Practice Test 1

Question 1

Alpha-2 agonists, used therapeutically, decrease cardiac output in most animals. This decrease is due to:

a) Decreased afterload
b) Coronary vasoconstriction
c) High catecholamine levels
d) Increased myocardial oxygen consumption

Answer 1

b) Coronary vasoconstriction

Coronary vasoconstriction, among other factors, causes a decrease in cardiac output by 50% in most animals. Another factor is the baroreceptor reflex. Increased afterload, low catecholamine levels, and decreased myocardial oxygen consumption can all increase cardiac output.

Question 2

Which of the following is a reason geriatric patients should be scheduled for surgery before young patients?

a) Young patients become stressed more easily
b) Geriatric patients take longer to recover
c) Young patients need to eat more often
d) Geriatric patients do not have to drink so often

Answer 2

b) Geriatric patients take longer to recover

By scheduling geriatric patients before young patients, you give the geriatric patients more time during the day to recover, thereby reducing the likelihood of those patients having to spend another night at the hospital. Geriatric, not young, patients are more likely to become stressed. Geriatric patients have to eat and drink more often than young patients, which is another reason why geriatric patients should be scheduled for surgery before young patients.

Question 3

Which teeth are primarily used for cutting, shearing, and holding?

a) Premolars
b) Incisors
c) Molars
d) Canines

Answer 3

a) Premolars

Incisors are used for cutting and nibbling. Molars are used for grinding. Canines are used for holding and tearing.

Question 4

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning tissue samples?

a) Once removed from the animal, tissue immediately starts to die
b) The process of autolysis is accelerated by cool temperatures
c) Fixing tissues hastens the deterioration of cell membranes
d) Tissues for standard histological examination should be frozen

Answer 4

a) Once removed from the animal, tissue immediately starts to die

As soon as a tissue sample is removed from an animal, the tissue immediately begins to die, and cell membranes begin to break down in a process called autolysis. Warm temperatures and high levels of humidity accelerate this process. Fixing tissues delays, rather than accelerates, deterioration of the cells. Tissues for standard histological examination should not be frozen for the test.

Question 5

All of the following are true of veterinarian-client-patient relationships except:

a) The client and the owner of the patient should be skeptical of the veterinarian
b) The veterinarian should regularly visit animals in the clinic or in the field
c) The client and owner of the patient should be honest with the veterinarian
d) The veterinarian should be on-call and available in the event of an emergency

Answer 5

a) The client and the owner of the patient should be skeptical of the veterinarian

If the client refuses to follow or doubts the veterinarian’s instructions, a veterinarian-client-patient relationship doesn’t exist.

Question 6

Which of the following is a major disadvantage in performing fluoroscopic studies on animals?

a) These studies are often expensive, so owners choose not to consent to testing
b) These studies’ images can be saved in a variety of ways, including videotape
c) These studies expose veterinary personnel to radiation
d) These studies replace angiographic catheters

Answer 6

c) These studies expose veterinary personnel to radiation

Technicians who know how to protect themselves properly from radiation should be among the only people who run these studies. The price of the test is worth the benefits of the test. Being able to save images in different formats is a benefit of using fluoroscopic studies. Fluoroscopic studies are quicker and easier to perform than angiographic catheterizations.

Question 7

Veterinary technicians may use the tape technique to examine an area of skin for all the following except:

a) Bacteria
b) Ringworm
c) Malassezia
d) Surface mites

Answer 7

b) Ringworm

The tape technique - which involves pressing a clear piece of adhesive tape to an area of the animal’s skin, pulling it off, and inspecting the tape under a microscope - doesn’t detect ringworm. Instead, hairs are removed and tested for ringworm infection.

Question 8

After surgical equipment is sterilized, it is packaged and stored. Items can become unsterile if they are not stored or handled properly. Which of the following surgical items is still sterile?

a) The item was stored in a humid area, and the packaging is now wet
b) A technician pulled back the packaging without touching the paper to the instrument
c) The item was stored in a pack that was punctured by another instrument
d) A technician pulled back the packaging and touched the item with his forearm

Answer 8

b) A technician pulled back the packaging without touching the paper to the instrument

Instruments are still sterile when they are open if they are opened correctly. Instruments in wet packaging are not sterile. Packages that have been punctured or otherwise opened improperly are not sterile. The technician’s forearm made the instrument unsterile.

