Practice Test 2 Part 1 Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following connectors is typically used with fiber optic cables?

A) RJ45
B) LC
C) BNC
D) SC

A

B) LC

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2
Q

Which of the following IP addresses is a valid host address within the subnet 192.168.10.0/25?

A) 192.168.10.0
B) 192.168.10.255
C) 192.168.10.127
D) 192.168.10.1

A

D) 192.168.10.1

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3
Q

Which of the following is a key function of the Presentation layer in terms of data security?

A) Packet switching
B) Data compression
C) Data encryption
D) Error detection

A

C) Data encryption

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4
Q

Which routing protocol is used for exchanging routing information between autonomous systems on the internet?

A) OSPF
B) EIGRP
C) RIP
D) BGP

A

D) BGP

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5
Q

Which type of load balancing algorithm distributes traffic equally among all available servers, regardless of their current load?

A) Round-robin
B) Least connections
C) IP hash
D) Weighted round-robin

A

A) Round-robin

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6
Q

Which of the following is a common metric used in QoS configurations to measure the quality of a network connection?

A) Bandwidth
B) Latency
C) Packet loss
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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7
Q

What is the primary purpose of NAT?

A) To encrypt data for secure transmission
B) To translate private IP addresses to a public IP address for internet access
C) To provide dynamic IP address allocation
D) To prioritize network traffic

A

B) To translate private IP addresses to a public IP address for internet access

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8
Q

How does NFV contribute to cost savings in a network environment?

A) By reducing the number of required physical devices
B) By reducing the need for network monitoring
C) By eliminating the need for ongoing hardware upgrades
D) By providing built-in data encryption

A

A) By reducing the number of required physical devices

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9
Q

How does an internet gateway affect data traffic in a cloud environment?

A) It increases the bandwidth for internal network traffic
B) It directs outgoing traffic from instances to the internet and incoming traffic from the internet to instances
C) It encrypts all data traffic to and from the instances
D) It reduces latency for data traffic within the VPC

A

B) It directs outgoing traffic from instances to the internet and incoming traffic from the internet to instances

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10
Q

What is required to set up a Direct Connect connection between an on-premises data center and the cloud?

A) A public IP address for each device
B) A dedicated physical connection provided by a Direct Connect partner
C) A VPN client on each on-premises device
D) Dynamic IP address allocation

A

B) A dedicated physical connection provided by a Direct Connect partner

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11
Q

Which of the following best describes a use case for IaaS?

A) Using a pre-built email marketing tool
B) Managing user authentication and access control
C) Accessing productivity software like word processors and spreadsheets
D) Hosting a scalable e-commerce platform that requires customized configurations

A

D) Hosting a scalable e-commerce platform that requires customized configurations

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12
Q

Which of the following protocols is built on the SSH protocol?

A) FTP
B) SFTP
C) TFTP
D) HTTPS

A

B) SFTP

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13
Q

What type of transport layer protocol does TFTP use?

A) UDP
B) TCP
C) ICMP
D) IP

A

A) UDP

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14
Q

Which TCP feature is used to control the flow of data to prevent network congestion?

A) Sequence numbers
B) Window size
C) Error checking
D) Port numbers

A

B) Window size

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15
Q

What might be a valid reason for a network administrator to monitor and limit broadcast traffic?

A) To improve the accuracy of routing tables
B) To enhance data encryption across the network
C) To prevent network congestion and improve performance
D) To ensure all devices receive the same updates simultaneously

A

C) To prevent network congestion and improve performance

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16
Q

Which of the following are differences between 4G LTE and LTE-Advanced? (Select all that apply)

A) Higher Spectral Efficiency
B) Lower Latency
C) Support for 5G Devices
D) Support for Voice over LTE (VoLTE)
E) Carrier Aggregation

A

A) Higher Spectral Efficiency
B) Lower Latency
E) Carrier Aggregation

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17
Q

Which of the following is a primary component of a coaxial cable?

A) Twisted pairs
B) Fiber optic strands
C) Multiple copper conductors without shielding
D) A single copper conductor with a concentric shield

A

D) A single copper conductor with a concentric shield

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18
Q

What is a potential drawback of implementing a hybrid network topology?

