Practice Test 1 Part 1

Question 1

Which of the following is not a component typically associated with the Physical layer of the OSI model?

A) Network Cables
B) NICs
C) Switches
D) Fiber optic transceivers

Answer 1

Switches

Question 2

Which feature allows a layer 3 switch to perform routing functions similar to a router

A) VLAN tagging
B) Routing table
C) Spanning Tree Protocol
D) Port mirroring

Answer 2

Routing Table

Question 3

Which protocol is used by the Session layer to manage communication sessions between networked devices?

A) RPC
B) HTTP
C) FTP
D) SMTP

Answer 3

RPC

Question 4

What is the primary function of a router in a network?

A) To connect multiple devices within the same LAN
B)To route data packets between different networks
C)To provide wireless access to devices
D)To amplify and regenerate network signals

Answer 4

To route data packets between different networks.

Question 5

How does an IPS differ from an IDS?

A) IPS only detects potential threats, while IDS takes action to block them
B) IPS provides encryption, while IDS does not
C) IPS operates at the Network layer, while IDS operates at the Application layer
D) IPS can take immediate action to block or mitigate threats, while IDS only detects and alerts

Answer 5

IPS can take immediate action to block or mitigate threats, while IDS only detects and alerts

Question 6

What is the main advantage of a site-to-site VPN?

A) It allows individual users to connect to the corporate network remotely
B) It connects entire networks to each other securely over the internet
C) It provides faster internet speeds
D) It reduces the need for network routers

Answer 6

It connects entire networks to each other securely over the network

Question 7

Which of the following best describes PAT?

A) It maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP address using different port numbers
B) It assigns a unique public IP address to each private IP address
C) It translates public IP addresses to private IP addresses
D) It provides encryption for data packets

Answer 7

It maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP address using different port numbers

Question 8

Which of the following is a key benefit of NFV?

A) Reduced network security
B) Increased hardware dependency
C) Improved network flexibility and scalability
D) Decreased network performance

Answer 8

Improved network flexibility and scalability

Question 9

Which of the following is a key benefit of using Direct Connect for cloud connectivity? (Select all that apply)

A) Enhanced security through a private connection
B) Automatic backup and disaster recovery
C) Simplified public IP address management
D) Reduced need for internal firewalls
E) Decreased latency for data transmission

Answer 9

A) Enhanced security through a private connection
E) Decreased latency for data transmission

Question 10

What is a common benefit of using SaaS for businesses?

A) Full control over hardware and infrastructure
B) Reduced need for in-house IT management and maintenance
C) Unlimited customization of the underlying software
D) Direct access to physical servers

Answer 10

Reduced need for in-house IT management and maintenance

Question 11

In which scenario is using FTP most appropriate

A) Securely transferring confidential documents
B) Sending encrypted email messages
C) Streaming live video content
D) Uploading large files to a public server for access by multiple users

Answer 11

Uploading large files to a public server for access by multiple users.

Question 12

Which ports are commonly used by DHCP for communication between clients and servers

A) 20 and 21
B) 53 and 80
C) 67 and 68
D) 443 and 445

Answer 12

67 and 68

Question 13

Which of the following tools uses ICMP to test network connectivity?

A) Ping
B) Traceroute
C) Netstat
D) Nmap

Answer 13

Ping

Question 14

What is a key advantage of using anycast communication in a network? Select all that apply

A) Increased security
B) Efficient routing of data
C) Simplified addressing
D) Reduced latency
E) Improved fault tolerance

Answer 14

B) Efficient routing of data

D) Reduced latency

E) Improved fault tolerance

Question 15

Which of the following 802.11 standards are capable of supporting both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands

A) 802.11ac
B) 802.11ax
C) 802.11b
D) 802.11g
E) 802.11n
F) 802.11a

Answer 15

A) 802.11ac

B) 802.11ax

E) 802.11n

Question 16

Which of the following statements best describes the performance of Twinaxial cables?

A) They provide the longest reach of any copper cable
B) They are primarily used for analog signal transmission
C) They offer high-speed data transfer with low latency over short distances
D) They require external amplification for long-distance use

Answer 16

They offer high-speed data transfer with low latency over short distances.

Question 17

What is a primary characteristic of a mesh network topology

A) All devices are connected to a central hub
B) Devices are connected in a linear sequence
C) Each device is connected to every other device
D) Devices are connected in a ring formation

Answer 17

Each device is connected to every other device

Question 18

What is the primary purpose of APIPA

A) To provide a failover mechanism when DHCP servers are unavailable
B) To assign public IP addresses to devices
C) To allocate private IP addresses for internet connectivity
D) To assign IPv6 addresses to devices on private networks

Answer 18

To provide a failover mechanism when DHCP servers are unavailable

Question 19

Which of the following is a characteristic of Class A IP addresses?

