Practice Test #1 Flashcards

(90 cards)

1
Q

What Ethernet feature will allow increased FCoE network throughput as long as all network devices recognize their specific size?

Quality of service

Jumbo frames

Frame relay

TCP offloading

A

Jumbo frames

OBJ 2.2: By allowing jumbo frames, network throughput can be increased. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is a computer network technology that encapsulates Fibre Channel frames over Ethernet networks. This allows Fibre Channel to use 10 Gigabit Ethernet networks (or higher speeds) while preserving the Fibre Channel protocol. Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with more than 1500 bytes of payload, the IEEE 802.3 standard limit.

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2
Q

You work for Dion Training as a physical security manager. You are concerned that the physical security at the entrance to the company is not sufficient. To increase the security, you are determined to prevent piggybacking. What technique should you implement first?

Install a RFID badge reader at the entrance

Require all employees to wear security badges when entering the building

Install CCTV to monitor the entrance

Install an access control vestibule at the entrance

A

Install an access control vestibule at the entrance

Overall explanation
An access control vestibule, or mantrap, is a device that only allows a single person to enter per authentication.

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3
Q

Which of the following authentication protocols was developed by Cisco to provide authentication, authorization, and accounting services?

TACACS+

RADIUS

Kerberos

CHAP

A

TACACS+

TACACS+ is an extension to TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System) and was developed as a proprietary protocol by Cisco.

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4
Q

Which of the following communication types can only be used with IPv6?

Broadcast

Anycast

Multicast

Unicast

A

Anycast

OBJ 1.4: Anycast only works with IPv6. Anycast communications are sent to the nearest receiver in a group of receivers with the same IP.

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5
Q

What is the broadcast address associated with the host located at
189.76.60.164/26?

189.76.60.192

189.76.60.191

189.76.60.129

189.76.60.128

A

189.76.60.191

Explanation:
The notation /26 means that the first 26 bits of the IP address are used for the network portion. The corresponding subnet mask in dotted-decimal notation is 255.255.255.192. With /26, there are 6 bits available for host addresses (since 32 - 26 = 6), resulting in 2⁶ = 64 total addresses per subnet.
Step 2: Determine the Subnet’s Range

Since each subnet contains 64 addresses, the valid ranges (in the fourth octet) will increment by 64. The possible ranges in the fourth octet are as follows:

0 to 63,
64 to 127,
128 to 191,
192 to 255.

Step 3: Locate the Host’s Subnet

The given IP address is 189.76.60.164. Look at the last octet (164) to determine which block it falls into. Since 164 is between 128 and 191, the network this address belongs to starts at 189.76.60.128.
Step 4: Identify the Broadcast Address

In any subnet, the broadcast address is the very last address in the range. For a subnet that starts at 189.76.60.128 and has 64 addresses, the broadcast address is:

  Network Address + (Total Addresses - 1)
  = 128 + 63
  = 191

Thus, the broadcast address is 189.76.60.191.

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6
Q

After deploying a new subnet for a department, a network technician finds that devices in this subnet experience intermittent connectivity issues. Investigation reveals IP address conflicts. What TWO items should be checked to ensure resolution of this situation?

Port security settings

STP configurations

Routing table

Potential Duplicate IP address

DHCP scopes

A

Potential Duplicate IP Addresses

DHCP scopes

Overall explanation

OBJ 5.3 - Duplicate IP addresses can cause the connectivity issues described, as multiple devices attempting to use the same IP can intermittently disrupt each other’s connections. DHCP scopes should also be reviewed to ensure they are correctly configured and not overlapping with static IP assignments, which can lead to duplicates.

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7
Q

You are working at the service desk as a network security technician and just received the following email from an end-user who believes a spear phishing campaign is being attempted against them:

From: user@diontraining.com

To: susanne@diontraining.com

Subject: You won a free iPhone!

Dear Susanne,

You have won a brand new iPhone! Just click the following link to provide your address so we can ship it out to you this afternoon: (http://www.freesmartphone.io:8080/claim.php)

What should you do to prevent any other employees from accessing the link in the email above while still allowing them access to any other webpages at the domain freesmartphone.io?

Add DENY IP ANY ANY EQ 8080 to the IPS filter

Add DENY TCP http://www.freesmartphone.io ANY EQ 8080 to the firewall ACL

Add http://www.freesmartphone.io:8080/claim.php to the load balancer

Add http://www.freesmartphone.io:8080/claim.php to the browser’s group policy block list

A

Add http://www.freesmartphone.io:8080/claim.php to the browser’s group policy block list

Overall explanation
OBJ 4.3: There are two ways to approach this question. First, you can consider which is the right answer (if you know it). By adding the full URL of the phishing link to the browser’s group policy block list (or black hole list), the specific webpage will be blocked from being accessed by the employees while allowing the rest of the freesmartphone.io domain to be accessible. Now, why not just block the entire domain? Well, maybe the rest of the domain isn’t suspect, but just this one page is. (For example, maybe someone is using a legitimate site like GitHub to host their phishing campaign. Therefore, you only want to block their portion of GitHub.) The second approach to answering this question would be to rule out the incorrect answers. If you used DENY TCP to the firewall ACL answer, you would block all access to the domain, blocking legitimate traffic as well as possible malicious activity. If you used the DENY IP ANY ANY to filter traffic at the IPS, you would block any IP traffic to ANY website over port 8080. If you added the link to the load balancer, this would not block it either. Therefore, we are only left with the correct answer of using a group policy in this case.

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8
Q

What is the network ID associated with the host located at 172.16.200.130/26?

172.16.200.0

172.16.200.128

172.16.200.129

172.16.200.127

A

172.16.200.128

OBJ 1.7: In classless subnets using variable length subnet mask (VLSM), the network ID is the first IP address associated within an assigned range. In this example, the CIDR notation is /26, so each subnet will contain 64 IP addresses. Since the IP address provided is 172.16.200.130, it will be in the 172.16.200.128/26 network.

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9
Q

Which of the following types of agreements is used to protect an organization’s intellectual property and is considered legally binding between the signatories?

SLA

AUP

MOU

NDA

A

NDA

Overall explanation
OBJ 3.1: A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is a documented agreement between two parties that define what data is considered confidential and cannot be shared outside of that relationship. An NDA is used to protect an organization’s intellectual property. An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules applied by the owner, creator, or administrator of a network, website, or service, that restrict the ways in which the network, website, or system may be used and sets guidelines as to how it should be used. A memorandum of understanding (MOU) is a non-binding agreement between two or more organizations to detail what common actions they intend to take. A service level agreement (SLA) is a documented commitment between a service provider and a client, where the quality, availability, and responsibilities are agreed upon by both parties.

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10
Q

Michael, a system administrator, is troubleshooting an issue remotely accessing a new Windows server on the local area network using its hostname. He cannot remotely access the new server, but he can access another Windows server using its hostname on the same subnet. Which of the following commands should he enter on his workstation to resolve this connectivity issue?

C:\windows\system32> route print

C:\windows\system32> nbtstat –R

C:\windows\system32> nslookup

C:\windows\system32> ipconfig /flushdns

A

C:\windows\system32> nbtstat –R

Overall explanation
OBJ 5.5: Since this is a Windows-based network, the client is likely attempting to connect to the servers using NetBIOS. NetBIOS stores a local cached name table in the LMHOSTS file on each client. If the entry in the client file is pointing to the wrong IP, this could cause the connectivity issues described. Therefore, the system administrator should enter the “nbtstat -R” command to purge and reload the cached name table from the LMHOST file on their Windows workstation. The nslookup command is used to query the domain name system (DNS) to obtain information about host addresses, mail exchanges, nameservers, and related information. The nslookup command has an interactive and non-interactive mode. The ipconfig command is used on Windows devices to display the current TCP/IP network configuration and refresh the DHCP and DNS settings on a given host. The route command is used to create, view, or modify manual entries in the network routing tables of a computer or server.

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11
Q

A network administrator is tasked with connecting two buildings in an enterprise network. They decide to use fiber optic cabling for high-speed data transmission. Which type of fiber optic cable is best suited for long-distance communication between the buildings?

Coaxial Cable

Multimode fiber

Direct attach copper (DAC) cable

Single-mode fiber

A

Single-mode fiber

Overall explanation

OBJ 1.5 - Single-mode fiber is ideal for long-distance communication because it uses a single light path, minimizing signal loss and allowing data to travel farther compared to multimode fiber. Multimode fiber is better suited for shorter distances due to higher signal dispersion. Direct attach copper cables are typically used for short-range, high-speed connections, such as within data centers. Coaxial cable is not designed for the high-speed, long-distance requirements of fiber optic networks.

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12
Q

Which network protocol is commonly used for centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for remote access users?

SNMP

LDAP

POP3

RADIUS

A

RADIUS

Explanation:
RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) is specifically designed for remote authentication and authorization, providing a centralized system for managing user access to network resources, making it the correct choice. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for network management and monitoring, not for authentication purposes. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is an email retrieval protocol and is not used for authentication of remote access users. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is often used for directory services such as user authentication, but it lacks the robust features of RADIUS, particularly in managing remote access user sessions.