A) Limited flexibility in network design
B) Increased costs and complexity
C) Incompatibility with certain connections
D) Reduced network performance

A

B) Increased costs and complexity

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19
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of using RFC1918 address ranges in an internal network?

A) Simplified DNS configuration
B) Reduced need for NAT
C) Enhanced encryption of data
D) Conservation of public IP addresses

A

D) Conservation of public IP addresses

20
Q

Which organization would most likely use a Class B IP address?

A) A large multinational corporation
B) A small business with a few devices
C) A medium-sized enterprise
D) A home user with a single device

A

C) A medium-sized enterprise

21
Q

Which component is essential for zero-touch provisioning to function?

A) Pre-configured hardware templates
B) Central management system
C) Manual setup scripts
D) Physical access to each device

A

B) Central management system

22
Q

What does SASE stand for in the context of network security?

A) Secure Access Service Edge
B) Security and Access Simplified Edge
C) Secure Automated Service Edge
D) Simplified Access Service Endpoint

A

A) Secure Access Service Edge

23
Q

What is a potential risk of relying solely on static routing in a medium to large enterprise network?

A) Increased computational overhead on routers
B) Reduced bandwidth efficiency
C) Increased vulnerability to network attacks
D) Difficulty in maintaining and updating routes

A

D) Difficulty in maintaining and updating routes

24
Q

What is the primary purpose of EIGRP?

A) To manage external routing between autonomous systems
B) To monitor network traffic for security threats
C) To encrypt data packets within the network
D) To provide efficient internal routing within an autonomous system