A) They support a small number of large networks
B) They are primarily used for multicast groups
C) They support a large number of small networks
D) They are reserved for private networks

Answer 19

They support a small number of large networks

Question 20

How does application-aware networking enhance the performance of business-critical applications?

A) By allocating more CPU resources
B) By prioritizing their network traffic
C) By increasing storage capacity
D) By reducing network cable length

Answer 20

By prioritizing their network traffic

Question 21

Which principle is most closely associated with least privilege access in ZTA

A) Trust but verify
B) Never trust, Always verify
C) Deny by default
D) Deny, then verify

Answer 21

Deny by default

Question 22

Which scenario is best suited for static routing?

A) Large, complex networks with frequent changes
B) Small, simple networks with predictable traffic patterns
C) Networks requiring automatic failover
D) Environments with high levels of redundancy

Answer 22

Small, simple networks with predictable traffic patterns

Question 23

What is the primary use case for implementing BGP in an enterprise network?

A) Providing robust and scalable inter-domain routing
B) Enhancing internal routing within a data center
C) Encrypting data transmissions
D) Monitoring internal network traffic

Answer 23

Providing robust and scalable inter-domain routing

Question 24

How does Administrative Distance affect route selection in a router?

A) Routes with higher AD are always preferred
B) AD does not affect route selection
C) Routes with lower AD are preferred over those with higher AD
D) AD is used only for internal routing decisions

Answer 24

Routes with lower AD are preferred over those with higher AD

Question 25

Which type of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a pool of public IP Addresses? A) Static NAT B) Dynamic NAT C) PAT D) Dual NAT

Answer 25

Dynamic NAT

Question 26

What does FHRP stand for in networking? A) Fast Hardware Routing Protocol B) First Hop Redundancy Protocol C) Flexible High-Resolution Protocol D) Fault Handling and Recovery Protocol

Answer 26

First Hop Redundancy Protocol

Question 27

What is the primary purpose of a VLAN database in network management? A) To store VLAN login credentials B) To maintain information about VLAN configurations and assignments C) To encrypt VLAN traffic D) To manage VLAN IP address allocations

Answer 27

To maintain information about VLAN configurations and assignments

Question 28

By which mechanism does a voice VLAN primarily enhance the performance of VoIP (Voice over IP) systems? A) By assigning VoIP traffic to a single IP address B) By ensuring that voice traffic receives higher priority and reduced latency C) By combining voice and data traffic on the same VLAN D) By reducing the bandwidth allocated to non-VoIP traffic

Answer 28

By ensuring that voice traffic receives higher priority and reduced latency

Question 29

What happens if there is a mismatch in speed settings between two connected network devices? A) The devices will automatically adjust to a common speed B) The connection may experience significant performance degradation or fail to establish C) The devices will use the highest supported speed D) The connection will pose a security risk

Answer 29

The connection may experience significant performance degradation or fail to establish

Question 30

What is the primary purpose of STP in a network? A) To prevent network loops and ensure a loop-free topology B) To prioritize certain types of traffic for faster transmission C) To allocate bandwidth dynamically between devices D) To segment the network into multiple broadcast domains

Answer 30

To prevent network loops and ensure a loop-free topology

Question 31

How many Designated Ports are allowed per network segment? A) One B) Two C) Multiple, depending on the network size D) None

Answer 31

One

Question 32

How does increasing the channel width from 20 MHz to 40 MHz affect a wireless network? Select all that apply. A) It reduces the network's security B) It increases the available bandwidth and potential data throughput C) It decreases the number of available channels, potentially causing more interference D) It simplifies network management

Answer 32

B) It increases the available bandwidth and potential data throughput C) It decreases the number of available channels, potentially causing more interference

Question 33

What is a potential drawback of using the 5GHz frequency band? A) Higher susceptibility to interference from other wireless devices B) Lower data transfer speeds compared to the 2.4GHz band C) Shorter range and less penetration through obstacles compared to the 2.4GHz band D) Limited number of available channels

Answer 33

Shorter range and less penetration through obstacles compared to the 2.4GHz band Limited number of available channels

Question 34

What could be a drawback of using a single SSID for both 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands in a mixed-device environment? A) Devices may always connect to the 5GHz band, leading to interference B) It could complicate the network's IP address management C) Devices might consistently connect to the 2.4GHz band, resulting in slower speeds D) It increases the complexity of configuring wireless encryption

Answer 34

Devices might consistently connect to the 2.4GHz band, resulting in slower speeds

Question 35

Which of the following is a key enhancement introduced in WPA3 over WPA2? A) WPA3 uses a faster encryption algorithm compared to WPA2. B) WPA3 eliminates the need for password-based authentication. C) WPA3 supports higher data transfer speeds compared to WPA2. D) WPA3 introduces improved protection against offline dictionary attacks.