Question 9

All the following statements about general toxicology specimens are true except:

a) They should not be washed or submitted to extraneous contamination
b) They should be submitted in leak-proof and sterile glass or plastic containers
c) They should be collected fresh and then delivered to the lab frozen
d) They should not be individually labeled - only the largest containers need labels

Answer 9

d) They should not be individually labeled - only the largest containers need labels

Although smaller containers can be placed inside one large container, all containers (regardless of size or location) need detailed labels. Toxicology specimens should never be washed, they should be submitted in leak-proof containers, and they should be collected fresh and delivered frozen.

Question 10

Many veterinary clinics do not line kennel floors with newspapers because newspapers are not:

a) readily available
b) easily disposable
c) absorbent
d) warm

Answer 10

d) warm

Newspapers do not warm patients.

Question 11

A correct statement regarding amiodarone, a common class III antiarrhythmic agent is that it:

a) Has a low iodine content
b) Metabolizes to desethylamiodarone in dogs
c) Blocks slow-moving sodium channels
d) Is structurally related to carvedilol

Answer 11

b) Metabolizes to desethylamiodarone in dogs

Desethylamiodarone is often used to block fast moving, not slow moving, sodium channels. Amiodarone has a high iodine content and is structurally related to levothyroxine.

Question 12

A correct statement regarding the use of atracurium as a muscle paralytic is it:

a) Does not cause a release of histamine
b) Decreases intraocular pressure
c) Does not cause sympathetic stimulation
d) Is immediately effective

Answer 12

c) Does not cause sympathetic stimulation

Atracurium causes a release of histamine, doesn’t affect intraocular pressure, and has indeterminate effects.

Question 13

Technicians may occasionally care for cats experiencing Key-Gaskell Syndrome. All of the following statements are true regarding this condition except:

a) Is also known as feline dysautonomia
b) Affects the autonomic nervous system
c) Tends to appear in cats aged 3 years or older
d) Affects more cats on the West Coast than the East Coast

Answer 13

c) Tends to appear in cats aged 3 years or older

Key-Gaskell Syndrome is rare, but when it does appear, it usually affects cats younger than 3 years old, not older.

Question 14

In a generally healthy patient, an anesthetic that is administered intravenously will most likely take effect within a few:

a) seconds
b) minutes
c) hours
d) days

Answer 14

a) seconds

Intravenous drugs usually begin to work almost instantly.

Question 15

Veterinary medical teams wish to meet 4 goals when anesthetizing a patient for ophthalmic surgery. These include all of the following except to:

a) Provide a mobile eye
b) Provide a pain-free recovery
c) Support cardiopulmonary function
d) Avoid increases in intraocular pressure

Answer 15

a) Provide a mobile eye

The goal is to provide an immobile eye for an ophthalmic procedure.

Question 16

A correct statement concerning a Michel’s trephine is it is:

a) Most often used for bone biopsies
b) Able to cut a square hole through bone
c) Only available in one diameter
d) battery of electric-power operated

Answer 16

a) Most often used for bone biopsies

Michel’s trephine cuts a circular hole in bones such as the skull, spine, or hip, is available in a range of diameters, and is manually operated.

Question 17

Which of the following urine preservatives is used for biochemical analyses of urea, ammonia, calcium, nitrogen, and uric acid in animals?

a) Toluene
b) Acetic acid
c) Chloroform
d) Hydrochloric acid

Answer 17

d) Hydrochloric acid

Toluene and Chloroform are hazardous substances. Acetic acid is used to determine levels of ascorbic acid.

Question 18

Which of the following types of anticestodal drugs is used to eliminate the presence of most species of tapeworms except Spirometra mansonoides and Diphenyllobothrium erinacei in dogs and cats?

a) Praziquantel
b) Niclosamide
c) Bunamidine
d) Albendazole

Answer 18

a) Praziquantel

Praziquantel is used to treat the majority of tapeworm infections in companion animals such as dogs and cats.