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13
Q

In a bustling office environment, employees rely heavily on the company’s Wi-Fi network to access resources, collaborate, and communicate. However, lately, users have been encountering difficulties connecting their devices to the network. Despite being within range of the Wi-Fi access points, devices struggle to obtain IP addresses and often fail to connect to the network altogether. The IT department is tasked with resolving these connectivity issues promptly. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the reported network issues?

Outdated firmware on Wi-Fi access points

Address Pool Exhaustion

Interference from nearby electronic devices

Configuration error in DHCP settings

A

Address Pool Exhaustion

Overall explanation
OBJ 5.3: Address Pool Exhaustion occurs when all available IP addresses are assigned, preventing new devices from connecting. Interference may disrupt connectivity but doesn’t address the inability to obtain IP addresses. DHCP configuration errors could cause problems, but Address Pool Exhaustion directly relates to the reported issue. Outdated firmware could cause issues but doesn’t explain the inability to connect due to IP address unavailability.

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14
Q

Which of the following types of hosting would an organization use if they wanted to maintain their own datacenter in their worldwide headquarters?

Collocation

Branch Office

Cloud

On-Premise

A

On-Premise

Overall explanation
OBJ 1.8 - If you use an on-premise data center, then you are using a traditional, private data infrastructure where your organization has its own datacenter that houses all of its servers and networking equipment that will support its operations. A branch office is a smaller office that connects back to an on-premise solution or maintains their own smaller version of an on-premise solution. In a colocation arrangement, your organization would place their servers and network equipment in a data center environment owned by another company. Essentially, you would rent space in their datacenter instead of having to build your own. Cloud hosting relies upon a cloud service provider to provide the hardware and infrastructure for an organization’s virtualized datacenter needs.

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15
Q

A technician is called to investigate a connectivity issue to a remote office connected by a fiber optic cable. Using a light meter, it is determined that there is excessive dB loss. The installation has been working for several years. The switch was recently moved to the other side of the room and a new patch cable was installed. Which of the following is most likely the reason for the excessive dB loss?

Distance Limitations

Wavelength mismatch

Bend radius limitation

Dirty connectors

A

Dirty connectors

Overall explanation
OBJ 5.2: When fiber optic connectors become dirty, signal loss can cause severe problems and performance issues. Something as simple as oil from a technician’s hand can render a fiber connector dirty and cause a loss of signal. The technician will need to use appropriate cleaning cloth to clean the dirty connectors and restore the service. Since the switch was only moved to the other side of the room, it is unlikely that it now exceeds the distance limitations for a fiber cable since those are measured in hundreds of meters. The question does not mention that the cable was bent or moved around a corner, therefore it is unlikely to be a bend radius limitation affecting the signal. Fiber optic cables use different wavelengths depending on the type of fiber optic cable being used. Multimode fibers use 850 or 1300 nanometer wavelengths, whereas single-mode fibers use 1550 nanometer wavelengths. It is unlikely that the wrong patch cable was used as most organizations only implement a single type of fiber infrastructure to minimize the number and type of cables needed to support them.

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16
Q

Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv4 address?

192.168.1.254

192:168:1:55

00:AB:FA:B1:07:34

::1

A

192.168.1.254

Overall explanation
OBJ 1.7: An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits. IPv4 addresses are written in dotted octet notation, such as 192.168.1.254. MAC addresses are writing as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34. IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits, but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost. The other option, 192:168:1:55 is not a valid address since it uses : instead of a . in between the octets.

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17
Q

Mark is in charge of redesigning the network infrastructure for a corporate office that will soon migrate to high-speed fiber optic internet. To ensure the network’s physical layer is robust, easily manageable, and future-proof, Mark must choose an appropriate way to manage the incoming fiber optic connections and distribute them throughout the building. What is the best option for Mark to implement in this scenario?

Use a fiber distribution panel for efficient management of fiber optic connections.

Implement a centralized virtual LAN (VLAN) configuration for easier network management.

Replace all existing copper cables with fiber optics to ensure compatibility.

Configure additional DHCP scopes to accommodate the increased network capacity.

A

Use a fiber distribution panel for efficient management of fiber optic connections.

Overall explanation
OBJ 2.4 - Using a fiber distribution panel is the best option for efficiently managing fiber optic connections in a corporate office network infrastructure. It provides a centralized point for connecting incoming fiber optic lines to the network’s backbone and distributing them throughout the building, facilitating easier management, troubleshooting, and future expansions. Configuring additional DHCP scopes increases the network’s IP address capacity but does not relate to managing physical fiber optic connections. Implementing a centralized VLAN configuration would help with network management on the software layer but does not address the physical management of fiber optic connections. Replacing all existing copper cables with fiber optics ensures compatibility with high-speed internet but does not address the organization and distribution of these connections.

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18
Q

Max is a network technician who just terminated the ends on a new copper cable used between two legacy switches. When he connects the two switches using the cable, they fail to establish a connection. What is MOST likely the issue?

The cable has exceeded bend radius limitations

The cable is a straight-through cable

The cable has RJ-11 connectors instead of RJ-45

The cable is a crossover cable

A

The cable is a straight-through cable

Overall explanation
OBJ 2.2: There are two types of cable, Straight-through and Crossover. In this instance, a crossover cable would need to be used to communicate with legacy switches since they won’t support MDIX. A medium dependent interface crossover (MDIX) is a version of the medium dependent interface (MDI) enabling a connection between corresponding devices, such as a switch to another switch. If the switch doesn’t MDIX, then you must use a crossover cable to connect them. Bend radius cannot be the correct answer to this question since copper cables are being used and not fiber cables. Bend radius is a concern when using fiber cables as it leads to increase reflections and a decrease in signal strength. An RJ-11 connector only has 6 pins and is smaller than an RJ-45 connector. The technician would visually be able to see the difference as the RJ-11 connector would not fit properly in the switchports.

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19
Q

Which statement accurately describes Layer 2 encapsulation in Virtual Extensible Local Area Network (VXLAN)?

VXLAN encapsulates Layer 2 frames within Layer 4 TCP packets.

VXLAN encapsulates Layer 3 packets within Layer 2 frames.

VXLAN encapsulates Layer 2 frames within Layer 2 Ethernet packets.

VXLAN encapsulates Layer 2 frames within Layer 3 UDP packets.

A

VXLAN encapsulates Layer 2 frames within Layer 3 UDP packets.

Explanation:

VXLAN encapsulates Layer 2 Ethernet frames within Layer 3 UDP packets, specifically using User Datagram Protocol (UDP) as the transport protocol. This encapsulation allows for the creation of virtual Layer 2 networks over Layer 3 infrastructure, facilitating efficient communication between virtual machines across different physical networks. The other options describe incorrect encapsulation methods.

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20
Q

Dion Training has just purchased a new domain name and needs to indicate which DNS server is the definitive information source for the domain. Which type of DNS record should be created?

AAAA

SOA

MX

A

A

Start of Authority (SOA)

Explanation:
OBJ 3.4: A Start of Authority (SOA) resource record indicates which Domain Name Server (DNS) is the best source of information for the specified domain. An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic.

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21
Q

Which type of VPN specifically allows users to remotely access a private network without requiring them to install any special software or plugins?

Site-to-Site

SSL VPN

IPsec VPN

Clientless

A

Clientless

Overall explanation
OBJ 3.5 - Clientless VPNs enable users to access a private network through a web browser without needing to install additional software, which provides convenience and flexibility for remote access without compromising security. Site-to-Site VPNs establish secure connections between two separate networks, such as branch offices or data centers. These site-to-site VPNs can be clientless, however there is no restriction for them to be configured this way, making it incorrect. SSL VPNs utilize the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol to establish secure connections between users and the private network. While SSL VPNs can be clientless, not all SSL VPN implementations are clientless. IPsec VPNs use the Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) protocol suite to secure communication between two devices or networks. While IPsec VPNs provide strong security for remote access, they typically require client software installation, unlike clientless VPNs.

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22
Q

What metric does OSPF use for route selection?

Bandwidth

Your answer is incorrect

Hop count

Load

Cost

A

Cost

Overall explanation
OBJ 2.1 - OSPF uses cost as its metric for route selection, which is calculated based on the bandwidth of the links. The lower the cost, the more preferred the route. This allows OSPF to select the most efficient path based on the link speeds. While OSPF’s cost metric is influenced by bandwidth, “bandwidth” itself is not the metric OSPF uses directly. “Load” is not a metric used by OSPF for route selection; it primarily relies on cost, which is derived from link bandwidth. “Hop count” is the metric used by RIP, not OSPF.

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23
Q

A technician is testing a new web-based tool capable of generating an automatic teller machine (ATM) cash and service availability reports. A consortium of financial institutions developed the web-based tool. Which of the following cloud delivery models is being described in this scenario?

Private

Community

Public

Hybrid

A

Community

Overall explanation
OBJ 1.3: A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third-party and hosted internally or externally. The scenario described is a community cloud created tool by the banking industry.