Answer 35

WPA3 introduces improved protection against offline dictionary attacks.

Question 36

In a multi-story building, where would you most likely place an IDF? A) In the main telecommunications room on the ground floor B) On each floor to connect local devices to the MDF C) In a separate building to reduce interference D) Near the edge of the building to connect to external networks

Answer 36

On each floor to connect local devices to the MDF

Question 37

What is the main advantage of using a fiber distribution panel in a data center? A) It eliminates the need for fiber optic cables B) It allows for the organization and management of fiber connections C) It increases the speed of the fiber optic network D) It serves as the main power supply for network devices

Answer 37

It allows for the organization and management of fiber connections

Question 38

When balancing the power load across multiple circuits in a data center, which factor is MOST CRUCIAL to avoid circuit overload? A) Monitoring the current draw of each device B) Distributing devices based on their physical size C) Ensuring all devices are connected to a single high-capacity PDU D) Using power cables of uniform length

Answer 38

Monitoring the current draw of each device

Question 39

In a data center, which fire suppression system is MOST EFFECTIVE at extinguishing a fire without damaging sensitive electronic equipment? A) Foam-based systems that blanket the area to smother flames B) Water mist systems that cool the fire and reduce oxygen levels C) Inert gas systems that displace oxygen and suppress fire D) Carbon dioxide systems that rapidly cool the surrounding area

Answer 39

Inert gas systems that displace oxygen and suppress fire

Question 40

Which aspect of network documentation is BEST represented by a physical network diagram rather than a logical network diagram? A) The cabling paths and rack locations in a data center B) The flow of data and communication protocols C) The distribution of IP addresses and subnetting D) The implementation of ACLs across devices

Answer 40

The cabling paths and rack locations in a data center

Question 41

When troubleshooting network performance issues related to data transmission between different subnets, which layer's network diagram would be MOST USEFUL? A) Layer 1 B) Layer 2 C) Layer 3 D) Layer 4

Answer 41

Layer 3

Question 42

What is the PRIMARY risk associated with continuing to use network equipment beyond its EOS date? A) The equipment may no longer be compatible with newer network protocols B) The manufacturer may increase the cost of maintenance and support C) Security vulnerabilities may go unpatched, exposing the network to threats D) The physical hardware may start to degrade, leading to more frequent failures

Answer 42

Security vulnerabilities may go unpatched, exposing the network to threats

Question 43

Which method is MOST EFFECTIVE for ensuring that all change requests are properly tracked and documented in a network environment? A) Implementing an automated tracking system that logs requests and updates automatically B) Relying on manual entry of requests by the IT staff to ensure accuracy C) Assigning a dedicated team member to oversee all change requests D) Requiring periodic audits of the tracking system to identify any missing entries

Answer 43

Implementing an automated tracking system that logs requests and updates automatically

Question 44

In an SNMPv3 implementation, which component is CRUCIAL for ensuring that SNMP traps are securely transmitted and received between the network devices and the SNMP manager? A) The use of a well-defined community string B) The configuration of a MIB C) The implementation of the USM D) The assignment of SNMPv2c access levels

Answer 44

The implementation of the USM

Question 45

Which method is best for capturing packets on a specific network segment without interrupting network traffic? A) Using a network tap B) Enabling port mirroring on a switch C) Deploying a firewall with packet capture capabilities D) Running packet capture software directly on a network device E) All options are equally effective

Answer 45

Enabling port mirroring on a switch

Question 46

Which feature of a SIEM system is MOST CRUCIAL for detecting security incidents as they occur? A) The ability to aggregate logs from multiple sources B) The implementation of real-time correlation rules C) The storage of historical logs for compliance purposes D) The integration with external threat intelligence feeds

Answer 46

The implementation of real-time correlation rules

Question 47

Which tool is BEST SUITED for capturing and analyzing real-time network traffic to diagnose performance issues? A) A network protocol analyzer B) A syslog server C) A network management system D) A configuration management tool

Answer 47

A network protocol analyzer