine production.

Answer 28

b. Cardiovascular disease is one condition that is related to stress.

Question 29

``` Hypothyroidism most often develops as a result of: Select one: a. primary pituitary failure b. thyroid neoplasia c. autoimmune thyroiditis d. radioactive iodine exposure ```

Answer 29

c. autoimmune thyroiditis

Question 30

``` The most common risk factor for stroke is: Select one: a. Hypertension b. Factor V Leiden c. Obesity d. Alcohol consumption ```

Answer 30

a. Hypertension

Question 31

Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM)? Select one: a. Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis may occur as a result of lack of insulin. b. This condition is commonly diagnosed on routine examination or work-up for other health problems. c. Insulin resistance is a significant part of the disease. d. A major risk factor is obesit

Answer 31

a.. Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis may occur as a result of lack of insulin.

Question 32

``` An abnormality of which of the following is the most sensitive marker for myocardial damage? Select one: a. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) b. Creatine phosphokinase (CPK) c. Troponin 1 (cTn1) d. Lactate dehydrogenase ```

Answer 32

c. Troponin 1 (cTn1)

Question 33

``` Which of the following genes in their normal state negatively regulate proliferation? Select one: a. Oncogenes b. Tumor suppressor genes c. Proto-oncogenes d. Telomeres ```

Answer 33

b. Tumor suppressor genes

Question 34

``` Which process is responsible for slowing the heart rate? Select one: a. Sympathetic excitation b. Parasympathetic excitation c. Baroreceptor reflex d. Bainbridge reflex ```

Answer 34

b. Parasympathetic excitation