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24
Q

What can be issued from the command line to find the layer 3 hops to a remote destination?

netstat

ping

traceroute

nslookup

A

traceroute

OBJ 5.5: Traceroute will determine every hop between the host and the destination using ICMP. Traceroute is used for Linux and UNIX systems. Tracert is used for Windows systems. The traceroute command will issue a series of pings from the host to the destination, incrementing the time to live (TTL) by one each time. As each packet passes through a router or firewall, the TTL is decreased by one. If the TTL for a packet reaches zero, it will send an error message back to the host. By doing this, the host can map out each hop in the network from the host to the destination. The netstat command is used to display the network statistics. The nslookup command is used to display and troubleshoot DNS records. The ping command is used to test the end to end connectivity between a host and a destination. The netstat, nslookup, and ping commands cannot be used to find the layer 3 hops to a remote destination.

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25
It is 3 am on a Saturday, and you just received a call from a system administrator that reports multiple network outages across the office network. It is snowing heavily outside, and the roads are inaccessible for you to get to the building to check the configuration of the network devices. What technology should you use to connect to the datacenter's network from home in order to troubleshoot the network outages? HTTP SSH SNMP Telnet
SSH Overall explanation OBJ 3.5: You should use a VPN or an SSH connection to connect to your office network from home remotely. Either of these options would provide you with an encrypted tunnel to the office network and allow you to begin troubleshooting remotely just as if you were physically located inside the building. SNMP isn't used for troubleshooting but instead for network monitoring and reporting. Telnet and HTTP are both insecure and should not be used to connect to your office network from home without the fear of the information being intercepted or changed.
26
Which type of antenna broadcasts an RF signal in a specific direction with a narrow path? Unidirectional Bidirectional Omnidirectional Patch
Unidirectional Overall explanation OBJ 2.3: Directional antennas broadcast radio frequencies in a single direction (unidirectional) or two directions (bidirectional) to create a zone or area of coverage. Unidirectional antennas focus the broadcast signal in a single direction instead of all directions, focusing the transmission and making the signal stronger. A specific type of unidirectional antenna is known as a Yagi antenna. Omnidirectional antennas broadcast radio frequencies in all directions creating a large sphere of coverage. The antenna has the capability to send and receive signals in a circumference around the antenna. A patch antenna is a type of antenna with a low profile that can be mounted on a surface. A patch antenna can be omnidirectional, bidirectional, or unidirectional, therefore it is not the best answer to this question and unidirectional should be chosen instead.
27
Jason is a client who has called your department multiple times about the poor video conferencing quality he has been having, which includes delays and choppy audio. You've been tasked with identifying the cause of these performance issues on the network. Which of the following are the MOST likely PRIMARY factors for the poor video conferencing quality? (Choose TWO.) Insufficient Bandwidth Packet Loss High Latency Network Congestion User Error
Packet Loss High Latency Overall explanation OBJ 5.4 - High latency and Packet Loss are the likely causes of the poor video conferencing quality described, for delays and choppy audio. High latency can result in significant delays, causing the video and audio data not to be synchronized properly during the conference. Packet loss is also a primary factor, since packet loss directly impacts the quality of video conferencing by causing gaps in the audio and video stream. Insufficient bandwidth primarily affects the quality and resolution of the video rather than causing delays and choppy audio. Network congestion can lead to increased latency and packet loss, making it a plausible cause for poor video conferencing quality. However, it is more of a contributing factor to the latency and packet loss rather than the primary cause.
28
In the context of network baselines, what term refers to an unusual deviation from the established patterns of network activity? Anomaly Normalization Baseline drift Network Calibration
Anomaly Overall explanation OBJ 3.2: An anomaly signifies an unexpected deviation from typical network behavior, essential for identifying potential security breaches or performance issues. Normalization and calibration are processes unrelated to anomaly detection. Baseline drift refers to gradual changes over time, distinct from sudden anomalies
29
Your router has been turning itself off and on again for a few weeks. You begin to think back to when these issues began to occur and remember that each time it happened the lights also dimmed momentarily. You hook up a device to monitor the power being supplied to the router and identify that brownouts are frequently occurring, resulting in the router's power cycling. What should you (a network technician) do to solve this problem? Install an upgraded router Install a new electrical outlet Install a surge protector Install a UPS
Install a UPS Overall explanation OBJ 2.4: The best solution would be to install a UPS. Since you are a network technician and not an electrician, you should not install a new electrical circuit. The primary function of UPS is to provide battery backup when the electrical power fails or drops to an unacceptable voltage level. It ensures that your electrical equipment gets a consistent current so damage and device power cycling does not occur.
30
Which type of threat actor can accidentally or inadvertently cause a security incident in your organization? APT Hacktivist Insider Threat Organized Crime
Insider Threat Overall explanation OBJ 4.2: An insider threat is a type of threat actor assigned privileges on the system that cause an intentional or unintentional incident. Insider threats can be used as unwitting pawns of external organizations or make crucial mistakes that can open up exploitable security vulnerabilities. Hacktivists, Organized Crimes, and advanced persistent threats (APT) entities do not accidentally or unwittingly target organizations. Instead, their actions are deliberate in nature. A hacktivist is an attacker that is motivated by a social issue or political cause. Organized crime is a type of threat actor that uses hacking and computer fraud for commercial gain. An advanced persistent threat (APT) is a type of threat actor who can obtain, maintain, and diversify access to network systems using exploits and malware.
31
What network device uses ACLs to prevent unauthorized access into company systems? Load Balancer Content Filter IDS Firewall
Firewall Overall explanation OBJ 1.2: A firewall is a network security device designed to prevent systems or traffic from unauthorized access. An ACL is a list that shows which traffic or devices should be allowed into or denied from accessing the network. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or systems for malicious activity or policy violations. An IDS uses signatures, not ACLs. Content filtering is the use of a program to screen and/or exclude access to web pages or emails deemed objectionable. A load balancer distributes a set of tasks over a set of resources, with the aim of making their overall processing more efficient.
32
Which is a key function of a UPS in a data center? Ensuring Continuous Power to Equipment Providing Temporary Surge Protection Facilitating Data Backup Maximizing Energy Consumption
Ensuring Continuous Power to the Equipment Overall explanation OBJ 2.4: UPS systems maintain a steady power supply during outages, preventing downtime and ensuring equipment remains operational. While UPS systems offer surge protection, their primary role is to provide continuous power during outages, not just temporary protection. UPS systems focus on power continuity, not energy consumption. Their role is to prevent disruptions, not to optimize energy use. While UPS helps avoid data loss during power outages, its primary function is power continuity, not direct involvement in data backup processes.
33
Stella, a web developer, has asked for your assistance in troubleshooting her latest website. When she attempts to connect to the web server as a user, the web browser issues a standard HTTP request to the server but continually receives a timeout response in return. You decide to capture the entire TCP handshake between her workstation and the webserver to better troubleshoot this issue. Which of the following tools would BEST allow you to capture and review the HTTP request and response between the client and the webserver? Protocol analyzer Spectrum analyzer Port scanner Tone generator
Protocol Analyzer Overall explanation OBJ 5.5: A protocol analyzer is used to capture network traffic on a network and display it for analysis. A protocol analyzer, like Wireshark, can capture the entire network packet as it transits the network and display it according to the different layers of the OSI model. A spectrum analyzer is used to measure the magnitude of an input signal's frequency. A tone generator is used with a toner probe to accurately identify the location of a cable pair or conductor within a wiring bundle, cross-connection point, or at the remote end. A port scanner is used to determine which ports and services are open and available for communication on a target system.
34
Clara is a network administrator troubleshooting a connectivity issue within her network. She suspects that there might be an IP address conflict or an issue with how IP addresses are associated with MAC addresses on the network. To help diagnose the problem further, she opens a terminal and types in the command 'show arp'. What helpful details would she expect to see for output after pressing enter? The routing table with all known routes and their metrics A list of active TCP connections and their state. Statistics on packets processed by the network interfaces A table displaying the IP-to-MAC address mappings on the network
A table displaying the IP-to-MAC address mappings on the network Overall explanation OBJ 5.5 - The 'show arp' command displays the ARP table, which contains the IP-to-MAC address mappings for devices on the network. This is crucial for diagnosing IP address conflicts and ensuring that the network correctly associates IP addresses with the right hardware addresses. Statistics on packets processed by the network interfaces, describes the kind of information you might see from commands like 'netstat -i' or 'ifconfig', which provide statistics on packets processed by network interfaces. A list of active TCP connections and their state, describes the output of a command like 'netstat', which shows network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, masquerade connections, and multicast memberships. The routing table with all known routes and their metrics describes the output of the 'show ip route' command, which displays the routing table, including all known routes and their details.
35
You are working as a service desk analyst. This morning, you have received multiple calls from users reporting that they cannot access websites from their work computers. You decide to troubleshoot the issue by opening up your command prompt on your Windows machine and running a program to determine where the network connectivity outage is occurring. This tool tests the end-to-end connection and reports on each hop found in the connection. Which tool should you use to determine if the issue is on the intranet portion of your corporate network or if it is occurring due to a problem with your ISP? tracert netstat ping nslookup