A

D) To provide efficient internal routing within an autonomous system

25
Why is it important to understand Administrative Distance when configuring a multi-protocol network? A) It ensures that the most reliable and trusted routes are used B) It helps in configuring static routes C) It simplifies the routing table D) It reduces the number of routing updates
A) It ensures that the most reliable and trusted routes are used
26
How does NAT contribute to network security? A) By encrypting data packets B) By reducing the need for firewalls C) By increasing the complexity of routing tables D) By hiding internal IP addresses from external networks
D) By hiding internal IP addresses from external networks
27
What is the primary benefit of using FHRP in a network? A) Simplified network configuration B) Enhanced security through encryption C) Increased network redundancy and reliability D) Improved network speed
C) Increased network redundancy and reliability
28
How does the VLAN database contribute to network segmentation? A) By keeping VLAN configurations centralized and consistent across the network B) By merging multiple VLANs into a single broadcast domain C) By eliminating the need for VLAN tagging D) By providing additional physical ports for VLANs
A) By keeping VLAN configurations centralized and consistent across the network
29
How does the use of a voice VLAN affect network security? A) It reduces the security of voice traffic B) It isolates voice traffic from data traffic, potentially enhancing security C) It combines voice and data traffic, increasing security risks D) It encrypts all voice communications by default
B) It isolates voice traffic from data traffic, potentially enhancing security
30
How does the duplex setting of a network interface affect data transmission? A) It determines the IP address range B) It configures the VLAN ID C) It encrypts the data packets D) It controls whether the interface can send and receive data simultaneously
D) It controls whether the interface can send and receive data simultaneously
31
What happens to a port that is designated as a "blocked" port by STP? A) It continues to forward non-STP traffic normally B) It is disabled entirely C) It does not forward user traffic but listens for STP messages D) It blocks traffic but becomes a backup for the root port
C) It does not forward user traffic but listens for STP messages
32
What is the typical state of the Alternate Port? A) Forwarding B) Blocking C) Listening D) Learning
B) Blocking
33
In the 2.4 GHz frequency band, why is it recommended to use channels 1, 6, and 11 specifically? A) They are the only channels that support high-speed data transfer B) They simplify the configuration process C) They are legally mandated D) They are the only non-overlapping channels in this frequency band
D) They are the only non-overlapping channels in this frequency band
34
What is an important consideration of using the 6GHz frequency band compared to the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands? A) Increased range and penetration through obstacles B) Reduced range of channels C) Higher power consumption D) Shorter range and less penetration through obstacles
D) Shorter range and less penetration through obstacles
35
What is a significant benefit of using a mesh network in a large home or office environment? A) Reduced need for node encryption B) Improved bandwidth by using only wired connections C) Seamless coverage with automatic rerouting if a node fails D) Simplified configuration with fewer devices to manage
C) Seamless coverage with automatic rerouting if a node fails
36
Which of the following is a primary reason for implementing a captive portal in a public Wi-Fi network? A) To control and monitor user access to the network B) To limit the bandwidth usage per user C) To provide a high level of encryption for all data D) To enhance the physical security of network hardware
A) To control and monitor user access to the network
37
Which of the following best describes the function of the MDF in a network infrastructure? A) It connects external communication lines with internal network wiring B) It distributes power to all network devices in a building C) It serves as a secondary connection point for localized networks D) It provides wireless connectivity to devices within the building
A) It connects external communication lines with internal network wiring
38
When installing a fiber distribution panel, what is the MOST CRITICAL consideration to ensure optimal network performance? A) Maintaining proper bend radius for the fiber optic cables B) Installing the panel at eye level for easy access C) Ensuring the panel is located near the main power source D) Using color-coded cables for different types of data
A) Maintaining proper bend radius for the fiber optic cables
39
If multiple high-power devices must be connected to a single power circuit, what is the MOST EFFECTIVE method to prevent circuit overload? A) Implementing load-shedding to reduce power consumption during peak usage B) Using surge protectors to distribute power evenly across devices C) Installing higher gauge power cables to handle the increased load D) Monitoring power consumption and staggering the startup of devices E) All of the above are equally effective
D) Monitoring power consumption and staggering the startup of devices
40
Which characteristic of a fire suppression system is MOST CRITICAL for protecting sensitive electronics in a data center during a fire? A) The system's ability to extinguish a fire without using water B) The speed at which the suppression agent is deployed C) The capacity to cool the room to prevent equipment overheating D) The integration with the building's HVAC system for enhanced airflow
A) The system's ability to extinguish a fire without using water
41
When troubleshooting network issues, which diagram is MOST USEFUL for identifying misconfigurations related to network segmentation? A) Physical network diagram B) Logical network diagram C) Wiring schematic D) Topology map
B) Logical network diagram
42
What is the PRIMARY reason for maintaining an accurate asset inventory in a network environment? A) To ensure all devices are powered on and functioning correctly B) To track warranty expiration dates and manage support contracts C) To organize network devices based on their physical location D) To document the visual appearance of hardware for security audits
B) To track warranty expiration dates and manage support contracts
43
What is the MOST EFFECTIVE strategy for managing network equipment that is approaching its EOL? A) Continue using the equipment until it fails, then replace it with new hardware B) Gradually phase out the old equipment while integrating newer technology C) Immediately decommission the equipment and replace it with the latest models D) Seek third-party support to extend the equipment's operational life
B) Gradually phase out the old equipment while integrating newer technology
44
Which of the following sequences represents the CORRECT ORDER of steps for processing and tracking a change request? A) Log the request, prioritize the request, implement the change, update the log, review the outcome B) Implement the change, log the request, review the outcome, update the log, prioritize the request C) Review the outcome, implement the change, prioritize the request, log the request, update the log D) Prioritize the request, implement the change, log the request, review the outcome, update the log
A) Log the request, prioritize the request, implement the change, update the log, review the outcome
45
In the context of SNMP, what is the role of the MIB within a network management system? A) It acts as a database for storing SNMP trap messages B) It defines the structure and format of the SNMP community strings C) It provides a hierarchical structure to organize and access network management data D) It encrypts SNMP messages to ensure secure communication
C) It provides a hierarchical structure to organize and access network management data
46
Which of the following packet capture methods is LEAST likely to introduce significant performance degradation or packet loss in a network? A) Using a network tap B) Enabling port mirroring on a switch C) Running packet capture software directly on a network device D) Deploying a firewall with packet capture capabilities
A) Using a network tap
47
What is the PRIMARY benefit of integrating APIs into a network monitoring system? A) It allows for real-time data exchange between different network tools B) It automates the deployment of network hardware configurations C) It ensures secure communication between network devices D) It reduces the need for manual intervention in network troubleshooting
A) It allows for real-time data exchange between different network tools