Question 19

A veterinary technician receives a frantic call from a pet owner. From what the owner says, the technician concludes the owner’s dog has consciously collapsed with dyspnea. In which of the following categories of emergency should the technician place the patient?

a) Nonemergency
b) Minor
c) Serious
d) Life threatening

Answer 19

d) Life threatening

Dyspnea, or shortness of breath, is a life-threatening condition that should receive immediate medical care. An example of a minor injury is an insect sting, and an example of a serious emergency would be a bone or joint dislocation.

Question 20

During which of the stages of anesthesia does the patient react to external stimulus with a struggling reflex?

a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
d) Stage 4

Answer 20

b) Stage 2

During stage 2, patients have lost consciousness and move involuntarily. Patients in stage 1 still have voluntary movement. Patients have depressed reflexes during stages 3 and 4.

Question 21

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the collection of animal feces?

a) Better results come from feces collected from the ground or litter box than fresh feces
b) It is best to collect feces before collecting urine to avoid contaminating the urine
c) Feces collection usually requires restraining the animal so the process is uninterrupted
d) If it is difficult to collect the feces, it should be forced out of the animal using lubricant

Answer 21

c) Feces collection usually requires restraining the animal so the process is uninterrupted

Many times, technicians need to restrain the animal during feces collection so that the animal doesn’t bite, scratch, or walk away during the collection. The best results come from fresh feces, rather than those collected off the ground or from a litter box. Urine should be collected first, not feces. A technician should never force feces from an animal as it may result in skin tissues in the sample, or damage to the anal/rectal mucosa.

Question 22

Thiacetarsamide sodium is most frequently used as treatment for:

a) hookworms
b) heartworms
c) roundworms
d) tapeworms

Answer 22

b) heartworms

Thiacetarsamide isn’t recommended for hookworms, roundworms, or tapeworms.

Question 23

Surgeons can use all the following types of powered equipment in an operating room except:

a) Oscillating saw
b) Pneumatic drill
c) Electric drill
d) Rotary saw

Answer 23

d) Rotary saw

Rotary saws should not be used to perform surgery on animals.

Question 24

When performing colorimetric biological determinations, veterinary technicians may notice an abnormal change in the color of plasma and serum due to high chromatin levels. When performing this test on a grazing animal, such as a dairy cow, technicians may notice serum and plasma colored:

a) Red
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) Blue

Answer 24

c) Yellow

A dairy cow’s serum and plasma may appear yellow during a colorimetric test because of a cow’s high carotene diet.

Question 25

Which of the following muscles should veterinary technicians avoid during intramuscular injections?

a) Quadriceps group
b) Gluteal muscles
c) Triceps muscles
d) Lumbodorsal muscles

Answer 25

b) Gluteal muscles

When determining which intramuscular route to use while administering medication, a technician should avoid the gluteal muscles in the buttocks as well as the hamstring muscle group. Injections in these areas may cause bone or sciatic damage.

Question 26

Which of the following statements is true about patients undergoing anesthesia?

a) Very young patients should not fast for long before anesthesia because they could become hypoglycemic
b) A dog in good health cannot consume food or water for 12 hours before undergoing surgery
c) Patients undergoing joint surgeries generally have to fast longer than patient undergoing abdominal surgeries
d) Most normal, healthy patients have to fast for about 4 hours before they undergo surgery

Answer 26

a) Very young patients should not fast for long before anesthesia because they could become hypoglycemic

Although most normal, healthy patients have to fast for 12 hours before surgery, very young patients should not fast for long before anesthesia because they could become hypoglycemic. Most healthy animals can have water, but not food, up to the time of the preoperative exam. Patients undergoing abdominal surgeries generally fast longer than patients undergoing other surgeries.

Question 27

Which of the following instruments would a surgeon use for ligation of stumps or pedicles?

a) Halsted mosquito hemostatic forceps
b) Rochester-Carmalt hemostatic forceps
c) Doyen intestinal forceps
d) Babcock intestinal forceps

Answer 27

b) Rochester-Carmalt hemostatic forceps

Rochester-Carmalt hemostatic forceps are designed so that the grooves of the instrument run longitudinally, making it easier to clamp down on stumps or pedicles. Halsted mosquito hemostatic forceps aren;t large enough or strong enough to perform these tasks and are instead used on smaller point bleeders. Doyen intestinal forceps are tissue forceps used for stomach surgeries. Babcock intestinal forceps are used only on connective tissues.