tracert Overall explanation OBJ 5.5: Tracert is a command-line utility used to trace an IP packet's path as it moves from its source to its destination. While using ping will tell you if the remote website is reachable or not, it will not tell you where the connection is broken. Tracert performs a series of ICMP echo requests to determine which device in the connection path is not responding appropriately. This will help to identify if the connectivity issue lies within your intranet or is a problem with the ISP's connection. The nslookup tool is used to troubleshoot DNS issues. The netstat tool is used to display network statistics and active connections. The ping tool is used to test an end-to-end connection, but it will not provide any data on the hops found in the connection.
36
Kai, a network engineer, is troubleshooting an issue where a client cannot resolve domain names to IP addresses. They suspect the problem lies with the DNS server the client is querying. Which type of DNS server directly answers the queries for domains it is responsible for, ensuring the response is accurate and up-to-date? Recursive DNS server Non-authoritative DNS server Authoritative DNS server Secondary DNS server
Authoritative DNS server Overall explanation OBJ 3.4 - An Authoritative DNS server is responsible for providing answers to queries about domains it is directly responsible for. It contains the most accurate and updated information about the domain names it serves. A Non-authoritative DNS server provides answers from its cache, which might not be up to date. A Recursive DNS server queries other servers on behalf of the client until it finds the answer. A Secondary DNS server is a backup server that holds a read-only copy of the zone file from the primary DNS server.
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Which of the following describes a design where traffic is shared between multiple network servers to provide greater throughput and reliability? Load balancing MPLS trunking VLAN tagging Multiplexing
Load balancing Overall explanation OBJ 3.3 - Load balancing is a technique used to spread work across multiple computers, network links, or other devices. Multiprotocol Label Switching is a routing technique in telecommunications networks that directs data from one node to the next based on short path labels rather than long network addresses, thus avoiding complex lookups in a routing table and speeding traffic flows. VLAN tagging is used to keep traffic from different networks separate when traversing shared links and devices within a network topology. Multiplexing is the technology that is able to combine multiple communication signals together in order for them to traverse an otherwise single signal communication medium simultaneously.
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You have been asked to run a cable between a drop ceiling and a standard ceiling and ensure it meets your local government's fire safety requirements. The cable will be used to support a 10GBaseT network connection for up to 100 meters. Which of the following cables should you select to meet these requirements? PVC Cat 6a PVC Cat 5e Plenum Cat 6a Plenum Cat 5e
Plenum Cat 6a Overall explanation OBJ 5.2: Cat 6a can also support 10Gbps for up to 100 meters using 10GBaseT. Cat 5e can only support 1000BaseT (1 Gbps) connections. Since we are concerned with the cable's fire safety rating, we should use a Plenum cable, not a PVC cable. Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space, such as the space between a drop ceiling and the standard ceiling. PVC (Polyvinyl Chloride) is what your standard Category 5e and Category 6 cable jacket are constructed of. This PVC jacket when burning or smoldering releases hydrochloric acid and dioxin which are both toxic. For this reason, PVC cannot be used in-between the drop ceiling and the standard ceiling
39
You have been asked to install a media converter that connects a newly installed multimode cable to the existing Cat 5e infrastructure. Which type of media converter should you use? Ethernet to coaxial Multimode to single-mode Fiber to ethernet Fiber to coaxial
Fiber to Ethernet Overall explanation OBJ 1.5: A media converter is a Layer 1 device that changes one type of physical network connection to another. In this case, we are converting multimode (fiber) cable to Cat 5e (ethernet) cable.
40
What is used to authenticate remote workers who connect from offsite? Virtual PBX OSPF VTP trunking 802.1x
802.1x Overall explanation OBJ 4.1: 802.1x can be used to enhance the security of wireless local area networks (WLANs). WLANs provide an authentication framework, allowing a user to be authenticated by a central authority. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) allows a company to maintain user profiles in a central database that all remote servers can share. It provides better security, allowing a company to set up a policy applied at a single administered network point. Remote users connect to one or more Remote Access Servers. The remote access servers then forward the authentication requests to the central RADIUS server. 802.1X is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a network. 802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client that wishes to attach to the network. The authenticator is a network device, such as an Ethernet switch, wireless access point, or in this case, a remote access server, and the authentication server is the RADIUS server.
41
You are working as a network administrator for Dion Training. The company has decided to allow employees to connect their devices to the corporate wireless network under a new BYOD policy. You have been asked to separate the corporate network into an administrative network (for corporate-owned devices) and an untrusted network (for employee-owned devices). Which of the following technologies should you implement to achieve this goal? VLAN MAC filtering WPA2 VPN
VLAN Overall explanation OBJ 4.1: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a type of network segmentation configured in your network switches that prevent communications between different VLANs without using a router. This allows two virtually separated networks to exist on one physical network and separates the two virtual network's data. A virtual private network (VPN) is a remote access capability to connect a trusted device over an untrusted network back to the corporate network. A VPN would not create the desired effect. WPA2 is a type of wireless encryption, but it will not create two different segmented networks on the same physical hardware. MAC filtering is used to allow or deny a device from connecting to a network, but it will not create two network segments, as desired.
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In network administration, which technique is commonly used for monitoring network traffic without disrupting normal operations? STP NAT Port Mirroring VLAN tagging
Port Mirroring Overall explanation OBJ 3.2: Port mirroring directs a copy of network traffic from one port (or ports) to another port for analysis, allowing monitoring without disruption. VLAN tagging separates network traffic, NAT (Network Address Translation) translates IP addresses, and STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) prevents loops; however, none specifically facilitate traffic monitoring like port mirroring.
43
Clifford is troubleshooting a connectivity issue and wants to verify which TCP ports are open on a destination server. He decides to use Nmap for this purpose. Which Nmap flag should Clifford use to conduct a TCP connect scan? -sT -O -sV -sU
-sT (Think Scan TCP) Overall explanation OBJ 5.5 - The -sT flag in Nmap initiates a TCP connect scan. This type of scan is used to establish a connection to every open port on the target host, making it effective for identifying open TCP ports. -sV scans for service version information, which, while it does probe TCP ports, its primary purpose is not to conduct a basic TCP connect scan. sU is used for scanning UDP ports and will not show open TCP ports. -O is intended for operating system detection and does not identify open TCP ports
44
In a redundant network design, which protocol enables multiple routers to share a virtual IP address, providing seamless failover in case of an active router failure? ICMP HSRP ARP OSPF
HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) Overall explanation OBJ 2.1: Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) allows multiple routers to work together, providing a virtual IP address to ensure continuous connectivity even if the active router fails. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol, not a First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) for virtual IP address management. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is essential for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses but is not an FHRP. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for error reporting and diagnostics and is not related to FHRP functionality.
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Which of the following technologies allows two or more links to pass network traffic as if they were one physical link? SLAAC LACP STP POE
LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) Overall explanation OBJ 2.2: The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) enables you to assign multiple physical links to a logical interface that will appear as a single link to a route processor. LACP is used to combine multiple network connections in parallel to increase throughput beyond what a single connection could sustain and to provide redundancy in case one of the links should fail. LACP is defined in the IEEE 802.3ad standard. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a network protocol that builds a loop-free logical topology for Ethernet networks to prevent bridge loops and the broadcast storms that result from them. STP is defined in the IEEE 802.1d standard. Power over Ethernet (POE) is a technology that lets network cables carry electrical power. POE is defined in the IEEE 802.3af. SLAAC is used to automatically assign an IPv6 address to a host.
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What is the network ID associated with the host located at 189.76.60.164/26? 189.76.60.64 189.76.60.192 189.76.60.128 189.76.60.0
189.76.60.128 Overall explanation In classless subnets using variable length subnet mask (VLSM), the network ID is the first IP address associated within an assigned range. In this example, the CIDR notation is /26, so each subnet will contain 64 IP addresses. This means that there are four networks in this class C range: 189.76.60.0, 189.76.60.64, 189.76.60.128, and 189.76.60.192. Since the IP address provided is 189.76.60.164, it will be in the 189.76.60.128/26 network.
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Jasmine works in the marketing department as a Team Lead where her employees rely on a centralized file server to access and store important documents. Recently, as the company has grown, she has noted that more employees are accessing the server simultaneously to retrieve and upload files. However, some employees have noticed a significant slowdown in file transfer speeds, especially during peak business hours. Despite having high-speed network infrastructure, these slowdowns persist, affecting productivity across departments. Additionally, network administrators observe that the server's CPU and disk usage remain within normal limits. What is the most likely issue causing the slowdown in file transfer speeds experienced by employees? Outdated network cables Insufficient bandwidth from the ISP Overloaded network switches Bottlenecking on the file server
Bottlenecking on the file server Overall explanation OBJ 5.4 - The described scenario of slowdowns despite normal CPU and disk usage indicates bottlenecking on the file server, where the server's processing capacity is unable to keep up with the increased demand for file transfers. Overloaded switches could cause congestion but wouldn't directly affect file transfer speeds from the server. While outdated cables could impact performance, they wouldn't cause widespread slowdowns during peak hours. Bandwidth issues from the ISP would affect internet connectivity but not internal file transfer speeds.
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Which of the following types of fire suppression systems utilizes halocarbon or inert gas to suffocate the fire when the system is activated? Clean agent system HVAC system Pre-action system Wet pipe system
Clean agent system Overall explanation OBJ 3.3 - Special suppression systems, like a clean agent system, use either a halocarbon agent or inert gas. When releases, the agents will displace the oxygen in the room with the inert gas and suffocates the fire. A fire suppression system is an engineered set of components that are designed to extinguish an accidental fire in a workplace or datacenter. A wet pipe system is the most basic type of fire suppression system, and it involved using a sprinkler system and pipes that always contain water in the pipes. A pre-action system minimizes the risk of accidental release from a wet pipe system. With a pre-action system, both a detector actuation like a smoke detector and a sprinkler must be tripped prior to water being released. Heating Ventilation and Air Conditioning (HVAC) units are responsible for maintaining the proper temperature and humidity within a datacenter.
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Which of the following protocols must be implemented for two switches to share VLAN information? VTP PPTP MPLS STP
VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) Overall explanation OBJ 2.2: The VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) allows a VLAN created on one switch to be propagated to other switches in a group of switches in a VTP domain. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network. Multiprotocol Label Switching is a routing technique in telecommunications networks that directs data from one node to the next based on short path labels rather than long network addresses, thus avoiding complex lookups in a routing table and speeding traffic flows. The Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol is an obsolete method for implementing virtual private networks. MPLS, STP, and PPTP are not used to share VLAN information like VTP and the 802.1q standard do.
50
You have just installed a new switch in your company's network closet. The switch connects to your router using an SFP port on both the router and switch. Unfortunately, you only had a long cable available to make the connection, so after running the cable from the rack containing the switch to the other rack containing the router, you decide to coil up the excessive cable and use a zip tie to hold the coil to the side of the rack. You head back to your office, log into the switch over SSH, and check the log file. You notice that several messages indicate that the signal strength on the transmit portion of the SFP is registering as too weak. What is the BEST explanation for the cause of this error? You used an MMF cable instead of an SMF cable You used an MTRJ connector instead of an ST connector The bend radius of the cable has been exceeded The SFP module has gone bad and should be replaced
The bend radius of the cable has been exceeded Overall explanation OBJ 5.2: The most likely explanation for this issue is the coiled up the excess cable was wound too tightly and exceeded the bend radius for the cable. Bend radius is the measure of how sharply a cable can safely bend without causing damage by creating micro cracks on the glass fibers. By tightly coiling the cable, the cable may have broken or cracked the fiber connected to the transmit portion of the SFP. It is unlikely that the SFP failed since only the transmit portion is registering as weak. If you used the wrong type of cable (MTRJ vs. ST), you would not have been able to connect it to the SFP module as it wouldn't fit. Similarly, if you used an MMF instead of an SMF cable, you would not receive a weak connection but would instead get no connection.
51
Your company has several small branch offices around the country, but you work as a network administrator at the centralized headquarters building. You need the capability of being able to remotely access any of the remote site's routers to configure them without having to fly to each location in person. Your company's CIO is worried that allowing remote access could allow an attacker to gain administrative access to the company's network devices. Which of the following is the MOST secure way to prevent this from occurring while still allowing you to access the devices remotely? Configure the remote router's ACLs to only permit HTTP traffic Configure the remote router's ACLs to only permit Telnet traffic Install an out-of-band modem Create an out-of-band management network
Create an out-of-band management network Overall explanation OBJ 3.5: You should create an out-of-band management network using an SSH (console) connection to the router. Telnet and HTTP are not encrypted channels and should not be used for remote connections. Using a modem is also a bad security practice since these are subject to war dialing and provide slow connectivity speeds.
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During the setup of a new data center, you are tasked with organizing the networking and server equipment into their respective racks. You've noticed that the equipment has been delivered and is waiting for installation. To ensure a smooth and efficient setup process, it's crucial to understand the differences between a server rack and a switch rack, especially in terms of the equipment they are designed to house and their specific requirements. Which of the following statements correctly highlights a key difference between a server rack and a switch rack? Switch racks typically have higher security features, like biometric locks, compared to server racks because switches are more critical to network security. Server racks require special electromagnetic interference (EMI) shielding to protect sensitive data stored on the servers, whereas switch racks do not need such protection. Server racks are equipped with built-in cooling systems, such as fans or liquid cooling pipes, due to the high heat output of servers, whereas switch racks rely solely on the data center's ambient cooling. Switch racks are primarily used for housing network switches and routers, allowing for better airflow management specific to these devices, while server racks are designed for denser configurations.
Switch racks are primarily used for housing network switches and routers, allowing for better airflow management specific to these devices, while server racks are designed for denser configurations. Overall explanation OBJ 2.4 - Switch racks are designed to accommodate network switches and routers, focusing on airflow management that suits the operational requirements of these devices. Server racks are engineered to handle denser configurations that servers often necessitate due to their size and power requirements. Both server racks and switch racks can utilize the data center's cooling systems. Built-in cooling within racks is not exclusively a feature of server racks. EMI shielding is a consideration for all types of racks housing electronic equipment, not just server racks, depending on the data center's design and security requirements. Security features, including biometric locks, can be implemented on any rack type depending on the security policy of the data center and not specifically more critical to switch racks.
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Which of the following best describes the difference between in-band and out-of-band management in networking? In-band management utilizes wireless communication for device management, while out-of-band management relies on wired connections In-band management involves using the same network paths for traffic and administrative tasks, while out-of-band management uses separate channels for traffic and administrative tasks In-band management involves managing devices within the local network, while out-of-band management extends to devices outside the network perimeter In-band management involves managing devices remotely via a network connection, while out-of-band management requires physical access to the device for configuration
In-band management utilizes wireless communication for device management, while out-of-band management relies on wired connections Overall explanation OBJ 3.5 - In-band management uses dedicated interfaces for management, distinct from regular data traffic. Out-of-band management doesn't require physical access, both can use wired or wireless connections and both methods apply to devices within the network perimeter.
54
A wireless networking technician has completed an assessment of a wireless network and documented the detected signal strengths in various locations. Which of the following best describes this document? Audit report Site survey report Network baseline Logical network diagram
Site survey report Overall explanation OBJ 3.1: A wireless site survey report will usually take the form of a floorplan with a color-coded series of rings on it to show the signal strengths of wireless network signals in various locations. This is often referred to as a "heat map" by technicians. The technician performing the survey will document this information and use it as a tool during troubleshooting and optimization efforts concerning the wireless coverage in a specific office or building. A logical network diagram illustrates the flow of information through a network and shows how devices communicate with each other. It typically includes elements like subnets, network objects and devices, routing protocols and domains, voice gateways, traffic flow, and network segments. Network baselining is the act of measuring and rating the performance of a network in real-time situations. Providing a network baseline requires testing and reporting of the physical connectivity, normal network utilization, protocol usage, peak network utilization, and average throughput of the network usage. A network audit entails collecting data, identifying threats and areas of weakness, and compiling a formal audit report. This report is then sent on to network administrators and other relevant parties.
55
A network administrator has set up a firewall and set up only three allow rules so that traffic can be sent over ports 21, 110, and 25. Next, they added a final rule of "deny any any" to the end of the ACL to minimize the attack surface and better secure the network. Unfortunately, now the administrator is receiving complaints from users that they cannot access any web pages using their URLs, such as DionTraining.com. Which of the following should the administrator do to correct this issue? Add a rule to the ACL to allow traffic on ports 53, 139 and 445 Add a rule to the ACL to allow traffic on ports 139, 143 and 22 Add a rule to the ACL to allow traffic on ports 25, 110 and 389 Add a rule to the ACL to allow traffic on ports 53, 80, and 443
Add a rule to the ACL to allow traffic on ports 53, 80, and 443 Overall explanation OBJ 4.3: The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses port 80 and is an application layer protocol for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems using unencrypted data transfer. Port 443 is for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), the secure version of HTTP that is more widely used in modern webservers. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 and is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network. If the outbound port 80 (and 443 for its secure version) is not open, then users will not be able to connect to a remote webserver. If the outbound port 443 is not open, the users will not be able to connect to a secure remote webserver, which is the more widely used. If the outbound port 53 is not open, then the users will be unable to conduct a DNS name resolution and determine the IP address of the given webserver based on its domain name. Port 22 is used for SSH/SCP/SFTP. Port 143 is used for IMAP. Port 139 and 445 are used for SMB. Port 389 is used for LDAP. Port 110 is used for POP3.
56
Which of the following weaknesses exist in WPS enabled wireless networks? Utilizes TKIP to secure the authentication handshake Utilizes a 40-bit encryption key Brute force occurs within 11,000 combinations Utilizes a 24-bit initialization vector
Brute force occurs within 11,000 combinations Overall explanation OBJ 2.3: The most prominent attack against WPS enabled wireless networks involves brute-forcing the 8-digit PIN that client uses to enroll their devices without knowing the pre-shared key. WPS checks each half of the PIN individually, reducing the number of possible combinations from a maximum of 100,000,000 to only 11,000. This only takes a few minutes to crack on most modern computers, as long as the WAP doesn't have a lockout after a certain number of failures. The lockout mechanism may also be triggered based on the client's MAC, so you can often spoof MAC to bypass this defense.