Question 28

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding subcutaneous injections?

a) The effects are felt 15-20 minutes after the injection
b) This area contains a small supply of blood vessels
c) The area below the skin’s surface has many nerves
d) Only nonirritant drugs should be administered this way

Answer 28

d) Only nonirritant drugs should be administered this way

Technicians should administer only nonirritant drugs via the subcutaneous route. Otherwise, the animal may experience irritation or necrosis of the skin. The effects of subcutaneous injections are felt 30-45 minutes after injection, the area has a small supply of nerves, and a large supply of blood vessels.

Question 29

Within which part of an image-intensified fluoroscopic system are X-rays converted into visible light photons?

a) Output fluorescent screen
b) Image intensifier tube
c) Electrostatic lenses
d) Fluoroscopic tube

Answer 29

b) Image intensifier tube

X-rays originate in the fluoroscopic tube, which is located beneath the structure. The X-rays pass through the animal and into the image intensifier tube. From there, the photoelectrons go to the electrostatic lenses, which send the image to the output fluorescent screen.

Question 30

Which of the following anesthesia drugs is most often injected?

a) Isoflurane
b) Ether
c) Halothane
d) Morphine

Answer 30

d) Morphine

Morphine is an opioid that is often injected. Isoflurane, ether, and halothane are anesthetic drugs that are most often inhaled.

Question 31

A correct statement regarding a common dental instrument called a curette is:

a) It has 2 blades and 1 cutting edge
b) It is used to remove subgingival calculus
c) It cannot be used for removal of soft tissue diseases
d) Its cutting edges cannot be used on the back of the tooth

Answer 31

b) It is used to remove subgingival calculus

Curettes are used for root planning and for the removal of subgingival calculus and soft tissue diseases in the periodontal pocket. Curettes have 1 blade with 2 cutting edges. A curette’s cutting edges can be used on the front and the back of an animal’s teeth.

Question 32

While conducting wildlife research, scientists may discover an animal, such as a wild bird, that needs immediate medical attention. Which of the following procedures would a surgeon be least likely to perform on an animal?

a) Laparotomy
b) Flight restraint
c) Sterilization
d) Dental prophylaxis

Answer 32

d) Dental prophylaxis

Surgeons would most likely not perform a dental prophylaxis, which includes tartar removal and the extraction of broken teeth, on a wild animal. Wild animals are generally not given routine patient treatments such as teeth cleanings. Scientists may perform abdominal surgeries (laparotomy), sterilization procedures, and flight restraint operations if necessary.

Question 33

Hemolysis occurs when red blood cells break and release their contents into blood serum or plasma. All the following are causes of in vitro hemolysis except:

a) Osmotic pressure
b) The size of the needle
c) The separation of plasma
d) Vigorous shaking of samples

Answer 33

c) The separation of plasma

In vitro, meaning “outside the body,” hemolysis shouldn’t occur if the plasma is successfully separated before transit. If a technician failed to separate the plasma, hemolysis may occur. Osmotic pressure, the size of the needle, and the vigorous shaking of samples can cause red blood cells to break and spill.

Question 34

Which of the following is true about a Robert Jones bandage?

a) The bandage can last for up to a month
b) The bandage should always include the toes
c) The bandage contains traction tape to decrease slippage
d) The bandage does not require a large quantity of cotton wool

Answer 34

c) The bandage contains traction tape to decrease slippage

The Robert Jones bandage technique requires the application of zinc oxide traction tape to the dorsal and ventral surfaces of the foot. It decreases the chance the bandage will slip during application or during recovery. The bandage can last only up to 2 weeks, the bandage doesn’t necessarily have to cover the toes, and the technique requires a very large amount of cotton wool.

Question 35

The darkest, or least opaque, parts of an Xray indicate the presence of:

a) gas
b) muscle
c) bone
d) mineral

Answer 35

a) gas

Five gradients, from black to white, appear on exposed Xray films, according to the attenuation of tissues in the Xray. While gas is the darkest opacity, mineral is often the most opaque and appears as white on the film. Muscle appears as a gray color, while bone and mineral appear white. Fat appears as dark gray or lighter black.