57
Dion Training just released a new corporate policy that dictates all access to network resources will be controlled based on the user's job functions and tasks within the organization. For example, only people working in Human Resources can access employee records, and only the people working in finance can access customer payment histories. Which of the following security concepts is BEST described by this new policy? Zero trust Defense in depth Least privilege Acceptable use policy
Least privilege Overall explanation OBJ 4.1: Least privilege is the concept and practice of restricting access rights for users, accounts, and computing processes to only those resources absolutely required to perform routine, legitimate activities. Privilege itself refers to the authorization to bypass certain security restraints. Zero-trust is a security framework that requires all users, whether in or outside the organization’s network, to be authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated for security configuration and posture before being granted or keeping access to applications and data. Defense in Depth is an approach to cybersecurity in which a series of defensive mechanisms are layered in order to protect valuable data and information. An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules applied by the owner, creator, or administrator of a network, website, or service, that restrict the ways in which the network, website, or system may be used and sets guidelines as to how it should be used.
58
Which port is used to send formatted messages to a centralized logging server from various types of network devices, clients, and servers? 445 514 1521 161
514 Overall explanation OBJ 1.4: System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514, and is a way network devices, clients, and servers can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions. Server Message Block (SMB) uses ports 139 and 445, and is a network file sharing protocol that runs on top of the NetBIOS architecture in Windows environments. SQLnet uses ports 1521, and is a relational database management system developed by Oracle that is fully compatible with the structured query language (SQL). The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) uses ports 161 and 162, and it is a networking protocol used for the management and monitoring of network-connected devices in Internet Protocol networks.
59
Jason, a network technician, is troubleshooting a single-mode fiber that provides network connectivity to a remote site. He sees that the link light is off on the router's network interface, and suspects that the fiber may have a break somewhere between his router and the remote site. Single-mode fiber is not providing network connectivity to a remote site. Which of the following tools could be used to identify the location of the break in the fiber? Media converter Tone generator Light meter OTDR
OTDR (Optical Time Domain Reflectometer) Overall explanation OBJ 5.2: An Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) is used by organizations to certify the performance of new fiber optics links and detect problems with existing fiber links. An OTDR can identify if a fiber cable is broken and provide an approximate location for the break in meters or feet. A fiber light meter, also known as an optical power meter, is used to measure the power in an optical signal over a fiber optic cable. A fiber light meter could be used to test if the cable is broken, but it would not be able to determine where the break in the fiber cable is located. A tone generator is used with a toner probe to accurately identify the location of a cable pair or conductor within a wiring bundle, cross-connection point, or at the remote end. A tone generator is used with copper cables, not fiber optic cables. A media converter is a layer 1 networking device that connects two different media types, such as a copper twisted pair cable and a fiber optic cable.
60
You received an incident response report indicating a piece of malware was introduced into the company’s network through a remote workstation connected to the company’s servers over a VPN connection. Which of the following controls should be applied to prevent this type of incident from occurring again? ACL MAC filtering NAC SPF
NAC (Network Access Control) Overall explanation OBJ 4.3: Network Access Control (NAC) is an approach to computer security that attempts to unify endpoint security technology (such as anti-virus, host intrusion prevention, and vulnerability assessment), user or system authentication, and network security enforcement. When a remote workstation connects to the network, NAC will place it into a segmented portion of the network (sandbox), scan it for malware and validate its security controls, and then based on the results of those scans, either connect it to the company’s networks or place the workstation into a separate quarantined portion of the network for further remediation. An access control list (ACL) is a network traffic filter that can control incoming or outgoing traffic. An ACL alone would not have prevented this issue. MAC Filtering refers to a security access control method whereby the MAC address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network. MAC filtering operates at layer 2 and is easy to bypass. Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email authentication method designed to detect forging sender addresses during email delivery.
61
A network administrator is configuring OSPF in a multi-router environment. The administrator needs to ensure that OSPF maintains accurate routing tables across the network. What mechanism does OSPF use to exchange and update routing information between routers? Static route redistribution Your answer is incorrect Distance-vector updates Path vector protocol Correct answer Link-state advertisements
Link-state advertisements Overall explanation OBJ 2.1 - OSPF uses link-state advertisements (LSAs) to exchange routing information between routers, ensuring accurate and consistent routing tables across the network. Distance-vector updates are used by protocols like RIP, not OSPF. Path vector protocols describe BGP, which is used for routing between autonomous systems. Static route redistribution allows static routes to be shared with dynamic routing protocols but is not a mechanism specific to OSPF.
62
Which of the following levels would an alert condition generate? 0 1 2 3
1 Overall explanation OBJ 3.1 - The severity levels range from zero to seven, with zero being the most severe and seven being the least severe. Level 0 is used for an emergency and is considered the most severe condition because the system has become unstable. Level 1 is used for an alert condition and means that there is a condition that should be corrected immediately. Level 2 is used for a critical condition, and it means that there is a failure in the system’s primary application and it requires immediate attention. Level 3 is used for an error condition, and it means that something is happening to the system that is preventing the proper function. Level 4 is used for warning conditions and it may indicate that an error will occur if action is not taken soon. Level 5 is used for notice conditions and it means that the events are unusual, but they are not error conditions. Level 6 is used for information conditions and it is a normal operational message that requires no action. Level 7 is used for debugging conditions and is just information that is useful to developers as they are debugging their networks and applications.
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Christina, a network technician, is configuring VLANs at her company to put each department into a different segment. They are currently working on configuring the VLANs and connecting endpoints to the switches. Which tier of the three-tier hierarchical model is Christina working on? Distribution layer Application layer Core layer Access layer
Access Layer Overall explanation OBJ 1.6 - Configuring VLANs for network segmentation primarily falls under the responsibility of the access layer, which connects end devices to the network and handles user access control. The application layer is in the OSI model, not the 3 tier model and it deals with software applications and protocols, not network infrastructure configuration like VLANs. While the distribution layer aggregates data and provides routing between VLANs, the task of configuring VLANs itself is primarily handled at the access layer. The core layer is responsible for high-speed packet switching and inter-network routing, not VLAN configuration.
64
Which of the following is NOT a type of Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)? Something you know Something you have Something you are Something you can locate
Something you can locate Overall explanation OBJ 4.1: "Something you can locate" is not considered a separate factor in MFA. "Something you know" refers to knowledge-based authentication, such as passwords, which is a type of MFA. "Something you have" involves possession-based authentication, like smart cards, which is another type of MFA. "Something you are" utilizes biometric characteristics, like fingerprints, which is also a type of MFA.
65
What port number does IMAP over SSL utilize? 143 993 110 995
993 Overall explanation OBJ 1.4: Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) over SSL uses port 993, and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143 and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. Post Office Protocol version 3 over SSL (POP3 over SSL) uses port 995 and is an application-layer Internet standard protocol used by e-mail clients to retrieve e-mail from a mail server that operates using an SSL or TLS encrypted tunnel. Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) uses port 110 and is an application-layer Internet standard protocol used by e-mail clients to retrieve e-mail from a mail server.
66
You have been dispatched to investigate some sporadic network outages. After looking at the event logs for the network equipment, you found that the network equipment has been restarting at the same time every day. What should you implement to correct this issue? Grounding bar Surge protector Airflow management UPS
UPS Overall explanation OBJ 2.4 - An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a battery system that can supply short-term power to electrical units. Since all the devices are restarting simultaneously, it is likely due to a power outage. In this case, a UPS would continue to supply power to the network equipment during outages or blackouts. An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a battery system that can supply short-term power to electrical units. Since all the devices are restarting simultaneously, it is likely due to a power outage. In this case, a UPS would continue to supply power to the network equipment during outages or blackouts. An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a battery system that can supply short-term power to electrical units. Since all the devices are restarting simultaneously, it is likely due to a power outage. In this case, a UPS would continue to supply power to the network equipment during outages or blackouts. An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a battery system that can supply short-term power to electrical units. Since all the devices are restarting simultaneously, it is likely due to a power outage. In this case, a UPS would continue to supply power to the network equipment during outages or blackouts.
67
According to the OSI model, at which of the following layers is data encapsulated into bits? Layer 2 Layer 4 Layer 3 Layer 1
Layer 1 Overall explanation OBJ 1.1: Data is transmitted at Layers 5, 6, and 7 of the OSI model. At Layer 4, the data is encapsulated into segments. At layer 3, the segments are encapsulated into packets. At layer 2, the packets are encapsulated into frames. At layer 1, the frames are encapsulated into bits.
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Stanley, the Chief Information Officer, has been tasked by the board to implement a solution that will optimize the performance of their wireless network that will intelligently direct devices to connect to the less congested frequency band. This strategy aims to balance the load between the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, ensuring efficient use of available bandwidth. What feature should he have the IT department deploy to achieve this goal? Channel bonding Quality of Service Beamforming Band steering
Band steering Overall explanation OBJ 2.3 - Band steering directs devices to connect to the less congested frequency band, optimizing the performance of the wireless network by balancing the load between the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. Channel bonding combines multiple channels to increase bandwidth but does not direct devices to connect to specific frequency bands. Beamforming focuses wireless signals in specific directions to improve signal strength but does not manage frequency band selection. QoS prioritizes certain types of traffic over others but does not specifically manage the distribution of devices across frequency bands.
69
A network is experiencing routing inefficiencies, with packets taking longer paths than necessary. What TWO items should the network engineer review to optimize the network's routing QoS Settings Default Routes DHCP Lease Times Routing Tables
Default Routes Routing Tables Overall explanation OBJ 5.3 - Default Routes should be examined to ensure that they direct traffic efficiently for destinations not found in the routing table, possibly adjusting them to take advantage of more direct routes. The routing table should also be reviewed for accuracy and optimization to ensure that all routes are the most efficient paths to their destinations. QoS settings prioritize traffic but do not influence route paths. DHCP leases pertain to IP address assignment durations and do not affect routing. VLAN assignments segment networks but are unrelated to the routing paths between different network segments.
70
A network administrator is tasked with building a wireless network in a new building located next door to your company's office building. The wireless clients should not be able to communicate with other wireless clients but should be able to communicate with any wired users on the network. The users must be able to seamlessly migrate between the buildings while maintaining a constant connection to the LAN. How should the administrator configure the new wireless network in this new building? Use different SSIDs on different channels and VLANs Use different SSIDs on the same channels with VLANs Use the same SSIDs on the same channels with AP isolation Use the same SSIDs on different channels and AP isolation
Use the same SSIDs on different channels and AP isolation Overall explanation OBJ 2.3: For users to be able to seamlessly migrate between the two buildings, both Access Points (AP) must use the same SSIDs. To prevent frequency interference, though, each device needs to select a different and non-overlapping channel to utilize. Finally, the AP isolation should be enabled. Access Point (AP) isolation is a technique for preventing mobile devices connected to an AP from communicating directly with each other.
71
Tanya is tasked with diagnosing a problem in a newly established fiber optic link between two buildings. Despite using compatible fiber cables and ensuring no physical damage, the connection fails to establish. What should be her FIRST step in troubleshooting this issue? Check if the wavelength specifications of the transceivers on both ends match. Redesign the network topology to reduce the distance between the buildings Verify the accuracy of the IP address configuration on both connecting devices. Replace the fiber optic cables with a higher grade to ensure compatibility.
Check if the wavelength specifications of the transceivers on both ends match Overall explanation OBJ 5.2 - The mismatch in wavelength specifications between transceivers at either end of a fiber optic link can prevent the connection from being established. Ensuring compatibility in terms of speed, type (single-mode/multimode), and wavelength is critical for successful communication. Redesigning the network topology to reduce distance is unnecessary if the initial setup meets the operational range of the deployed fiber and transceivers. Replacing the fiber optic cables without identifying the root cause, such as a transceiver mismatch, may not resolve the issue. Verifying the IP address configuration is crucial for network communication but would not affect the physical layer's ability to establish a connection.
72
Considering the increasing concerns around cyber security and the vulnerabilities of network time synchronization protocols to on-path attacks, your organization decides to enhance the security of its time synchronization process. The goal is to prevent attackers from tampering with the time data exchanged between your network devices and the time source. Which protocol should you implement to secure the time synchronization process? PTP NTP Use manual time setting(s) on each device to avoid vulnerabilities associated with network-based time synchronization. NTS
NTS (Network Time Security) Overall explanation OBJ 3.4 - Network Time Security (NTS) provides the necessary security enhancements to the NTP process, protecting against tampering and man-in-the-middle attacks by ensuring the integrity and authenticity of the time synchronization data. Precision Time Protocol (PTP) focuses on precision rather than security and may not protect against the mentioned vulnerabilities. Network Time Protocol (NTP) is widely used for time synchronization, it does not inherently provide protection against tampering or on-path attacks without additional security measures. Manual time setting is impractical for large networks, does not scale, and cannot ensure continuous synchronization over time.
73
What port number does POP3 utilize? 143 995 993 110
110 Overall explanation OBJ 1.4: Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) uses port 110 and is an application-layer Internet standard protocol used by e-mail clients to retrieve e-mail from a mail server. Post Office Protocol version 3 over SSL (POP3 over SSL) uses port 995 and is an application-layer Internet standard protocol used by e-mail clients to retrieve e-mail from a mail server that operates using an SSL or TLS encrypted tunnel. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143 and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) over SSL uses port 993 and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection.
74
Which of the following ports is used by LDAP by default? 427 53 389 3389
389 Overall explanation OBJ 1.4: LDAP uses port 389 by default. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) Standard for accessing and updating information in an X.500-style network resource directory. Unless secure communications are used, LDAP is vulnerable to packet sniffing and Man-in-the-Middle attacks. It is also usually necessary to configure user permissions on the directory. LDAP version 3 supports simple authentication or Simple Authentication and Security Layer, which integrates it with Kerberos or TLS.
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Your company's security policy states that its workstations must hide their internal IP addresses whenever they make a network request across the WAN. You have been asked to recommend a technology that would BEST implement this policy. Which of the following is the BEST solution for you to recommend? VPN OSPF DMZ NAT
NAT (Network Address Translation) Overall explanation OBJ 2.1: Network address translation (NAT) is a method of remapping one IP address space into another by modifying network address information in the IP header of packets while they are in transit across a traffic routing device. Using NAT, you can have the internal IP address of each workstation mapped to a public IP address or port when it crosses the router to access the WAN. A DMZ or demilitarized zone is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization's external-facing services to an untrusted, usually larger, network such as the Internet. A virtual private network extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a link-state routing protocol that was developed for IP networks and is based on the Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm. OSPF is an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP).
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Your company has been experiencing intermittent network performance issues, and you suspect that unauthorized streaming services might be consuming excessive bandwidth during peak hours. You decide to monitor network traffic on the main uplink to the internet without disrupting the flow of traffic. Which method should you use to achieve this? Configure a VLAN to filter and redirect internet-bound traffic to a network analysis tool. Set up a DHCP server to assign specific IP addresses to devices, making it easier to track their internet usage. Implement Quality of Service (QoS) rules to automatically limit bandwidth for streaming services during peak hours. Enable port mirroring on the switch, copying all traffic from the uplink port to a dedicated port that has a network analyzer connected.
Enable port mirroring on the switch, copying all traffic from the uplink port to a dedicated port that has a network analyzer connected. Overall explanation OBJ 3.2 - Enabling port mirroring on the switch allows you to send a copy of all traffic from the uplink port to another port where a network analyzer is connected. This method enables you to monitor and analyze network traffic in real-time without affecting the network's performance, making it an effective tool for identifying unauthorized use of bandwidth-intensive services. Setting up a DHCP server to assign IP addresses helps manage network devices but does not directly facilitate the monitoring of specific types of traffic. Implementing QoS rules can prioritize traffic but does not provide the means to analyze traffic to identify unauthorized streaming services. Configuring a VLAN specifically for this purpose does not provide a direct method for analyzing traffic; it primarily segregates network traffic.
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Norah is working as a system administrator, who primarily deals with the email servers within her organization. She is tasked with configuring the DNS records to ensure smooth email delivery for her employer. As part of her task, she needs to specify the mail servers responsible for handling email traffic for the organization's domain. Which specific record type should Norah use to designate the mail servers for the domain? MX CNAME NS AAAA
MX (Mail Exchange) Overall explanation OBJ 3.4 - The Mail Exchange (MX) record specifies mail servers responsible for receiving email on behalf of a domain. When someone sends an email to an address within a domain, the MX record directs the email to the specified mail servers. By configuring these MX records, Norah can direct incoming email traffic to the designated mail servers, ensuring efficient email delivery within the organization. A Canonical Name (CNAME) is for aliasing one domain name to another, AAAA is used to map a domain name to an IPv6 address, a Name Server (NS) is for identifying authoritative name servers.
78
Mark is tasked with finding specific information regarding a server on his network. He decides to use Nmap and adds a specific flag to his command to accomplish this. If he uses the -O flag with his Nmap command, what should he expect to see in the output? A list of open ports on the server. A list of IP addresses and the protocols (TCP/UDP) they are using. The versions of services running on the open ports. The operating system details of the target server.
The operating system details of the target server. Overall explanation OBJ 5.5 - The -O flag in Nmap is used for operating system detection. This flag tells Nmap to use a series of tests to guess the operating system running on the target machine. Showing IP addresses and the protocols they use would require a different Nmap scan, such as a simple scan without specific flags for operating system detection. The -sV flag is used to determine the versions of services running on open ports, not -O. Listing open ports is the default behavior of Nmap without specifying any flags for operating system detection.
79
Dion Training is trying to connect two geographically dispersed offices using a VPN connection. You have been asked to configure their networks to allow VPN traffic into the network. Which device should you configure FIRST? Switch Router Firewall Modem
Firewall Overall explanation OBJ 2.4: You should FIRST configure the firewall since the firewall is installed at the network's external boundary (perimeter). By allowing the VPN connection through the firewall, the two networks can be connected and function as a single intranet (internal network). After configuring the firewall, you will need to verify the router is properly configured to route traffic between the two sites using the site-to-site VPN connection. A modem modulates and demodulates electrical signals sent through phone lines, coaxial cables, or other types of wiring. A layer 2 switch is a type of network switch or device that works on the data link layer (OSI Layer 2) and utilizes MAC Address to determine the path through where the frames are to be forwarded. It uses hardware-based switching techniques to connect and transmit data in a local area network (LAN).
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You're overseeing a large-scale data transfer between servers in different geographical locations. Despite robust network infrastructure, some files arrive corrupted, leading to delays and errors in processing. Upon investigation, you suspect that the corruption is occurring during transmission due to network interference or hardware issues. In this scenario, which method is most suitable for detecting these errors? Cyclic Redundancy Check Network Interface Card Configuration DNS Resolution IP Address Allocation
Cyclic Redundancy Check Overall explanation OBJ 5.2: A Cyclic Redundancy Check detects errors by calculating a checksum on data packets, ideal for detecting corruption. NIC Configuration deals with settings like speed and duplex but doesn't detect data corruption. DNS Resolution resolves domain names to IP addresses but doesn't check data integrity. IP Address Allocation assigns IP addresses but doesn't verify data integrity.
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Your company’s corporate headquarters provided your branch office an entire Class C range of IP addresses to use at a new office location. The Sales department has 55 clients, the Finance department has 32 clients, the Human Resources department has 25 clients, the Information Technology department has 13 clients, and the Marketing department has 11 clients. Each department is assigned to its own subnet using VLSM and the proper CIDR notation. You have been asked to calculate the number of leftover IP addresses. What is the correct CIDR notation to use to represent the available number of leftover IP addresses? /26 /27 /30 /28 /25 /29
/26 Overall explanation OBJ 1.7: Since the company provided you with a Class C range of IP addresses, you begin with a /24 network (256 total IPs, 254 usable IPs) for this question. Remember, for each subnet you will create you need to add the number of clients plus one IP for the network ID and a second IP for the broadcast address. The Sales department needs 55 usable IPs, so you should have used a /26 (62 usable IPs, 64 total IPs). The Finance department needs 32 usable IPs, so you should have used a /26 (62 usable IPs, 64 total IPs). The HR department needs 25 usable IPs, so you should have used a /27 (30 usable IPs, 32 total IPs). The IT department needs 13 usable IPs, so you should have used a /28 (14 usable IPs, 16 total IPs). The Marketing department needs 11 usable IPs, so you should have used a /28 (14 usable IPs, 16 total IPs). By adding up these subnets, you have used up 192 of the 256 possible IP addresses from the originally assigned Class C range. To calculate this, you would calculate 256 – 64 – 64 – 32 – 16 – 16, and you get a total of 64 IPs left (or a /26). This gives us the answer for the unused portion of the IP space for this question.
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Why would a person advocate for conducting validation tests? To provide hands-on technical training for the IT staff on new software and hardware tools recently deployed across the company's infrastructure. To perform a realistic simulation of disaster scenarios to confirm the effectiveness of the DR and BCP. To conduct a comprehensive audit of the company's compliance with international data protection regulations. To assess the physical security measures of the company's data centers and backup sites.
To perform a realistic simulation of disaster scenarios to confirm the effectiveness of the DR and BCP. Overall explanation OBJ 3.3 - A person would advocate for conducting validation tests to perform realistic simulations of disaster scenarios, thereby confirming the effectiveness of the updated disaster recovery and business continuity plans. Validation tests are designed to mimic actual adverse events or conditions that can disrupt operations, allowing the organization to assess and refine their response strategies, recovery procedures, and continuity plans in a controlled yet realistic environment. Conducting a comprehensive audit of the company's compliance with international data protection regulations is crucial for legal and regulatory compliance but does not simulate disaster scenarios or test the operational effectiveness of DR and BCP. Assessing the physical security measures of the company's data centers and backup sites is important for overall security but does not directly test the practical effectiveness of DR and BCP in disaster scenarios. Providing hands-on technical training for the IT staff on new software and hardware tools is beneficial for skill development but does not validate the overall effectiveness of the disaster recovery and business continuity plans.
83
Which technology facilitates communication between IPv6-only clients and IPv4 servers in a modern network environment? NAT64 OSPFv3 ICMPv6 DHCPv6
NAT64 Overall explanation OBJ 1.8 - NAT64 allows IPv6-only devices to access IPv4 resources by translating IPv6 packets to IPv4 and vice versa. DHCPv6 is used for IPv6 address allocation but doesn't facilitate communication between IPv6 and IPv4 networks. ICMPv6 is a protocol used for error reporting and diagnostics in IPv6 networks but doesn't provide IPv4-IPv6 translation. OSPFv3 is a routing protocol for IPv6 networks and doesn't address the IPv4-IPv6 interoperability challenge.
84
Which of the following types of traffic flows describes network traffic that is entering your datacenter through the firewall or router? North South West East
South Overall explanation OBJ 1.6: North-South traffic or communication refers to traffic that enters or leaves the data center from a system physically residing outside the datacenter. North traffic is traffic exiting the datacenter. South traffic is traffic entering the data center. In both cases, the data is exiting or entering the data center through a firewall or other network infrastructure boundary device, such as a router. East-West traffic or communication refers to data flow within a datacenter. For example, if we are using a spine and leaf architecture, any data flow between the various servers in the datacenter, even if it goes between different leaves, would be considered east-west traffic.
85
What is the broadcast address associated with the host located at 205.12.35.26/27? 205.12.35.63 205.12.35.32 205.12.35.64 205.12.35.31
205.12.35.31 Overall explanation OBJ 1.7: In classless subnets using variable length subnet mask (VLSM), the broadcast address is the last IP address associated within an assigned range. In this example, the CIDR notation is /27, so each subnet will contain 32 IP addresses. Since the IP address provided is 205.12.35.26, the broadcast address will be 205.12.35.31.
86
Jonathan is a network technician that was assigned to check the status of a specific interface on a router to troubleshoot a connectivity problem. Which command should Jonathan use to display detailed information about the interface status, including its current operational state and any errors or drops? show interface show config show vlan show power
Show interface Overall explanation OBJ 5.5 - To view detailed information about the status of a specific interface on a router, Jonathan should use the command "show interface." This command provides comprehensive details about the operational state of the interface, including its bandwidth, duplex mode, MAC address, IP address, input/output errors, and drops. show vlan, show config, and show power are commands used for different purposes, such as viewing VLAN information, configuration settings, and power supply status, respectively.
87
During a network expansion, Martyn, a network engineer, configures a new VLAN for a group of users. However, users in the new VLAN report they are unable to access the internet. He verifies that the internet access is functional for other VLANs. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? Incorrect subnet mask on the users' devices The new VLAN is not allowed on the trunk link The firewall is blocking traffic from the new VLAN The DHCP server has run out of IP addresses
The new VLAN is not allowed on the trunk link Overall explanation OBJ 5.3 - If the new VLAN is not allowed on the trunk link, traffic from that VLAN cannot traverse the network to reach the router for internet access. Ensuring the trunk link is configured to allow the new VLAN resolves the issue. Incorrect subnet masks would affect local communication, not specifically internet access. If the DHCP server ran out of IP addresses, users would not receive any IP configuration. While the firewall could block internet access, it's less likely if the issue is isolated to a newly created VLAN.
88
Nancy, a network administrator for Dion Training, has been tasked with improving the company's DNS infrastructure for better IP address management and troubleshooting. She decides to implement a specific type of DNS zone that would allow resolving IP addresses to domain names, facilitating easier identification of devices on the network. Which DNS zone type should Nancy configure to achieve this objective? A stub zone A secondary zone A reverse zone A forward zone
A reverse zone Overall explanation OBJ 3.4 - Reverse zones are used in DNS to map IP addresses to domain names, which is essential for IP address management and troubleshooting by enabling reverse DNS lookups. This is precisely what Nancy aims to achieve. Stub zones contain only the necessary information to identify the authoritative DNS servers of a zone, aiding in DNS queries but not in mapping IP addresses to domain names. Forward zones map domain names to IP addresses. Secondary zones are copies of primary zones, used for load balancing and redundancy.
89
You get several emails from co-workers experiencing intermittent disruptions in their video conference calls. They note occasional freezes and audio delays, but otherwise seem to be functioning normally. What is the most likely cause of this issue? Bandwidth Congestion Packet Loss Latency Jitter
Jitter Overall explanation OBJ 5.4 - Jitter is a variation in the delay of received packets, with irregular arrival times causing intermittent disruptions such as freezes and delays. Packet loss refers to data packets being lost in transit, causing gaps in audio or video more severe than intermittent freezes or delays. Latency is the delay between the sending and receiving of data packets, it doesn't directly cause intermittent disruptions. Bandwidth congestion occurs when the network's capacity is exceeded, leading to slow data transmission or dropped packets that are less likely to result in intermittent disruptions.
90
Which of the following technologies is not commonly used by a captive portal to perform user redirection? HTTP redirect ICMP redirect DNS redirect DHCP redirect
DHCP redirect Overall explanation OBJ 4.3 - In general, captive portals are implemented by using an HTTP redirect, an ICMP redirect, or a DNS redirect. A captive portal is a web page accessed with a web browser that is displayed to newly connected users of a wireless network before they are granted broader access to network resources. Captive portals are commonly used to present a landing or log-in page which may require authentication, payment, acceptance of an end-user license agreement, acceptable use policy, survey completion, or other information prior to allowing access to the network and its resources.